Crime Scenes Quiz
Note: Only a test proctor can log you onto this test!
Please enter Rank & Name (Last, First) for name. Example: A1C Smith, John
- 1.
What is designed to reduce transmission time?
- A.
Code Words
- B.
Brevity Codes
- C.
Pass words
- D.
Telephones
Correct Answer
B. Brevity Codes -
- 2.
What is the authentication code sheet used for?
- A.
Making our activities known to the enemy.
- B.
Keeping our activities unknown from enemy eavesdroppers.
- C.
Giving our enemies the run around.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
B. Keeping our activities unknown from enemy eavesdroppers. -
- 3.
Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash?
- A.
On-duty supervisor and handler.
- B.
Chief, Security Forces.
- C.
Operations officer.
- D.
Kennel master.
Correct Answer
A. On-duty supervisor and handler. -
- 4.
Which copy of a DD Form 2708 is maintained in the case file?
- A.
The original copy
- B.
The printed copy
- C.
All copies
- D.
The second copy
Correct Answer
A. The original copy -
- 5.
The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is?
- A.
The military working dog’s ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions.
- B.
Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility.
- C.
The team’s ability to work alone.
- D.
It’s quick response capability.
Correct Answer
B. Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility. -
- 6.
One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is?
- A.
Put mud on it.
- B.
Pattern painting.
- C.
Place foliage on an in the barrel.
- D.
Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth.
Correct Answer
D. Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth. -
- 7.
What is the military working dog’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
- A.
Protect members of the apprehension team.
- B.
Dispersing the remaining crowd off-leash.
- C.
Biting and holding demonstrators.
- D.
Apprehending rioters.
Correct Answer
A. Protect members of the apprehension team. -
- 8.
For camouflage of your equipment to be successful, it must?
- A.
Blend with its surroundings
- B.
Stand out from the wooded terrain.
- C.
Be easily applied and even more easily removed.
- D.
Be easily distinguished from non-camouflaged equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Blend with its surroundings -
- 9.
When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons?
- A.
To cover obstacles.
- B.
To tie-in with adjacent units.
- C.
Most likely mounted avenue of approach last.
- D.
On most likely dismounted avenue of approach first.
Correct Answer
C. Most likely mounted avenue of approach last. -
- 10.
What is the purpose of an interview?
- A.
To gain information in order to establish the facts of a crime and to develop background information on specific crimes and/ or offenses.
- B.
To gain information to establish a story to use against the suspect in a court of law.
- C.
To gain information so you can understand why a crime has taken place.
- D.
To gain information so if the stories are different, you can edit ones statement.
Correct Answer
A. To gain information in order to establish the facts of a crime and to develop background information on specific crimes and/ or offenses. -
- 11.
Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacle are called?
- A.
Grazing fire
- B.
Dead space
- C.
Final protective line
- D.
Principle direction of fire
Correct Answer
B. Dead space -
- 12.
What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace?
- A.
Code of Conduct
- B.
Title 10, US Code
- C.
Self-defense right
- D.
Citizens right of arrest
Correct Answer
D. Citizens right of arrest -
- 13.
What are the two types of enemy ambushes?
- A.
Near and Close ambushes.
- B.
Far and Wide Ambushes.
- C.
Near and far ambushes.
- D.
Ready and Not ready ambushes.
Correct Answer
C. Near and far ambushes. -
- 14.
When do we use deliberate ambushes?
- A.
Against a specific target at a predetermined location.
- B.
Against a large number in a large area.
- C.
When a target is determined.
- D.
Never.
Correct Answer
A. Against a specific target at a predetermined location. -
- 15.
You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in ____________.
- A.
The UCMJ
- B.
The Internal Security Act of 1950
- C.
Title 18, Section 1385 US Code
- D.
The Manual for Courts-Martial
Correct Answer
C. Title 18, Section 1385 US Code -
- 16.
1. What are the characteristics of the M249?
- A.
The M249 is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).
- B.
The M249 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M249 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.
- C.
The M249 is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action, shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4.
- D.
The M249 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.
Correct Answer
D. The M249 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position. -
- 17.
If camouflage netting is not available, what can you use to tone down equipment?
- A.
Tone down paint
- B.
Rocks
- C.
Branches
- D.
Old uniforms
Correct Answer
A. Tone down paint -
- 18.
What is the most common error made when firing around corners?
- A.
Standing up
- B.
Firing from the wrong shoulder
- C.
To noisy
- D.
No balance
Correct Answer
B. Firing from the wrong shoulder -
- 19.
Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...
- A.
US Army military police
- B.
US marshals
- C.
City police
- D.
County sheriffs
Correct Answer
B. US marshals -
- 20.
When time is available, who normally constructs obstacles?
- A.
The enemy
- B.
Fire Department
- C.
Engineers
- D.
Civilians
Correct Answer
C. Engineers -
- 21.
The three essential area that support “objective reasonableness” are Subject action,
- A.
A. Officer response, and Force application
- B.
B. Risk perception, and Officer response.
- C.
C. Force application, and Level of force.
- D.
D. Risk perception, and Level of force.
Correct Answer
B. B. Risk perception, and Officer response. -
- 22.
For how long does the trip flare burn?
- A.
1 minute
- B.
3 minute
- C.
5 minute
- D.
7 minute
Correct Answer
A. 1 minute -
- 23.
What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 50-caliber machine gun?
- A.
1,800
- B.
2,212
- C.
3,600
- D.
6,764
Correct Answer
D. 6,764 -
- 24.
The M2 is most effectively employed when?
- A.
In the “free gun” position.
- B.
In a fixed static position.
- C.
On a mobile platform.
- D.
Positioned on the ground.
Correct Answer
C. On a mobile platform. -
- 25.
Define a close-in security area?
- A.
Controlling entry to the area and the individual resource.
- B.
The security area of interest use of series patrolling to reduce threat.
- C.
Small areas that contain a nuclear weapon and are generally located inside a larger restricted or limited area.
- D.
Big areas that do not contain nuclear weapon and are generally inside a small area.
Correct Answer
C. Small areas that contain a nuclear weapon and are generally located inside a larger restricted or limited area. -
- 26.
Of what does a Response force consist?
- A.
The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 3 minutes (10 in 3 response).
- B.
The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (15 in 5 response).
- C.
The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 2 minutes (15 in 2 response).
- D.
The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (10 in 5 response).
Correct Answer
B. The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (15 in 5 response). -
- 27.
What type of sensors are not associated with the MIDS system?
- A.
Seismic, magnetic, and active infrared (beam)
- B.
Passive Infrared (Heat)
- C.
Repeaters and Hand held displays
- D.
Break Wire Sensors
Correct Answer
C. Repeaters and Hand held displays -
- 28.
Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?
- A.
Contrast with the background
- B.
Regularity of Outline
- C.
Shine
- D.
Ranging Targets
Correct Answer
A. Contrast with the background -
- 29.
What are the cornerstones of our profession?
- A.
Integrity and Behavior
- B.
Ethics and Attitude
- C.
Attitude and Behavior
- D.
Ethics and Integrity
Correct Answer
D. Ethics and Integrity -
- 30.
When setting up a concertina roadblock, place the concertina rolls or coils about _________.
- A.
5 meters in depth
- B.
10 meters in depth
- C.
15 meters in depth
- D.
20 meters in depth
Correct Answer
B. 10 meters in depth -
- 31.
Surface trip flares outwardly resemble _________.
- A.
Antipersonnel mines
- B.
Smoke parachutes
- C.
Pyrotechnics
- D.
Slap flares
Correct Answer
A. Antipersonnel mines -
- 32.
You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violator’s race?
- A.
Seeking favors
- B.
Exercising authority
- C.
Assistance to others
- D.
Personal attitudes
Correct Answer
D. Personal attitudes -
- 33.
What are the seven types of M4 ammunition?
- A.
M193 tracer, M196 ball, M199 blank, M200 dummy, M855 tracer, M856 ball, M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA).
- B.
M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA), M193 ball, M196 tracer, M200 blank, M199 tracer, M856 dummy, M855 ball.
- C.
M193 ball, M196 tracer, M199 dummy, M200 blank, M855 ball, M856 tracer, M862 short range training ammunition (SRTA).
- D.
M864 short range training ammunition (SRTA), M194 ball, M187 tracer, M199 gummy, M854 ball, M867 tracer, M911 blank.
Correct Answer
C. M193 ball, M196 tracer, M199 dummy, M200 blank, M855 ball, M856 tracer, M862 short range training ammunition (SRTA). -
- 34.
List the number and titles of the two forms associated with searches.
- A.
AF Form 52, Evidence Tag and AF form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize.
- B.
AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1364, Consent for Search and Seizure.
- C.
AF Form 1364, consent for Search and Seizure and AF Form 52, Evidence Tag.
- D.
AF Form 1364, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1176, Consent for Search and Seizure.
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1364, Consent for Search and Seizure. -
- 35.
Where is the strip and grid method normally used?
- A.
Large outdoor areas
- B.
Small indoor areas
- C.
Large indoor areas
- D.
Small outdoor areas
Correct Answer
A. Large outdoor areas -
- 36.
What are the characteristics of the M9 pistol?
- A.
The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.
- B.
The M9 is an automatic, magazine-fed, shoulder fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, BURST).
- C.
The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action weapon, which is chambered for the 10mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 24 ounces unloaded and 31 ounces loaded with a 12-round magazine.
Correct Answer
A. The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine. -
- 37.
If you decide not to fire M136 AT4 what must you do immediately?
- A.
De-cock the launcher.
- B.
Replace transport safety strap.
- C.
Replace transport safety pin.
- D.
Remove spent ammunition cartridge.
Correct Answer
C. Replace transport safety pin. -
- 38.
The Geneva Conventions became effective in _____.
- A.
1955
- B.
1956
- C.
1957
- D.
1958
Correct Answer
B. 1956 -
- 39.
The Claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?
- A.
Offensive weapon
- B.
Defensive weapon
- C.
Passive defense weapon
- D.
Active defense weapon
Correct Answer
B. Defensive weapon -
- 40.
Article 5 of the UCMJ states?
- A.
The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, or overseas.
- B.
The UCMJ applies only in the states.
- C.
The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, but not overseas.
- D.
The UCMJ applies only on a military installation.
Correct Answer
A. The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, or overseas. -
- 41.
Which source of military jurisdiction provides the President with the title Commander in Chief?
- A.
The U.S. Constitution.
- B.
Military Jurisdiction.
- C.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
- D.
The service members fighting in war.
Correct Answer
A. The U.S. Constitution. -
- 42.
What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated?
- A.
Offense codes
- B.
Involvement codes
- C.
Bias motivation codes
- D.
Offense Statutory basis
Correct Answer
C. Bias motivation codes -
- 43.
What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant?
- A.
Have a witness to the statement initial all questions and answers.
- B.
Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer.
- C.
You can’t do it; this technique is never authorized for security forces use on a statement.
- D.
Have the person giving the statement sign a written agreement to using this technique.
Correct Answer
B. Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer. -
- 44.
True/False: When occupying a fighting position immediately complete a range card for that position.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 45.
The chain-of-custody on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the…
- A.
Property custodian.
- B.
Chief Investigator.
- C.
First person who noticed the property.
- D.
Person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property.
Correct Answer
D. Person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property. -
- 46.
What is placed in the badge number block of the AF Form 1109 when no badge is used for an area?
- A.
N/A
- B.
Authorized
- C.
Badge not used
- D.
Authorized without badge
Correct Answer
A. N/A -
- 47.
How many types of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) do not involve combat?
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
Eight
Correct Answer
C. Six -
- 48.
The DFC, the S staff, and flight leaders (FLs) show, in graphic form, air base defense (ABD) operations on maps, overlays , and various other displays using standard _______________.
- A.
Military symbology
- B.
Civilian symbology
- C.
Charts and Forms
- D.
Staff Control Tools
Correct Answer
A. Military symbology -
- 49.
What is the First Sergeant responsible for?
- A.
Provides leadership and direction for squadron personnel. Ensures effective forces protection policies, procedures, resources and personnel are available to accomplish the mission.
- B.
Senior SF enlisted leader for the unit. Monitors unit functions and provides feed back to the commander on the status of unit operations, personnel and programs.
- C.
Evaluates unit personnel on readiness through written, oral, and performance testing. Develops and conducts evaluation scenarios for wing and squadron level exercises.
- D.
Serves as the liaison between the commander and the enlisted force. Ensures the commander’s policies are known and understood. Manages unit personnel programs.
Correct Answer
D. Serves as the liaison between the commander and the enlisted force. Ensures the commander’s policies are known and understood. Manages unit personnel programs. -
- 50.
Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
- A.
UCMJ
- B.
US Constitution
- C.
Federal Statutes
- D.
International law
Correct Answer
A. UCMJ -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Jan 20, 2016Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 18, 2009Quiz Created by
18sfs_utm
- Activism Quizzes
- Adult Quizzes
- Age Quizzes
- Antisocial Quizzes
- Boy Quizzes
- Bullying Quizzes
- Clan Quizzes
- Communism Quizzes
- Community Quizzes
- Conflict Quizzes
- Cultural Assimilation Quizzes
- Culture Quizzes
- Death Quizzes
- Destiny Quizzes
- Dictator Quizzes
- Disability Quizzes
- Environment Quizzes
- Ethnicity Quizzes
- Etiquette Quizzes
- Event Quizzes
- Feminism Quizzes
- Festival Quizzes
- Fraternity Quizzes
- Future Quizzes
- Gay Quizzes
- Gender Quizzes
- Generation Quizzes
- Girl Quizzes
- Goth Quizzes
- Homelessness Quizzes
- Human Rights Quizzes
- Humanity Quizzes
- Kid Quizzes
- Labor Quizzes
- Law Quizzes
- Lesbian Quizzes
- LGBT Quizzes
- Lifestyle Quizzes
- Man Quizzes
- Mature Quizzes
- Military Quizzes
- Morality Quizzes
- Movement Quizzes
- Museum Quizzes
- Mythology Quizzes
- Paranormal Quizzes
- Peer Pressure Quizzes
- People Quizzes
- Politics Quizzes
- POSH Quizzes
- Racism Quizzes
- Religion Quizzes
- Romanticism Quizzes
- Security Quizzes
- Social Quizzes
- Social Science Quizzes
- Spirituality Quizzes
- Tribe Quizzes
- Wedding Quizzes
- Women Quizzes
- Work Quizzes
- Youth Quizzes
Back to top