Psychology Second Quarter

Total Flash Cards » 170
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1. 
In a ________________ design, several different age-groups of participants are studied at one time.

A. longitudinal
B. cross-sectional
C. cross-sequential
D. cross-longitudinal
 
B. Cross-sectional
 
2. 
In the analogy of the twisted ladder (page 300), the sequence of amines would be representated by the _______________ of the ladder.

A. sides
B. length
C. rungs
D. wood
 
C. Rungs
 
3. 

Brandon has blue eyes, even though both his mother and father have brown eyes. What do we know about Brandon's parents?

A. At least one of his parents has a recessive blue eye color gene.
B. Each of his parents must have one recessive blue-eye color gene.
C. Each of his parents must have one dominant blue-eye color gene.
D. Neither of his parents has a blue-eye color gene.

 
B. Each of his parents must have one recessive blue-eye color gene. (see page 301).
 
4. 
Which of the following is a disorder caused by having an extra chromosome?

A. Tay-Sachs
B. PKU
C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. Down Syndrome
 
D. Down Syndrome
 
5. 
The fertilized egg cell is called a ___________

A. Zygote
B. Ovum
C. Sperm
D. Blastocyst
 
A. Zygote
 
6. 
________________ refers to heredity and the influence of inherited characteristics on personality, growth, intellect, social skills, etc; behavior genetics is relatively new field that attempts to identify genetic basis of behavior.
 
Nature
 
7. 
________________ refers to influences of the environment on inherited traits including parenting styles, socioeconomic status, physical surroundings, etc.
 
Nurture
 
8. 
_______________ is the science of heredity
 
Genetics
 
9. 
_______________ contains genetic codes and chromosomes.
 
DNA
 
10. 
Which of the following statements about Abby and Brittany Hensel (conjoined twins) is FALSE?

A. they are able to coordinate their actions.
B. They are remarkably healthy
C. They could have been successfully separated.
D. They are 1 of only 4 sets of living dicephalic twins.
 
C. They could have been successfully separated.
 
11. 
The first 2 weeks of pregnancy are called the _____________ period.

A. fetal
B. embryonic
C. placental
D. germinal
 
D. germinal
 
12. 
Which of the following does NOT happen in the germinal period?

A. dividing mass of cells travels to the uterus
B. developing organs can be affected by toxins passing through the placenta
C. mass of cells form a hollow ball
D. cells begins to differentiate
 
B. developing organs can be affected by toxins passing through the placenta
 
13. 
The period of pregnancy that contains the clearest examples of critical periods is the __________ period.

A. germinal
B. embryonic
C. fetal
D. gestational
 
B. embryonic

This is the stage when the fetus attaches itself to the mother and becomes vulerable to outside toxins.
 
14. 
Intellectual disability and blindness are possible outcomes of the effects of ____________ on the developing baby.

A. alcohol
B. caffeine
C. cocaine
D. mercury
 
D. Mercury
 
15. 
Which sense is least functional at birth?

A. touch
B. taste
C. smell
D. vision
 
D. Vision
 
16. 
In which of Piaget's stages would a child be who has just developed object permanence?

A. sensorimotor
B. preoperational
C. concrete operations
D. formal operations
 
A. Sensorimotor
 
17. 
Vygotsky defines _______________ as the difference between what a child can do alone and what that child can do with help.

A. scaffolding
B. habituation
C. zone of proximal development
D. metamemory
 
C. Zone of Proximal Development
 
18. 
"Daddy go bye-bye" is an example of ___________

A. telegraphic speech
B. babbling
C. a holophrase
D. cooing
 
A. telegraphic speech
 
19. 
According to Thomas and Chess, a child that is very irregular in sleeping and eating, resists change, and is negative and loud is labeled a ___________ child.

A. easy
B. difficult
C. slow-to-warm-up
D. negative
 
B. Difficult
 
20. 
What kind of attachment, according to Ainsworth, is shown by a baby who explores the room, gets upset when the mother leaves but is easily soothed, and is happy to see the mother when she returns?

A. secure
B. avoidant
C. ambivalent
D. disorganized-disoriented
 
A. Secure
 
21. 
Mothers who were abusive and/or neglectful were associated with the ______________ type of attachment.

A. secure
B. avoidant
C. ambivalent
D. disorganized-disoriented
 
D. disorganized-disoriented
 
22. 
In Erikson's ______________ stage of psychosocial development, the child learns self control and begins to feel more capable.

A. Infant - trust versus mistrust
B. Toddler - autonomy versus shame and doubt
C. Preschool - initiative versus guilt
D. Elementary - industry versus inferiority
 
C. Preschool - initiative versus guilt
 
23. 
Which of the following statements about adolescence is FALSE?

A. it begins with the onset of puberty
B. it is a time during which the young person is no longer a child but is not yet an adult
C. it ends when puberty is complete
D. it is a time of preoccupation with one's own thoughts.
 
C. It ends when puberty is complete
 
24. 
Which term refers to the feeling of being unique and protected?

A. formal operations
B. imaginary audience
C. personal fable
D. puberty
 
C. personal fable
 
25. 
According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the _____________ level of morality.

A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. postconventional
D. preliminary
 
B. Convential
 
26. 
According to Erikson, the task of the adolescent is to ________________.

A. find a consistent sense of self
B. develop a sense of initiative
C. find intimacy with another
D. develop a sense of industry
 
A. Find a consistent sense of self
 
27. 
Which of the following issues typically creates a lot of conflict between most teens and their parents?

A. serious issues of drug and alcohol use
B. trivial issues of hair, clothing and music choices
C. issues of postconventional morality
D. issues of achieving an identity
 
B. Trivial issues of hair, clothing and music choices.
 
28. 
The period of 5-10 years during which a woman's reproductive system begins to decline is called _________________.

A. climacteric
B. perimenopause
C. menopause
D. all the above
 
B. Perimenopause
 
29. 
Which of the following has NOT been shown to help maintain a healthy level of cognitive functioning?

A. working crossword puzzles
B. reading
C. going to plays
D. sedentary lifestyle
 
D. Sendentary Lifestyle
 
30. 
Today's worker may change careers as many as __________ times.

A. one to two
B. three to five
C. five to seven
D. eight to nine
 
C. Five to Seven
 
31. 
According to Erikson, achieving true intimacy is difficult if one's ____________ is not already established.

A. identity
B. independence
C. career
D. marraige
 
A. Identity
 
32. 
According to Baumrind, ______________ parenting may led to an abusive relationship.

A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C. Permissive Neglectful
D. Permissive Indulgent
 
C. Permissive Neglectful
 
33. 
In Erikson's last crisis, the life review is _____________.

A. a process of blame
B. looking back on the life one has lived
C. an analysis of one's parents' lives
D. the writing of a biography
 
B. Looking back on the life one has lived.
 
34. 
A sense of completeness of one's ego, or identity, is called ____________.

A. life review
B. intelligence
C. integrity
D. generativity
 
C. integrity
 
35. 
According to research, if an older person wants to adjust more positively to aging, he or she should ____________.

A. quietly withdraw from social life
B. limit his/her range of activities
C. disengage from life
D. remain active in some way
 
D. remain active in some way
 
36. 
In which theory of aging do telomeres become the major means of aging cells?

A. wear-and-tear
B. cellular-clock theory
C. free-radical theory
D. hormonal-imbalance theory
 
B. cellular-clock theory
 
37. 
In the ___________ stage of reaction to death and dying, a person may promise to do everything the doctor says if the doctor will say that the person can live a little longer.

A. denial
B. anger
C. bargaining
D. depression
E. Acceptance
 
C. Bargaining
 
38. 
Differences between age-groups would cause the most serious problems for which developmental research method?

A. longitudinal
B. cross-cultural
C. cross-sectional
D. cross-sequential
 
C. Cross-sectional
 
39. 
If a person has one gene for cystic fibrosis, but does not have the disease, cystic fibrosis must be a _____ disorder.

A. dominant
B. recessive
C. sex-linked
D. polygenic
 
B. recessive
 
40. 
In _____________ syndrome, the 23rd pair of chromosomes is missing an X, resulting in short, infertile fermales.

A. PKU
B. down syndrome
C. Klinefelter's
D. Turner's
 
D. Turner's
 
41. 
which of the following represents dizygotic twins?

A. one egg is fertilized by two different sperm
B. One egg splits and is then fertilized by two different sperm
C. Two eggs get fertilized by two different sperm
D. two eggs are fertilized by the same sperm
 
C. Two eggs get fertilized by two different sperm.
 
42. 
The critical period for pregnancy is the ___________.

A. germinal
B. embryonic
C. fetal
D. last trimester
 
B. embryonic
 
43. 
Mary's baby was born with a smaller than normal head, some facial malformations, and is mentally retarded. Mary most likely _____________ during her early pregnancy.

A. ate fish with mercury in it
B. drank too much caffeine
C. drank alcohol
D. smoke marijuana
 
C. drank alcohol
 
44. 
Which of the newborn's senses is the most fully developed at birth?

A. hearing
B. vision
C. smell
D. touch
 
D. touch
 
45. 
At what age can the typical infant sit without any support?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 12 months
 
B 6 months
 
46. 
By age 5, the brain is at ____________ percent of its adult weight.

A. 25
B. 50
C. 90
D. 100
 
C. 90
 
47. 
In which of Piaget's stages does the child become capable of understanding conversation?

A. sensorimotor
B. preoperational
C. formal operations
D. concrete operations
 
C. formal operations
 
48. 
According to Vygotsky, giving a child help in the form of asking leading questions and providing examples is called _____________

A. scaffolding
B. the zone of proximal development
C. private speech
D. habituation
 
A. scaffolding
 
49. 
As children grow from the preschool years into middle childhood, the big changes in the capacity of short term memory are most likely due to an increase in the use of:

A. metamemory
B. control strategies
C. habituation
D. visual-recognition memory
 
B. control strategies
 
50. 
Little Kashif held his empty cup up to his mother and said, "Milk!" His use of this word is labeled_________

A. a holophrase
B. telegraphic speech
C. babbling
D. cooing
 
A. a holophrase
 
51. 
As an infant, Liz never like change, but if you introduced new things gradually, she will eventually accept them without too much fuss. Liz is most likely _________

A. easy
B. difficult
C. slow to warm up
D. securely attached
 
C. slow to warm up
 
52. 
In the Strange Situation, _____________ babies were clinging, unwilling to explore, very upset when Mommy left the room, and demanded to be held but pushed her away at the same time when she returned.

A. secure
B. avoidant
C. ambivalent
D. disorganized-disoriented
 
C. ambivalent
 
53. 
In Erikson's crisis of ____________, children are developing a sense of competence and self-esteem.

A. trust versus mistrust
B. autonomy versus shame and doubt
C. initiative versus guilt
D. industry versus inferiority
 
D. industry versus inferiority
 
54. 
Samantha refuses to go to school because her chin has a "huge" pimple on it and she is afraid that everyone will laugh at her. Samantha is a victim of __________.

A. the imaginary audience
B. the personal fable
C. abstract egocentrism
D. formal operations
 
A. the imaginary audience
 
55. 
Erikson's fifth stage of psychosocial development is:

A. identity versus role confusion
B. intimacy versus isolation
C. generativity versus stagnation
D. integrity versus despair
 
A. identity versus role confusion
 
56. 
Vision and hearing begin to decline in the ________

A. 20's
B. 30's
C. 40's
D. 50's
 
B. 30's
 
57. 
A decline in testosterone in the 40's is called _______

A. perimenopause
B. menopause
C. climacteric
D. andropause
 
D. Andropause
 
58. 
The crisis of middle adulthood, according to Erikson, is ______________.

A. identity versusrole confusion
B. generativity versus stagnation
C. intimacy versus isolation
D. integrity versus despair
 
B. generativity versus stagnation
 
59. 
Rebellion in the teenage years is most likely outcome of ____________ parenting.

A. authoritarian
B. authoritative
C. permissive-neglectful
D. permissive indulgent
 
A. authoritarian
 
60. 
Collagen, an elastic tissue that becomes less elastic as we get older, is a good example of the __________ theory of aging.

A. wear-and-tear
B. cellular-clock
C. free-radical
D. active
 
A. Wear-and-Tear
 
61. 
According to Kubler-Ross, when bargaining fails, ____________ usually results.

A. denial
B. anger
C. depression
D. acceptance
 
C. depression
 
62. 
Which culture hs the greatest fear of the dead (according to that Applying Psychology section on page 335-336)?

A. Hindu
B. Cheyenne
C. Mexican
D. Navajo
 
D. Navajo
 
63. 
The optimal amount of stress that people need to promote their health and sense of well-being is called ______________.

A. intensity
B. distress
C. eustress
D. acute stress
 
C. Eustress
 
64. 
Research has shown that ____________ have a long-term effect on physical and mental health, but __________ have a great impact on short-term health.

A. hassles; major life events
B. major life events; hassles
C. major life events; catastrophes
D. hassles; catastrophes
 
B. Major life events; hassles
 
65. 
Name three top stressors from the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)
 
Death of a spouse
Divorce
Jail Term
Death of close family member
Personal injury or illness
Marriage
etc....
 
66. 
Name three of the top stressors from the College Undergraduate Stress Scale (CUSS)
 
Being raped
Finding out you're HIV positive
Death of a close friend
Contracting a STD other than AIDS
Concerns about being pregnant
Finals
etc....
 
67. 
_________________ is used to describe the physical, emotional, cognitive, and behavioral responses to events that are appraised as threatening or challenging.
 
Stress
 
68. 
Stress causing events are called _____________
 
Stressors
 
69. 
When people have to work harder, do more work, or work faster, they are experiencing:

A. frustration
B. uncontrollability
C. pressure
D. conflict
 
C. Pressure
 
70. 
The stress-increasing effects of uncontrollability are related to the effects of ____________ on stress.

A. frustration
B. unpredictability
C. pressure
D. conflict
 
B. Unpredictability
 
71. 
Eduardo is on his way to an important job interview when his car breaks down on the highway. Eduardo is likely to experience what kind of frustration?

A. external
B. internal
C. personal
D. uncontrollable
 
A. External
 
72. 
The first response that people typically make to frustration is ____________.

A. persistence
B. increasing efforts
C. varying efforts
D. aggression
 
A. Persistence
 
73. 
What is this?
Conflict occurring when a person must choose between two desireable goals.

Example: Choosing btwn key lime pie or chocolate mouse pie.
 
approach-approach conflict
 
74. 
What is this?
Conflict occurring when a person must choose btwn two undesirable goals.

Example: Fearful of dental procedures avoids dentist.
 
Approach-Avoidance Conflict
 
75. 
What is this?
Conflict occurring when a person must choose or not choose a goal that has both positive and negative aspects.

Example: Getting married...good togetherness...bad mortgage.
 
Approach-Avoidance Conflict
 
76. 
What is this?
Conflict in which a person must decide btwn two goals, with each goal possessing both positive and negative aspects.

Example: Living in the country with the quiet, but having to drive a long way to work OR living in the city with the noise, but having a shorter drive to work.
 
Double-Approach-Avoidance conflict.
 
77. 
What is this?
Conflict which the person must decide btwn more than two goals, with each goal possessing both positive and negative aspects.

Example: Deciding on a specific school or a career major.
 
Multiple-Approach-Avoidance conflict
 
78. 
In the _______________ stage of the GAS (General Adaptation Syndrome), the person may actually start to feel better.

A. alarm
B. resistance
C. exhaustion
 
B. Resistance
 
79. 
The activation of the immune system response by stress differs from the activation of that system by illness in that _______________.

A. illness activates areas in the brain first
B. stress increases the release of natural killer cells.
C. stress activates a different immune response than does illness.
D. stress activates areas in the brain first.
 
D. Stress activates areas in the brain first.
 
80. 
According to Lazarus, secondary appraisal involves ______________.

A. estimating the severity of the stressor
B. classifying the stressor as a threat or challenge
C. deciding whether the stressor is a problem
D. estimating the resources a person has available for coping.
 
D. Estimating the resources a person has available for coping.
 
81. 
Adam is very ambitious and driven to succeed. He is easily angered, always wants to be working, and finds it hard to relax. According to research, Adam _____________.

A. is at a high risk for coronary heart disease
B. is a hardy personality
C. is a Type B personality
D. is a Type C personality
 
A. Is at a high risk for coronary heart disease
 
82. 
Which of the following is NOT one of the three "C's" of the hardy personality?

A. commitment
B. callousness
C. control
D. challenge
 
B. Callousness
 
83. 
Optimism has been associated with all of the following except ________________.

A. taking care of one's health
B. increased rates of learned helplessness
C. lower rates of depression
D. healthy immune system
 
B. Increased rates of learned helplessness.
 
84. 
Which of the following is NOT a typical source of stress in the workplace?

A. heavy workload
B. lack of variety
C. lack of shift work
D. lack of job security
 
C. Lack of shift work
 
85. 
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of burnout?

A. pessimism
B. dissatisfaction
C. optimism
D. desire to quit
 
C. Optimism
 
86. 
Larysa moved from Ukraine to the U.S. She learned to speak and write English, changed her last name so that it would sound more "American," and no longer maintains any of her old culture's styles of dress or customs. Larysa has used which method of entering the majority culture?

A. integration
B. assimilation
C. separation
D. marginalization
 
B. Assimilation
 
87. 
Social support _____________

A. has a positive benefit on health
B. can improve the physical functioning of cancer patients
C. can improve the physical functioning of people with HIV
D. includes all the above
 
D. Includes all of the above
 
88. 
When a person tries to cope by eliminating or changing the stressor directly, it known as _____________.

A. a defense mechanism
B. problem-focused coping
C. self-focused coping
D. emotional-focused coping
 
B. Problem-focused coping
 
89. 
Kareem is relaxing in a chair with his eyes closed. As he sits quietly, he is focusing on the sound of his own breathing and clearning his mind of other thoughts. Kareem is practicing:

A. sensory deprivation
B. concentrative meditation
C. receptive medicaiton
D. implosive medication
 
B. Concentrative meditation
 
90. 
Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that religion helps people reduce or cope with stress?

A. Religion can provide a strong social-support system
B. Religion includes rituals that can help people feel better about their failings.
C. Most religions promote healthy lifestyles
D. Religion isolates people from those who are different.
 
D. Religion isolates people from those who are different.
 
91. 
Which of the following is a cognitive symptom of stress?

A. frequent colds
B. anxiety
C. overeating
D. memory problems
 
D. Memory problems
 
92. 
How do today's researchers differ from Selye in their view of eustress?

A. they feel that eustress is more harmful than distress
B. they have not found evidence for eustress
C. they believe that a certain level of eustress is necessary to promote health
D. they believe that distress can be helpful instead of harmful
 
C. They believe that a certain level of eustress is necessary to promote health.
 
93. 
Unpredictable, large-scale events that create a great deal of stress and feelings of threat are called ___.

A. major life events
B. catastrophes
C. major life crisis
D. non-crisis
 
B. Catastrophes
 
94. 
According to Holmes and Rahe, a score of 250 on the SRRS would indicate ____. What would a score of 380 indicate?

A. moderate life crisis.
B. mild life crisis
C. major life crisis
D. mild stress disorder
 
First answer is: A - moderate life crisis

Second answer is: C - major life crisis.
 
95. 
Researchers found that the ____________ of daily hassles was a far better predictor of headaches than were scores on a life-event scale.

A. Number
B. Type
C. Posotive Quality
D. Perceived Severity
 
D. Perceived Severity
 
96. 
For which of the following groups of people would going shopping or experiencing bad weather be more stressful than for the other groups, according to Ellis?

A. children
B. adolescents
C. young adults
D. elderly people
 
D. Elderly people
 
97. 
Which of the following is NOT a source of stress?

A. pressure
B. uncontrollability
C. predictability
D. frustration
 
C. Predictability
 
98. 
Who reformulated the frustration-aggression hypothesis?

A. Dollard
B. Berkowitz
C. Miller
D. Lazarus
 
B. Berkowitz
 
99. 
Rachel's employer gives her a bad review, making Rachel feel lousy. When she arrives at home, she yells at her husband and children. Rachel is displaying ___________.

A. escape
B. withdrawal
C. displacement
D. projection
 
C. Displacement
 
100. 
Trying to decide between two of your favorite desserts is an example of a(n) ___________ conflict.

A. approach-approach
B. avoidance-avoidance
C. approach-avoidance
D. multiple approach-avoidance
 
A. approach-approach
 
101. 
Phrases such as "caught btwn a rock and a hard place" and "out of the frying pan, and into the fire" refer to _____________.

A. approach-approach
B. avoidance-avoidance
C. approach-avoidance
D. multiple approach-avoidance
 
B. Avoidance-avoidance
 
102. 
When a person has to make a choice among several goals and each goal has both its good and bad points, the person is experiencing a(n) ____________ conflict.

A. approach-approach
B. avoidance-avoidance
C. approach-avoidance
D. multiple approach-avoidance
 
D. Multiple approach-avoidance
 
103. 
In which of Selye's stages is death a possible outcome?

A. alarm
B. resistance
C. reaction
D. exhaustion
 
D. Exhaustion
 
104. 
In which of Selye's stages is death a possible outcome?

A. alarm
B. resistance
C. reaction
D. exhaustion
 
D. Exhaustion
 
105. 
Appraising a stressor as a challenge results in _________ than if the stressor is appraised as a threat.

A. more stress
B. less stress
C. less successful coping
D. more negative emotions
 
B. Less stress
 
106. 
Joe rarely takes any work home, preferring to leave his work worries at the office. He is not ambitious and likes to have a lot of leisure time when it is possible. He is also easygoing and doesn't lose his temper often, preferring to avoid conflict. Which of the following statements about Joe is most likely TRUE?

A. Joe is a Type A person
B. Joe is a Type B person
C Joe is a Type C person
D. Joe's risk of coronary heart disease is high
 
B. Joe is a Type B person
 
107. 
Tad seems to thrive on stress and feels very much in control of his life. He would probably be labled a __________ personality.

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Hardy
 
D. Hardy
 
108. 
Tad seems to thrive on stress and feels very much in control of his life. He would probably be labled a __________ personality.

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Hardy
 
D. Hardy
 
109. 
Which of the following is NOT one of the three methods suggested by Vaughan to promote a positive, optimistic mood?

A. alternative thinking
B. relaxation
C. using a scapegoat
D. downard social comparison
 
C. Using a scapegoat.
 
110. 
Acculturative stress is lowest for people who choose ____________ as their method of entering the majority culture.

A. integration
B. assimilation
C. separation
D. marginalization
 
A. Integration
 
111. 
Shawna is having trouble in algebra. She goes to the school's academic help center for tutoring and spends extra time working algebra problems at home. Shawna's method of coping is:

A. problem focused
B. emotion focused
C. defensive focused
D. internal
 
A. problem focused
 
112. 
Meditation has been shown to accomplish all of the following except ____________.

A. relaxation
B. a reduction in blood pressure
C. reducing the need for sleep
D. reducing symptoms of anxiety
 
C. reducing the need for sleep
 
113. 
Who among the following probably has the least ability to cope effectively with stress?

A. Marian, a very religious person
B. Mei Ling, who comes from a culture that emphasizes the family
C. Jackie, who has few friends and whose family lives far away from her.
D. Lenora, who mediatates daily
 
C. Jackie, who has few friends and whose family lives far away from her.
 
114. 
Which of the following is not a primary sex characteristic?

A. uterus
B. penis
C. enlarging breasts
D. ovaries
 
C. Englarging breasts
 
115. 
Which of the following is FALSE concerning secondary sex characteristics?

A. They are directly concerned with reproduction
B. They serve to attract members of the oppostie sex
C. They typically develop during puberty
D. They include the appearance of pubic hair
 
A. They are directly concerned with reproduction
 
116. 
People who are intersexual ____________.

A. commonly have both ovaries and testes
B. are extremely rare - 1 in a million births
C. have a mixture of male and female sexual characteristics
D. are people who suffer from gender identity disorder but are physically normal
 
C. have a mixture of male and female sexual characteristics
 
117. 
The development of a person's sense of being male or female is called....

A. gender role
B. gender identity
C. gender typing
D. gender stereotyping
 
B. Gender Identity
 
118. 
Which of the following is not a biological influence on gender?

A. hormones secreted during fetal development
B. the influence of hormones taken by the pregnant mother
C. exposure to playmates of a particular gender
D. sex chromosomes
 
C. Exposure to playmates of a particular gender
 
119. 
In ________________ cultures, gender roles are seen as more traditional, whereas in ________________ cultures they may be more nontraditional, especially for women.

A. individualistic; collectivistic
B. collectivistic; individualistic
C. European; Asian
D. affluent; poor
 
B. Collective; Individualistic
 
120. 
Studies have shown that _____________ are more concerned about appropriate gender behavior in their children, particularly their ______________ children.

A. fathers; male
B. fathers; female
C. mothers; male
D. mothers; female
 
A. Fathers; Male
 
121. 
Alex sees his father hammering some nails into a loose board on their house. Later, Alex takes his toy hammer and pretends to hammer in some imaginary nails. Of which theory of gender development would this be a good example?

A. gender schema theory
B. gender-role theory
C. psychoanalytic theory
D. social learning theory
 
D. Social learning theory
 
122. 
In an older movie, a male character is suddenly left with a small baby for whom he must now care for. Desperate for help, he calls his fiancee, thinking she will know what to do because she's a woman, and women are natural mothers. The character's thinking in this instance is an example of:

A. androgyny
B. schema error
C. benevolent sexism
D. negative stereotyping
 
C. Benevolent sexism
 
123. 
Susanna is a mother to her two children, but she also has a career as a professor at a university. She is nurturant and sensitive to her children's needs, able to express her emotions outwardly, independent and assertive, and thinks porblems through calmly and logically. Susanna is a good example of a person who has _________________.

A. masculine
B. feminine
C. transsexual
D. androgynous
 
D. Androgynous
 
124. 
Research has shown that men tend to talk to each other about ______________.

A. private concerns
B. their feelings
C. relationships
D. current events
 
D. Current Events
 
125. 
What is this definition?

The scientific study of how people think, feel, and behave in social situations. (Key words here are "social "
 
Social Psychology
 
126. 
What is this definition?

The performance of an action in response to the direct orders of an authority or person of higher status.
 
Obedience
 
127. 
What is this definition?

The tendency to adjust one's behaviors, attitudes, or beliefs to group norms in response to real or imagined group pressure. People "follow suit" with othes to fit in. It can be imagined pressure as it is real to conform.
 
Conformity
 
128. 
Solomon Asch (did studies on conformity) - did a study where testers would tell the experimenters the wrong answer (knowingly) to see if the testers would give the wrong answer just to conform. Name two types: (why people gave the wrong answer knowingly):
 
Normative Social Influence - you want to fit in with the norms so you follow suite regardless

Informational Social Influence - you want to be sure your info is correct or considered correct by the group
 
129. 
Name 4 techniques used to get compliance:
 
Foot-in-the-Door - Ask for a small commitment first and then increase the commitment later.

Door-in-the-Face - Ask for a large commitment first and then ask for a smaller commitment.

Lowball - Get commitment first then raise the cost.

That's-not-All - Make an offer then add to it to make it better.
 
130. 
What is this definition?

Learned tendency to evaluate some object, person or issue in a particular way. Prejudice is learned. This is learned and changes over time.
 
Attitudes
 
131. 
Name the 3 components of attitudes
 
1. Cognitive - beliefs, thoughts, ideas
2. Emotional - feelings
3. Behavioral - actions
 
132. 
What is this definition?

Mental process of classifying people into groups based on common characteristics. When we don't know someone well we tend to put them in a group.
 
Social Categorization or also called stereotyping
 
133. 
What is this definition?

The pattern of behavior that is expected of a person who is in a particular social position. Example: Sailor, waitress, doctor...
 
Social Role
 
134. 
What kind of experiment did Zimbardo do?
 
He divided a group of prisoners into two categories. One were prisoners and the other were guards. He wanted to see how having authority would affect the "guards." Well...5 days after he began he had to quit because the "guards" were abusing the inmates. The experiment was a HUGE success,.
 
135. 
What is this definition?

Helping another person with no expectation of personal reward.
 
Altruism
 
136. 
Name factors that INCREASE the likelihood of helping:
 
1. feel good...do good
2. Feeling guilty - (if you accidentally knock somoene over)
3. Seeing others who are helping -
4. Perceiving person in need
5. Personal relationship with victim
 
137. 
Name some factors that DECREASE the likelihood of helping:
 
1. Bystander Effect - if nobody is helping you will probably not help as well.
2. Big City of Small town - "mind your own business."
3. Vague or ambiguous situation
4. Personal costs for helping outweighs benefits
 
138. 
3 Components of Love (Sternberg)
 
1. Intimacy - psychological
2. Passion - physical
3. Commitment - cognitive
 
139. 
Which of the following was NOT one of the reasons that Masters and Johnson's research was considered controversial?

A. They used prostitues as participants
B. They were doing a study about sexual behavior
C. No one had ever studied sexual behavior before this
D. They were observing and taking pictures of people engaging in sexual activity.
 
C. No one had ever studied sexual behavior before this.
 
140. 
In which of the phases of sexual response does the genital area undergo a series of muscular contractions?

A. excitement
B. plateau
C. orgasm
D. resolution
 
C. orgasm
 
141. 
Which phase of the sexual response is typically the shortest lasting a few seconds to several minutes?

A. excitement
B. plateau
C. orgasm
D. resolution
 
C. Orgasm
 
142. 
In which phase does the refractory period occur for men?

A. excitement
B. plateau
C. orgasm
D. resolution
 
D. resolution
 
143. 
The first scientifically based survey of human sexual behavior was designed and carried out by _________.

A. personality psychologists
B. a physiological psychologist
C. a zoologist
D. a psychiatrist
 
C. a zoologist
 
144. 
In Kinsey's original data, more __________ than ____________ reported having bisexual experiences.

A. homosexuals; heterosexuals
B. heterosexuals; homosexuals
C. women; men
D. men; women
 
D. Men; Women
 
145. 
Which group was NOT one of the groups poorly represented in the Kinsey study?

A. older people
B. white, middle class
C. people with little education
D. people living in rural areas
 
B. White, middle class
 
146. 
Compared to the Kinsey data, the data from the Janus report revealed the age of the first sexual experience for about 20% of the men and 8% of the women to be _________.

A. 14
B. 16
C. 17
D. 12
 
A. 14
 
147. 
The Savic et al. 2005 study found that homosexual men responded to a pheromone in the same way as...

A. heterosexual men
B. transsexual men
C. heterosexual women
D. homosexual women
 
C. heterosexual women
 
148. 
Which of the following is not a sexual dysfunction stemming from an organic physical disorder?

A. sexual
B. frotteurism
C. male erectile disorder
D. sexual aversion disorder
 
B. Frotteurism
 
149. 
In ___________ the person may have the desire for sexual activity but be unable to physically participate.

A. sexual desire disorder
B. sexual pain disorder
C. sexual arousal disorder
D. orgasmic disorder
 
C. Sexual arousal disorder
 
150. 
If left untreated, ________________ can cause pelvic inflammatory disorder in women.

A. chlamydia
B. syphilis
C. genital warts
D. AIDS
 
A. Chlamydia
 
151. 
There is no scientific, documented proof of HIV being passed to another through _____________.

A. childbirth
B. blood transfusions
C. sharing a needle
D. tears or saliva
 
D. Tears or saliva
 
152. 
Which statement about primary sex characteristics is TRUE?

A. They are directly involved in human reproduction
B. They develop during puberty
C. They are the same for males and females
D. They include the formation of breasts and growth of the beard
 
A. They are directly involved in human reproduction.
 
153. 
What happened to the girls who were exposed to masculinizing hormones prenatally?

A. They were unaffected by the hormones
B. They became lesbians
C. They became tomboys as adolescents and young adults
D. They became more traditionally feminine as they grew older
 
D. They became more traditionally feminine as they grew older.
 
154. 
In gender schema theory, gender identity __________

A. first forms as a mental concept as "boy" or "girl"
B. is acquired through simple imitation of models
C. occurs through observational learning
D. is acquired through positive reinforcement of apppropriate gender behavior
 
A. first forms as mental concepts of "boy" or "girl"
 
155. 
Which characteristics is NOT one of the male stereotyped characteristics?

A. aggressive
B. unemotional
C. changeable
D. impatient
 
C. changeable
 
156. 
A person is said to be ___________ if that person possesses both masculine and feminine personality traits that are typically positive.

A. A hermaphrodite
B. androgynous
C. intersexed
D. bisexual
 
B. Androgynous
 
157. 
Research suggests that differences btwn males/females in mathematics and verbal skills may be caused by psychological and social issues rather than biology because ____________

A. these differences have increased in recent years
B. these differences have decreased in recent years
C. these differences have remained constant
D. females now score higher than males in mathematics
 
B. these differences have decreased in recent years.
 
158. 
An intersexed person is _________

A. a person who has sex with both men and women
B. another name for a homosexual
C. a person born with ambiguous sexual organs
D. another name for a heterosexual
 
C. a person born with ambiguous sexual organs
 
159. 
Orgasm occurs in ____________

A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
 
C. Phase 3
 
160. 
The refractory period is a time during which _____

A. a woman cannot have another orgasm
B. a man cannot have another erection
C. a man can be erect but not have an orgasm
D. a woman cannot be aroused
 
B. a man cannot have another erection
 
161. 
Which of the following studies of sexual behavior was not a survey?

A. the Kinsey report
B. the Janus report
C. Masters and Johnson's study
D. All of the above were surveys
 
C. Masters and Johnson's study
 
162. 
The most recent survey indicates that about _________% of men and ___________% of women are predominantly homosexual.

A. 22; 17
B. 15; 10
C. 5;9
D. 9;5
 
D. 9;5
 
163. 
Bisexual people ___________

A. have multiple relationships with men and women at the same time
B. are equally attacted to both sexes
C. can be either male or female
D. rarely have long term, monogamous relationships
 
C. can be either male or female
 
164. 
Which of the following is not one of the three areas affected by sexual dysfunction?

A. sexual reproduction
B. sexual arousal
C. sexual interest
D. sexual response
 
A. sexual reproduction
 
165. 
__________ is more a problem of timing than anything else.

A. Male orgasmic disorder
B. female orgasmic disorder
C. Dyspareunia
D. Premature ejaculation
 
D. Premature ejaculation
 
166. 
A woman who experiences intense contractions of the vaginal muscles, making intercourse painful, is suffering from:

A. vaginismus
B. dyspareunia
C. sexual interest disorder
D. sexual aversion
 
A. vaginismus
 
167. 
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is not caused by a bacterial infection?

A. genital herpes
B. chlamydia
C. syphilis
D. gonorrhea
 
A. Genital herpes
 
168. 
Charles has noticed a foul-smelling, cloudy discharge from his penis and burning when he urinates. Charles probably has __________

A. genital herpes
B. chlamydia
C. syphilis
D. gonorhea
 
D. Gonorrhea
 
169. 
A person is not said to have AIDs until ________

A. infected with HIV
B. the T-cells count goes below a certain level
C. Kaposi's sarcoma develops
D. the HIV bacteria count reaches a certain level
 
B. The T-cells count goes below a certain level
 
170. 
A person is not said to have AIDs until ________

A. infected with HIV
B. the T-cells count goes below a certain level
C. Kaposi's sarcoma develops
D. the HIV bacteria count reaches a certain level
 
B. The T-cells count goes below a certain level