Spex exam iii

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1. 1. Which of the following tests involves running, cutting and figure-8’s? Functional
2. 1. Which of the following bursa commonly becomes inflamed from overuse of the patellar tendon? Deep infrapatellar bursa
3. 1. Which of the following mechanisms would most likely injure the posterior cruciate ligament?
Hyperextension of the knee
Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantarflexed
4. 1. Which of the following describes a painful condition involving partial or complete separation of a piece of articular cartilage or subchondral bone?
Joint mice
Osteochondritis dissecans
5. 1. Which of the following best describes a condition common to runners and cyclists characterized by pain and irritation overt the lateral femoral condyle? Iliotibial band syndrome
6. 1. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for an anterior cruciate injury? · During deceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia internally rotated
7. 1. Which of the following endpoints indicates a first-degree sprain? · Firm with little or no instability and some pain present
8. 1. Which of the following structures provide the main source of stability in the knee? Ligaments
9. 1. An athlete who has immediate, significant swelling is displaying signs consistent with an injury to which of the following? · Cruciate ligament
10. . Feelings of locking in the knee are associated with injury to which structure? · Cartilage
11. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents: · Posterior movement of the femur on the tibia in weight-bearing
12. Prevention of knee injuries is dependent upon proper conditioning. The proper ratio of strength is important. Ideally the hamstring muscles should be ______ percent of the strength of the quadriceps muscles. · 60 - 75
13. Most injuries to the medial collateral ligament result from blows to the ________ aspect of the knee. · Lateral
14. An injury to the lateral collateral ligament usually: · Is managed the same as an injury to the MCL
15. The medial meniscus is most commonly injured through: · A valgus force
16. Patellar dislocations usually occur when: · The knee is flexed and internally rotated
17. Chondromalacia may be caused by: · Abnormal patellar tracking
18. When the patella dislocates, it occurs in a direction: Lateral
19. Which of the following conditions is NOT considered a problem associated with the extensor mechanism? · Osteochondritis
20. After a first time patellar dislocation, the athlete is commonly immobilized for a minimum of __________ weeks. · Four
21. 24. Which type of brace can be used for patellar tendinitis? · Neoprene Sleeve
22. The quadriceps muscles primary job is to: · Extend the knee
23. Which of the following structures have the responsibility of cushioning the knee during impact activity? · Menisci
24. Which of the following injuries would NOT cause a joint effusion? · Patellar tendinitis
25. Improper care of a thigh contusion leading to incomplete absorption of the hematoma and producing a formation similar to cartilage or bone is called: Myositis ossificans traumatica
26. The most common site for a stress fracture in the femur is the: Femoral neck
27. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head seen in children 3 to 12 years of age is called: Legg-Perthes disease
28. An injury that results from a blow to an inadequately protected iliac crest, producing transitory paralysis of the soft tissue structures is known as a: Hip pointer
29. Repeated stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the area causes: Osteitis pubis
30. In managing a hamstring strain, which of the following should be avoided? Stretching using ballistic movements
31. Which of the following is NOT a sign of a fractured femur? Internally rotated thigh
32. A condition found mostly in boys between the ages of 10 and 17 that produces motion restrictions at the hip and also produces knee pain is: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
33. A hip sprain is best revealed through the athlete's inability to: Circumduct the thigh
34. 10. A quadriceps contusion must be identified and treated early to prevent: Myositis ossificans
35. In an athlete who has suffered a second-degree quadriceps contusion, knee flexion is usually: Less than 90 degrees
36. In most athletes the hamstring group should have at least ________ percent of the strength of the opposing quadriceps group. 60 to 75
37. Strains are always a problem for athletes; they tend to recur because of: Inelastic scar tissue that lies down during the healing process
38. A stress fracture of the femur is usually found ________. In the upper third
39. Stress fractures of the pelvis usually result from: Abnormal overuse forces
40. Pelvis stress fractures tend to occur during: All of the above
41. Which of the following is a complication of a hip dislocation? Avascular necrosis
42. Which of the following is NOT associated with an acute femur fracture? Bone displacement is usually due to the great strength of the hamstrings
43. A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in which muscle group? Hip flexors
44. A positive Straight Leg Raise Test can be indicative of all of the following conditions except: Inflexibility in the hip flexors
45. Which of the following muscles Do Not flex the knee? Rectus femoris
46. The most important and most commonly injured bursa around the shoulder joint is the: Subacromial bursa
47. Which of the following muscles is not a part of the rotator cuff? Deltoid
48. The empty can test is used to determine injury to what muscle? Supraspinatus
49. In which phase of observation is thoracic kyphosis detected? Lateral
50. What direction does the shoulder most commonly dislocate? Anteriorly
51. In a sternoclavicular sprain, the clavicle is generally displaced: upward and anteriorly
52. With an anterior glenohumeral dislocation, the athlete’s arm is (in): Internally rotated with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees
53. Prevention of shoulder injuries is accomplished by all of the following except: Development of extreme flexibility
54. Each of the following athletes is prone to overuse injuries of the shoulder except: Bowlers
55. The reason impingement injuries occur in the shoulder is due to: Reduction of the space through which the supraspinatus muscle can pass
56. The mechanism for an acromioclavicular sprain is: A fall on an outstretched arm
57. A dislocated shoulder outwardly displays A flattened deltoid
58. When an athlete has suffered a clavicle fracture he/she will show which of the following signs and symptoms? All of the above
59. In which phase of the throwing motion are the external rotators of the rotator cuff contracting eccentrically? Deceleration
60. Which of the following tests is used for glenohumeral instability? Apprehension test
61. Which muscle(s) primary function is to assist with stabilization of the shoulder? Rotator cuff
62. In which phase of the throwing motion is maximum external rotation achieved? Cocking
63. The acromion process is part of which bone? Scapula
64. Which of the following is known as the true shoulder joint? Glenohumeral joint
65. An athlete comes off the field supporting an injured arm with the head tilted towards the injured shoulder and the chin turned towards the opposite side. Which injury have they likely sustained? Fractured clavicle
66. Which of the following rotator cuff muscles abduct the shoulder? Supraspinatus
67. The ligament that stabilizes and encircles the head of the radius is the: Annular ligament
68. Which of the following muscles is NOT on the anterior surface of the arm? Triceps
69. Which nerve can become irritated secondary to cubitus valgus present at the elbow Ulnar
70. The motions of the elbow joint are: Flexion and extension
71. Lateral epicondylitis results from: Repetitive extension of the wrist
72. The adolescent athlete who complains of sudden pain and locking of the elbow joint should be suspected of having: Osteochondritis dissecans
73. If an athlete complains of burning and tingling or paresthesia to the fourth and fifth fingers, what structure may be damaged? Ulnar nerve
74. Most elbow dislocations result from falling on an outstretched hand and result in the ulna and radius dislocating: Posteriorly
75. Which side of the forearm receives the most frequent impact and therefore is where the majority of bruising occurs? Ulnar
76. A fracture resulting from the radius and ulna being forced backward and upward (hyperextension) is called a: Colles' fracture
77. When an elbow is dislocated it is important to consider the possibility of: All of the above must be considered
78. Forearm splints are seen most frequently in which sport? Gymnastics
79. Which of the following best describes the volar plate? Thickened capsule on the palmar surface of the interphalangeal joints
80. A wrist ganglion is often seen in sports and most frequently appears: On the dorsal surface of the wrist
81. . Severe point tenderness in the anatomical "snuffbox" may indicate a fracture of which bone? Scaphoid (navicular)
82. Treating a suspected phalanx fracture includes all the following except: Splinting the finger in extension
83. A deformity caused by a rupture of the extensor tendon over the distal phalanx is called: Mallet finger
84. To ensure the most complete healing of a dislocated PIP and DIP joint, constant splinting must be maintained at a 30-degree angle of flexion for how long? 3 weeks
85. Which of the following bones of the wrist is most commonly injured from contact while holding an implement? Hamate
86. Which of the following results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon? Jersey finger
87. What motion(s) occur at the radioulnar joint? Pronation and supination
88. Which of the following muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus? Wrist extensors and supinators