Rvt Prep Questions

How long will a heat-sealed plastic and paper surgical pouch pack remain reliably sterile in an open cabinet? (Like on an open shelf) A - At least 1 week B - At least 3 weeks C - At least 3 months D - At least 1 year The sterility of items in a heat-sealed plastic and paper surgical pouch pack on open shelves is at least one year. But it is always better to keep sterilized items in a clean, closed, dust-free cabinet. Which forceps are particularly good for vascular surgery? A - DeBakey B - Brown-Adson C - Russian thumb D - Rat tooth Debakey vascular thumb forceps have multiple delicate teeth and are good for vascular surgery. Brown-Adson forceps have intermeshing teeth; they are used for suturing and wound closure. Rat tooth forceps have large interlocking teeth and are used for tough connective tissue and fascia. Russian thumb forceps are good for needle handling but are hard on tissues. What is another name for a thrombocyte? A - Red blood cell parasite B - Basophil C - Platelet D - Lymph node epithelial cell Thrombocytes are platelets, which help clot blood. Why are most antibiotics contraindicated in rabbits and hamsters? A - Highly permeable blood-brain barrier B - Their little hearts just can't take it C - Highly sensitive to renal toxicity D - Disrupts gram positive gut flora Rabbits, hamsters and other rodents are very sensitive to enterotoxemia. Most antibiotics disturb their normal gut flora, particularly the beneficial gram-positive bacteria which digest high-fiber food and keep pathogenic clostridial organisms from over-growing. Which is more severe, periodontitis or gingivitis? A - Depends on patient B - No difference in severity C - Periodontitis D - Gingivitis Typically, peridontitis is a more chronic and severe problem. Periodontal disease is a general term that includes gingivitis (gum inflammation) and peridontitis (more chronic, severe damage from bacterial plaque that involves gingiva, periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, root cementum). Periodontal disease is caused by accumulation bacterial plaque at the gingival margin (gumline) due partly to lack of adequate oral hygiene. A cockatoo has been prescribed 10 mg of Supercillin, s.i.d. for 10 days. How often does the bird get medicine each day? A - Once a day B - Twice a day C - Three times a day D - As needed s.i.d. means once a day. Remember "S" for Single" (s.i.d.), "B for Bi" (twice a day, b.i.d.), "T for Tri" (3 times a day, t.i.d.) and "Q for Quad" (4 times a day, q.i.d.). Many clinics use capital letters (SID, BID, TID, etc., to mean the same things). prn or PRN means "as needed". q.o.d. means "every OTHER day". Some clinics use e. o.d. to mean every other day. What is a Frick speculum used for in large animal medicine? A - Teat repair B - Holds eyelids open for short ophthalmic procedures C - Vaginal exam D - Protects a plastic orogastric tube from being bitten A frick speculum is a blunt ended metal tube about 1.5 feet long and about 2 inches in diameter. You insert it into a cow's mouth about 8-12 inches, and then you can safely run a plastic orogastric tube inside it and down to the rumen. Even though the cow may chew on the speculum, it protects the plastic tube from being bitten in half. A common reason to pass a tube in a cow is to pump in fluids or medicine or relieve free gas bloat. If you cannot relieve bloat by tubing the cow, you may need to help the vet and the farmer to place a trocar (a tube to let off gas, also called a cannula) into the rumen What is an iatrogenic medical or surgical problem? A - A disease secondary to inbreeding B - A disease that gets better without treatment C - A bad outcome, inflicted by the therapy itself D - A genetic predisposition An iatrogenic problem is caused by the therapy itself. A common example of an iatrogenic disease occurs when chronic treatment with glucocorticoids (like prednisolone) for a common problem like flea allergy causes iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism, (also known as Cushing's disease). If a cat has a luxated hip, what is the problem? A - Fracture B - Dislocation C - Looseness D - Arthritis Hip luxation is another name for hip dislocation. A luxated hip is the most common dislocation in dogs and cats, and 60% of these are caused by trauma, usually due to being hit by a car. Which direction is rostral? A - Towards the right side B - Towards the nose C - Towards the tail D - Towards the belly Rostral means towards the nose. Cranial means towards the head. Caudal means towards the tail/hind end. Ventral is towards the belly. Dorsal means along to topline/back. ABaxial means AWAY from the middle of the animal. ABduct means movement of a limb AWAY from the midline. ADDuct means moving a limb TOWARDS the midline For eyes, remember that "OU" means BOTH eyes, "OD" means the RIGHT eye and "OS" means the LEFT eye. Which statement about the proper storage of fresh or frozen plasma is most correct? A - can be stored at 39.2 F - 50 F (4 C - 10 C) for up to 3 weeks B - should be stored above 98.6 F (37 C) C - must be used within 48 h D - can be frozen for up to 1 year Fresh or frozen plasma is stored at -4 F to -22 F (-20 C to -30 C) for up to 1 year. Frozen plasma should be thawed to 98.6 F (37 C) in a warm water bath to 30-60 minutes before administration. Typically, plasma is given for volume expansion to animals in shock, or who had suffered heavy burns. Whole blood with acid citrate can last up to 14 to 21 days when refrigerated. Heparinized blood must be used within 48 h. Typically we give blood transfusions to animals who have suffered severe blood loss from injury or anemia. Follow this link for more on blood transfusion in animals. Which of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic? A - English bull dog B - Golden retriever C - Great Dane D - Greyhound English bull dogs are brachycephalic which means that they have broad short head, and pushed in faces. Dolichocephalic dogs are the long narrow headed dogs. Doberman pinschers are typical. Cephalic index is the ratio of the maximum width of the head to its maximum length. You are presented with a cat who looks like this (dilated pupils).What is the name of this condition? A - Meiosis B - Myiasis C - Miosis D - Mydriasis Another name for dilated pupils is mydriasis. Two commonly used pre-anesthetics, atropine and glycopyrrolate, both cause mydriasis. When both pupils are small, that is called miosis. Meiosis is a form of cell division. Myiasis is a name for invasion of tissue by parasitic fly larvae, like screwworm fly larvae. What is the total serum protein level in a dog with an albumin of 4.0 g/dl and a globulin level of 3.5 g/dl? A - Cannot calculate with this information B - 3.5 g/dl C - 7.5 g/dl D - 1.5 g/dl It is 7.5 g/dl. Serum total protein is made up of globulins (like antibodies) plus albumin. Typically, a blood chemistry report will show you the total protein and the albumin. You can calculate the globulin by subtracting the albumin concentration from the total protein concentration. The veterinarian assigns you a dog with a case of conjunctivitis. What is the health problem? A - Epiglottal inflammation B - Inflamed eyes C - Inner ear infection D - Sinus infection Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the tissues around the eyes. Look for reddening and swelling. Conjunctivitis can be caused by irritants or infections What kind of diet could help in preventing struvite formation in cats? A - Alkaline diet B - Acidifying diet C - Low fat diet D - Dry food Think of acidifying diets with feline urolithiasis (FUS, bladder stones). Acidifying diet is prevents struvite-related urinary tract disease (by dissolving the crytals). Struvite crystal formation is not possible at a urine PH below 6.5. An acidifying diet is NOT recommended for kittens and older cats. Roughly what percentage of mammary tumors in dogs are malignant? A - 10 B - 90 C - 30 D - 45 About half, 45%, of canine mammary tumors are malignant. Note that this is DIFFERENT than cats. About 90% of feline mammary tumors are malignant! Which term describes inflammation of the testicle? A - Phimosis B - Phlebitis C - Orchitis D - Cryptorchid Orchitis is inflammation of one or both testicles characterized by pain, and sensitivity to touch. Phlebitis is inflammation of the veins and may be associated with formation of blood clots. Cryptorchid animals have an undescended testicle. Follow this link to see a dog with an undescended testicle in his inguinal area. Phimosis is a condition where the penis cannot be extruded because of a small constricted preputial orifice. Which choice is best for an x-ray of a nervous, moving dog? A - Higher milliamperage (mA); Shorter time (seconds) B - Lower milliamperage (mA); Shorter time (seconds) C - Higher kilovoltage (kVp) D - Higher milliamperage (mA); Longer time (seconds) Usually you want a HIGH mA setting, and a very SHORT exposure time (like 1/20 of a second) so that even if the animal moves, you still get a sharply focused x-ray. Milliamperes (mA) are the QUANTITY of electrons produced by the x-ray machine and exposure time (sec) is how LONG you expose the animal to these rays. Together, milliampere-seconds equals mA multiplied by time (mA X sec=mAs), which controls the intensity of an x-ray. More mA, or longer exposure time, means a DARKER x-ray. Which kind of tissue causes the most x-ray scatter? A - Thick body parts B - Delicate bone, like nasal area C - Joints 8 cm thick or less D - Thin body parts The thicker the tissue, the more the x-ray scatters. Thick body parts like thorax, abdomen, skull and joints greater than 10 cm require a grid. A grid is like the focusing lens in a camera. A high-ratio grid permits FEWER x-rays to pass through it from the animal, but you get a better, more high-resolution radiograph. The grid prevents scattered radiation from reaching an x-ray film, so that only the primary, directly aimed x-rays penetrate straight into the animal for the best image. An x-ray grid is basically a plate made of alternating strips of lead, which block scattered x-rays, interspersed between strips of plastic or aluminum, which allow the straight x-rays through. Which side effect must you beware of when using ketamine as an anesthetic pre-medication in cats? A - Eyes stay open B - Dose-dependent respiratory depression C - Laryngospasm D - Cardiac arrest Ketamine (and tiletamine) are dissociative anesthetics often used as a pre-med to immobilize cats prior to catheter placement or induction of general anesthesia. A cat's EYES stay OPEN on ketamine/tiletamine, so must protect moisturize eyes with an eye ointment like Lacri-lube. Remember cats ARE vulnerable to laryngospasm if you touch the larynx too much/too roughly during intubation for gas anesthesia. Spray w/ lidocaine topical anesthetic to prevent laryngospasm Which two drugs are contraindicated in animals with history of seizures? A - Morphine, phenobarbital B - Ketamine, diazepam C - Acepromazine, ketamine D - Xylazine, thiopental Acepromazine, ketamine, and xylazine are contraindicated in animals with a history of seizures. Thiopental is contraindicated in animals with history of asthma, because it can cause apnea, and in Greyhounds. Morphine should not be used in cases of high intracranial pressure (like head trauma after being hit by a car). Diazepam and phenobarbital are drugs used to TREAT seizures. A dog is presented with numerous small pinpoint hemorrhages on the mucous membranes of the mouth. What are these hemorrhages called? A - Petechiae B - Suppuration C - Epiphora D - Hematomas E - Ecchymoses Small pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin or mucus membranes are called petechiae. It is found in diseases that cause problems with coagulation. Larger hemorrhages (1-2 cm diameter) are called ecchymoses. What does it mean if a disease is zoonotic? A - Occurs primarily in zoos B - Disease can infect only animals C - Occurs only in zoo animals D - Insect or tick transmits disease to animals E - Animals can transmit disease to people A zoonotic disease can be transmitted from animals to people. Because of this danger, many zoonotic diseases are reportable, meaning that if you see a case, you must report it to the state veterinarian. Examples of zoonotic diseases include:Rabies(Wild animals, dogs, cats, people) West Nile Virus (Horses, birds, people) Avian Influenza (Birds, pigs, people) and Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (Mad Cow disease) (Cattle, people) Some zoonotic diseases are also bioterrorism agents, like Anthrax Plague Tularemia and Q fever. Finally, there are some diseases that are not zoonotic, but are still reportable because they can cause huge economic damage like Foot and Mouth disease (FMD) in cattle, Hog Cholera in pigs, or Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) in horses. What is the clinical importance of the anatomic area indicated by the red arrow in this image? A - Most common site of tooth root abscess B - Best surgical approach to mandibular sinus C - Site of glossopharyngeal nerve block D - Good place to take a pulse E - Upper limit of Viborg's triangle A convenient way to take the pulse of a horse is to place two or three fingers over the facial artery, in the notch of the mandible just in front of the masseter (cheek) muscle. Click here to see a to see a video of a vet taking a horse's pulse. There are 4 other places on a horse you can take a horse's pulse, but only one is also on the head: -Transverse facial artery (caudal to lateral canthus of the eye) -Median artery (proximal, medial forearm) -Great metatarsal artery (hindlimb, between McIII and McIV) -Digital artery (caudal pastern area, above hoof). Palpate the digital artery to feel the "bounding pulses" of equine laminitis. Which choice includes only absorbable sutures? A - Silk, Gut, Nylon B - Prolene, Ethilon, Vetafil C - Maxon, Vetafil, Prolene D - Dexon, Vicryl, PDS Dexon, Vicryl, PDS (and catgut and Maxon) are all absorbable. Surgical gut (also known as catgut) is an absorbable (nonsynthetic) material made from the submucosal layer of sheep intestine. Absorbable synthetic sutures are Dexon, Maxon, Vicryl and PDS. Nonsynthetic nonabsorbable sutures are silk and stainless steel. Synthetic nonabsorbable sutures are Prolene, Ethilon, and Vetafil. If an IV set dispenses 60 drops/ml, what is the IV drip rate (drops per minute) needed to give a cat 300 ml of Lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) over 6 hours? A - 10 B - 60 C - 100 D - 50 50 drops/min. Drip rate =(Volume of solution in ml X drops/ml)/time in minutes. 300 ml X 60 drops/ml=18,000 drops. 6 hours X 60 min/hour= 360 minutes Drip rate= 18,000 drops/360 min=50 drops/min What is the clinical significance of the femoral triangle in dogs and cats? A - Associated with brachial plexus avulsion B - Pulse oximeters attach there C - Surgical approach for hip dysplasia repair D - Good place to take pulse from femoral artery E - Often damaged with anterior cruciate injuries The femoral triangle is a good place from which to take the femoral pulse inside the medial hindleg. The triangle is formed by the sartorius muscle cranially, pectineus muscle caudally and the body wall dorsally. Anterior cruciate injuries are knee problems. Surgical approaches to repair hip dysplasia (like a triple pelvic osteotomy) would not go through the femoral triangle. Which anatomic area do these three surgical approaches access in the horse? Modified Whitehouse, Viborg's triangle, Hyovertebrotomy A - Soft palate B - Guttural pouch C - Maxillary sinus D - Atlanto-occipital joint E - Osseous bullae Think of the guttural pouch area when you hear the names of these surgical approaches, especially Viborg's triangle. Diseases to think of include guttural pouch tympany guttural pouch empyema and guttural pouch mycosis. In which species do you typically AVOID using Atropine (anti-cholinergic) as a premedication before inducing anesthesia? A - Dog B - Cat C - Pig D - Horse Atropine slows the gut, so there is concern that they might cause colic in HORSES. This is less likely with another anti-cholinergic, glycopyrrolate, so it is sometimes used to prevent bradycardia (slow heart rate) in anesthetized horses A basset hound with galloping halitosis has been prescribed with medicated mint dog treats prn for bad breath. How often does the dog get treated? A - Four times a day B - As needed C - Every other day D - Once a day prn or PRN means "as needed". Remember "S" for Single" (s.i.d.), "B for Bi" (twice a day, b.i.d.), "T for Tri" (3 times a day, t.i.d.), and "Q for Quad" (4 times a day, q.i.d.). Many clinics use capital letters (SID, BID,TID etc, to mean the same things). q.o.d. means "every OTHER day". Some clinics use e. o.d. to mean every other day While examining a high-producing dairy cow that is off-feed, the vet puts her stethoscope on the left side in a line between the left elbow and the cow's hip bones and starts flicking her fingers against the side of the cow while listening to the stethoscope. She lets you listen and you hear a musical pinging sound when her finger hits the cow. What is the cause of this sound? A - Rumen contraction waves B - It is normal in healthy cattle C - Left displaced abomasum D - Hardware disease This is the musical ping of a left displaced abomasum. Normally the abomasum lies more or less along the bottom right side of the lower abdomen, but sometimes it can distend with gas and float upwards like a balloon, becoming a displaced abomasum (DA). A DA can usually be heard with a stethoscope by flicking your middle finger over it and listening for a musical ping, much like the sound you get by flicking your finger against a basketball. What is a nosocomial infection? A - An upper respiratory infection B - An infection acquired in a hospital C - An infection acquired secondary to injury D - A sinusitis, typically found in horses A nosocomial infection is hospital-acquired. Typically, a stressed or sick animal is more vulnerable to the microorganisms that they may encounter in a hospital. Remember that an animal can be infected by these organisms OUTSIDE a hospital too, but common examples of hospital-acquired infections can include parvovirus in young puppies, kennel cough (usually caused by Bordetella species) or Salmonella typhimurium diarrhea seen in horses hospitalized for other reasons. Sometimes the microorganisms are not even pathogenic, meaning that healthy animals are not affected, but they can cause disease in very sick and weakened animals who are hospitalized. If a dog has a neurologic problem and she is adducting her front legs, what is she doing with them? A - Towards the right ear B - Away from the left side C - Moving legs inward, towards the midline D - Moving legs outward, away from the midline ADDuct means moving a limb TOWARDS the midline (ie: underneath). ABduct means movement of a limb AWAY from the midline. ABaxial means AWAY from the middle of the animal. Caudal means towards the tail/hind end. Rostral means towards the nose. Cranial means towards the head. Ventral is towards the ground. Dorsal means along to topline/back. For eyes, remember that "OU" means BOTH eyes, "OD" means the RIGHT eye and "OS" means the LEFT eye. If a vet says she wants to do an abaxial sesamoid nerve block on a horse's lower foot, where might you expect her to inject the lidocaine? A - Cranial side B - Lateral side C - Medial side D - Coronary band E - Caudal side ABaxial means laterally AWAY from the middle of the digit (remember the hoof of a horse has the same bones as your middle finger, or digit). In this case, the lidocaine nerve block goes just over the nerve branch that lies under the skin on the lateral side or the medial side of the foot. A 1 year-old, 12-pound, female neutered cat has been caught in the last ten minutes eating ....rat poison. What treatment in the clinic will make the cat vomit as soon as possible? A - Yohimbine IM B - Xylazine IV C - Fomepizole (4-MP) IV D - Clofazimine SQ Xylazine for CATS. 0.5 mg/kg IV (Merck) or 0.44 mg/kg IM (Plumb), will stimulate vomiting, usually in 5-10 minutes IN CATS What kind of splint/bandage apparatus is this? A - Schroeder-Thomas splint B - Robert-Jones splint C - Velpeau splint D - Mason metasplint This is a (very large) example of a Schroeder-Thomas splint, which can be used to facilitate traction/reduction for treatment of fractures distal to the elbow and stifle. Note that Robert Jones is a bandage, Velpeau is a sling. What side effect is often seen in horses tranquilized with acepromazine? A - Penis protrusion B - Collapse C - Vomiting D - Hives Acepromazine can cause penis protrusion in large animals, especially horses. Remember that GIANT breeds and SIGHT hounds can be very sensitive to acepromazine. Ace-promazine is sometimes used as an anti-emetic (ANTI-vomiting) drug. What is the primary use of formaldehyde in veterinary practice? A - Hard surface disinfectant B - Surgical scrub solution C - Antiseptic agent D - Tissue specimen preservative Formaldehyde is commonly used as tissue preservative. Formaldehyde and glutaraldehyde are aldehydes; they are toxic and irritating to living tissue. Glutaraldehyde is used as the disinfecting solution in cold sterilization baths for instruments and endoscopy equipment. Chlorhexidine is also used for instrument baths. What color is an oxygen tank supposed to be in the U.S.? A - Yellow B - Red or brown C - White or green D - Blue No matter what color the tank is, ALWAYS read the tag or label on the tank first to verify the gas contents inside. One instructor in Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia has reported seeing of a green tank containing carbon dioxide instead of oxygen! That being said, oxygen tanks in the U.S are typically white or green. Nitrous oxide tanks, (laughing gas) are blue. (Try remembering-"Laughing gas chases the blues") Why is the brachioradialis muscle clinically significant in dogs and cats? A - Lies above axillary artery B - Can be mistaken for cephalic vein in venipuncture C - Implicated in medial patellar luxation D - Associated with brachial plexus avulsion E - Adjacent to the tibial nerve The brachioradialis muscles runs adjacent to the cephalic vein on the medial aspect of the forearm, and may be mistaken for the vein during venipuncture. A brachial plexus avulsion may be seen after shoulder trauma, esp. being hit by a car. Patellar luxation is a hindlimb problem. A cat that weighs 11 lb (5 kg) is prescribed antibiotics at a dosage of 0.2 mg/lb (0.44 mg/kg). The medication is available only in 2 mg tablets. How many tablets should the cat receive in a single dose? A - ~1 tablet B - ~1/2 tablet C - ~1/4 tablet D - ~1 1/2 tablets 0.2 mg*11 lb = 2.2 mg, which is closest to one tablet. The best choice in this question is a one tablet dose for this cat. In reality, many medicines will have a dose range. For example, in a cat with a soft tissue infection, amipicillin is recommended at a dose range of 20-40 mg/kg PO (per os, which means by mouth). How long after birth does gut closure typically occur in calves and foals? (when protective maternal antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut to the bloodstream) A - 18-24 hours B - 9-12 hours C - 1-3 hours D - 3-6 hours E - 15-18 hours Gut closure typically occurs with 18-24 hours after birth. During this time, a newborn can absorb maternal immunoglobulins (IgM, IgG) in colostrum from the gut directly into the bloodstream. Specialized enterocytes absorb the immunoglobulins by pinocytosis and move them to the blood. These cells are shed and replaced with mature enterocytes w/in 24 hours Failure of Passive Transfer (FPT) leads to greatly increased risk of bacterial and viral infection and death before weaning. Think GI disease, pneumonias, septic foals and septic umbilicus /joints (Joint Ill, Naval Ill). Recommendations vary, but calves should get a MINIMUM colostrum of 2 liters and foals 1 liter within hours after birth. Can divide this amount and give in smaller volumes, multiple feedings. According to Merck online, healthy foals should have serum IgG concentrations >800 mg/dL and ruminants >1,600 mg/dL. In temperate North America, one species is seasonally polyestrous (multiple estrus cycles) in the winter when the weather is COLD and the other species is seasonally polyestrous in the spring and summer when weather is WARM. Both give birth in the Spring. Which species are these? A - Sheep, Horse B - Cow, Goat C - Cow, Pig D - Dog, Horse E - Sheep, Cat Sheep cycle in cold weather (winter) and horses cycle in warm weather (Spring-summer). Horses have an 11 MONTH gestation, so if they get bred in June this year, they foal in May NEXT year. Sheep have a 5 MONTH gestation, so if they get bred in November this year, they lamb in March NEXT year. Basic questions on estrus cycle and gestation come up over and over, so commit them to memory for the major species at LEAST (Cow, Horse, Dog, Cat, Sheep/Goat, Pig). Which drug family is most associated with nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) as an adverse effect? A - Lincosamides B - Penicillins C - Aminoglycosides D - Sulfonamides E - Cephalosporins Aminoglycosides , like gentamicin and amikacin, are most often associated with NEPHROTOXICITY, ototoxicity and neuromuscular blockade. Cephalosporins, ,like Cephalexin (Keflex®), Ceftriaxone (Rocephin®), Ceftiofur (Naxcel®) are relatively nontoxic, but there may be pain at injection site. Sulfonamides , like trimethoprim sulfa are associated with HYPERSENSITIVITY (ie: allergic) reactions. Lincosamides , like Clindamycin may be associated with GI upset and are CONTRAINDICATED IN HORSES because severe, even fatal colitis can occur. Penicillins are not associated much with organ toxicity, but hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions occur, particularly in cattle (ie: skin reactions, angioedema, drug fever, serum sickness, vasculitis, and anaphylaxis). The major active ingredient in most IV euthanasia solutions is: A - Potassium chloride B - Thiopental C - Phenobarbital D - Pentobarbital Pentobarbital is one of the most commonly used drugs in IV euthanasia solutions. The AVMA report states IV injection of a barbituric acid derivative is the PREFERRED METHOD for euthanasia of dogs, cats, other small animals, and horses. Potassium chloride can be used in conjunction with general anesthesia. Phenytoin and lidocaine are often added to pentobarbital-containing euthanasia solutions to increase cardiac depressant effects. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting thiobarbiturate used for anesthesia induction and for short procedures. Which two drugs might make your dog look like this? A - Glycopyrrolate, Demecarium bromide B - Demecarium bromide, Pilocarpine C - Etomidate, Ketamine D - Atropine, Glycopyrrolate Pilocarpine and Demecarium bromide are MIOTICs, sometimes used to treat glaucoma. Miosis is thought to prevent closure of the iridocorneal angle by excess iris tissue, thereby permitting outflow of excess aqueous humor. Expect mydriasis (dilated pupils) with atropine and glycopyrrolate. These anticholinergic drugs are primarily used as a PREANESTHETICS, to prevent bradycardia and dry up airway secretions. Etomidate is a non-barbiturate human anesthetic. Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant used for post-anesthesia myositis in horses and in dogs and cats with functional urethral obstruction. Methotrexate is an antineoplastic / immunosuppressant used primarily to treat lymphomas in dogs and cats. A client brings in her dog who ate a box of rat poison in the last 2 days. What symptoms would be expected? A - Bleeding, weakness B - Unconscious, rapid heartrate C - Severe pain, depression D - Seizures, vomiting Think uncontrolled bleeding and collapse with RAT POISON; It interferes with vitamin K and leads to uncontrolled bleeding in animals that eat rat poison or rats that died from eating rat poison. Which choice is often used in combination with ketamine and thiopental to induce anesthesia in horses? A - Naloxone B - Halothane C - Phenobarbital D - Guaifenesin Guaifenesin is an anti-tussive (anti-cough) and decongestant med that also works as a muscle relaxant. Guaifenesin is often used to support excitement-free anesthesia induction and recovery in horses. Naloxone is a reversal agent against opiate drugs (In horses, Butorphenol (Torbugesic®) is a commonly used opiate). Gas anesthesia (like halothane) would not work to mask a horse down into anesthesia because you would expect problems restraining the animal in the excitement phase of induction. Halothane has largely been replaced by newer inhalant anesthetics, like isoflurane and sevoflurane Phenobarbital is a long-acting barbiturate used to control epilepsy/seizures, not induce. Which species has 30 teeth (the least) in its adult dental formula? A - Horse B - Cow C - Cat D - Dog E - Pig Adult CATS have the least teeth (30), followed by ruminants (32), Horses (24-42), dogs (42) and pigs (44). A 3 year-old domestic longhair female spayed cat presents at your clinic with hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, stumbling and a temperature of 105.2 F (40.7 C). Her pupils are normal size and responsive to light. While you are examining the cat she has a seizure. The owner relates that he had treated her the night before with a flea dip he had originally bought for his dog. What toxic ingredient do you suspect most highly? A - Permethrin B - Organophosphate C - Carbamate D - D-Limonene Permethrin toxicity in cats is relatively common occurrence after being treated with a concentrated permethrin-containing flea product labeled for dogs. Rx with METHOCARBIMOL (Robaxin ®) a centrally-acting muscle relaxant and if needed, with seizure control (ie: diazepam, pentobarbitol, or inhalant anesthesia). UNLIKE OPP/carbamate toxicities, DO NOT Rx permethrin toxicity with Atropine. Big DDXs are Organophosphate (OPP) toxicity, and Carbamate toxicity which look similar. With OPP and Carbamates, may see MIOSIS, UNlike permethrin/pyrethroid toxicity. D-Limonene is a citrus-based anti-flea med that can cause vomiting in dogs Which choice lists these species in order of gestation length, from longest to shortest pregnancy? A - Cow, Horse, Pig, Dog, Goat B - Horse, Cow, Goat, Pig, Dog C - Cow, Horse, Pig, Goat, Dog D - Llama, Pig, Sheep, Ferret, Cat Here is a list of gestation length for the major species, in order: Llama 1 year (350d), Horse 11 mo (330d), Cow 9 mo (~280 d, same as PEOPLE), Sheep/goats 5 mo (150d), Pig 4 mo (114d), Dog/ Cat 2 mo (60d), Ferret 1.5 mo (42d.). Basic questions on estrus cycle and gestation come up over and over, so commit them to memory for the major species at LEAST (Cow, Horse, Dog, Cat, Sheep/Goat, Pig). A canine vaginal smear looks like the image below through a microscope. What stage of the estrous cycle is the dog in? A- Anestrus B- Diestrous C- Proestrus D- Estrus Estus....cornified superficial cells with no nucleus Diestrus smear will be dominated by nucleated round edged parabasal cells A stress leukogram is characterized by: A-neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia B-neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinopenia C-neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinophilia D-neutropenia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia E-neutropenia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia A....typically you would expect to see an increase in neutorphils, a decrease in lymphocytes and a decrease in eosinophils. This is usually caused by a release of endogenous corticosteroids from stress. From which species was this blood sample taken? A- reptiles B- Camelids C- Chinchillas D- Psittacines E- Ferrets B- Camelids have ellipsoid red blood cells that lack central pallor. From which species was this blood sample taken from? A- Avian or reptile B- Equine or bovine C- ferrets D- canine A- avian or reptile have elliptical nucleated RBC's What will happen if you hit the oxygen flush button on an anesthetic machine? A - Oxygen is flushed out of the system B - The patient will go to a deeper anesthetic plane C - The patient may start to wake up D - Anesthetic gas concentration goes up in the breathing circuit The oxygen flush sends pure oxygen into the breathing circuit, BYPASSING the vaporizer. Anesthetic gas concentration DECREASES, and patients start to wake up. Remember you should NOT hit the oxygen flush button if the pop-off valve is closed, or when using a non-rebreathing system, because you can deliver dangerously high airway pressure to the patient. All types of scissors can have blunt or sharp blades (A: Sharp:Sharp, B: Blunt:Blunt). All types can have either straight or curved blades Mayo scissors (B) are used for cutting heavy fascia and sutures Metzenbaum scissors (A) are more delicate than Mayo scissors Metzenbaum scissors are used to cut delicate tissues Metzenbaum scissors have a longer handle to blade ratio Rat Tooth: A Tissue ForcepsInterdigitating teeth hold tissue without slipping Used to hold skin/dense tissue. Adson Tissue ForcepsSmall serrated teeth on edge of tips. The Adsons tissue forceps has delicate serrated tips designed for light, careful handling of tissue. Allis: An Intestinal Tissue Forceps Intestinal Tissue Forceps: Hinged (locking) forceps used for grasping and holding tissue. Interdigitating short teeth to grasp and hold bowel or tissue, Slightly traumatic, use to hold intestine, fascia and skin. Babcock: An Intestinal Tissue ForcepsMore delicate that Allis, less directly traumatic Broad, flared ends with smooth tips. Used to atraumatically hold viscera (bowel and bladder). Sponge ForcepsSponge forceps can be straight or curved. Sponge forceps can have smooth or serrated jaws. Used to atraumatically hold viscera (bowel and bladder). Hemostatic forceps: Hinged (locking) Forceps. Many hemostatic forceps bear the name of the designer (Kelly, Holstead, Crile). They are used to clamp and hold blood vessels. Hemostatic forceps and hemostats may be curved or straight and are classified ny size, shape and size of tip Comparison of Kelly and Mosquito tipsMosquito hemostats (A) have a smaller, finer tip CarmaltHeavier than Kelly. Preferred for clamping of ovarian pedicals during an ovariohysterectomy surgery because the serrations run longitudinally Doyen Intestinal ForcepsDoyen intestinal forceps are non-crushing intestinal occluding forceps with longitudinal serrations. Used to temporarily occlude lumen of bowel. Payr Pylorus Clamps Payr pylorus clamp is a crushing intestinal instrument. Used to occlude the end of bowel to be resected. What is the function of the McMaster chamber parasite ova count What is a metarubricyte? an immature, nucleated erythrocyte What disease is detected by Bang's testing in the bovine Brucellosis What is the status of the epithelial cells during estrus in a canine vaginal smear? large number of cornified cells What is the suggested procedure of a hematoma? slight distal pressure What procedure is used to make accurate differential counts on blood smears? count 100 nucleated WBCs What anticoagulant inhibits glycolysis by the erythrocytes in a drawn blood sample? sodium fluoride What size needle should be used in a 40lb. dog? 20 ga What is the source of material analyzed from an aspirate and found to have high numbers of white cells and high protein concentration? exudate What needle size is used in cats and small dogs for obtaining blood samples? 22ga What device is used to elevate the cephalic vein of the dog for venipuncture? Nye tourniquet nucleated red blood cells An adjusted total leukocyte count needs to be made in the presence of what cells? What microbiology procedure is frequently done to determine the type of antibiotic used to combat a bacterial infection? culture and sensitivity What is the normal temperature necessary to incubate a pathogenic bacterial culture? 37°C Why are viruses difficult to isolate? they are reproduced in living tissue What is another name for reticulocyte? immature red blood cell A supravital stain is used to demonstrate what type of blood cell? reticulocytes Casts in urine may be demonstrated by what stain? Sedi-Stain What is hemoglobinuria? the presence of hemoglobin in the urine What is a type of crystal commonly seen in alkaline urine of the cat? struvite What is the increased number of circulating leukocytes termed? leukocytosis What are the reported volume units for WBC and RBC counts? microliter What is the anticoagulant of choice for a differential count? EDTA What is within the buffy coat layer? leukocytes Which commonly-used anesthetic circuit is made up of a tube within a tube? A - Semi-closed circle system B - Bain system C - Closed circle system D - Universal Y circuit B - Bain system A Bain system is a tube within a tube. New oxygen and anesthetic gas is inhaled down the inner tube, and exhaled gas exits through the outer tube. (Note there is a modified form of a circular system called a "universal F circuit" that is also a tube inside a tube). A Bain anesthetic circuit run at a high flow rate of 200-300 ml/kg/min will not allow rebreathing of exhaled gasses. At lower flow rates (ie: 130-200 ml/kg/min or less) the Bain circuit functions as a PARTIAL rebreathing system, and the animal rebreathes some of the exhaled gasses. Which choice correctly lists the order in which gasses pass through a typical circular anesthetic circuit? A - Pressure regulator, flowmeter, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister B - Vaporizer, pressure regulator, flowmeter,CO2 canister, patient C - Flowmeter, pressure regulator, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister D - Pressure regulator, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister, flowmeter Pressure regulator, flowmeter, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister. Gas passes from the high pressure tank through the pressure regulator, which DECREASES the gas pressure. Gas then flows through the flowmeter, (which controls the amount of carrier gas flow) then the vaporizer (where anesthetic vapor mixes) and then into the breathing circuit where the animal inhales the mix. Exhaled gasses pass through a CO2 scavenger canister and are then recycled, or are disposed of completely (non-rebreathing system.)