Comptia Security+ Practice Exam (3)

100 Questions I 828 Attempts I Created By mastermind1100 1462 days ago

Comptia Security+ Practice Exam (3)
Full length Comptia Security+ Practice Exam. Take this exam like the real exam to see if you are completely prepared for the real exam. Time yourself to 90 minutes to get a feel of the pressures of the real exam. The practice test is designed to reflect the final exam.

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Question Excerpt From Comptia Security+ Practice Exam (3)

Q.1)	What does the security administrator wants to prevent by ensuring that the users' password cannot be seen by passersby?

A.	The security administrator wants to stop a man-in-the-middle attack.

B.	The security administrator wants to stop shoulder surfing.

C.	The security administrator wants to stop dumpster diving.

D.	The security administrator wants to stop phishing.

Q.2)	Identify an efficient social engineering defensive strategy?

A.	You should implement training and awareness strategy.

B.	You should implement escorting of guests strategy.

C.	You should implement badge security system strategy.

D.	You should implement marking of documents strategy.

Q.3)	Identify how the risks of social engineering can be reduced? (Choose TWO)

A.	You should implement operating system patching instructions.

B.	You should implement security awareness training.

C.	You should implement risk assessment policies.

D.	You should implement vulnerability testing techniques.

E.	You should implement identity verification methods.

Q.4)	Where would a social engineering attack be most efficient? (Choose TWO)

A.	It will be efficient in an environment with a help desk whose personnel have a little training.

B.	It will be efficient in an environment with committed information technology (IT) security staff.

C.	It will be efficient in a public building that contains shared office space.

D.	It will be efficient in a military facility with computer equipment containing biometrics.

E.	It will be efficient in a locked, windowless building.

Q.5)	What do you call the action when a person masquerades as a reputable hardware technician in order to pick up a server for repairs?

A.	This is known as a Trojan horse.

B.	This is known as a man-in-the-middle attack.

C.	This is known as a phishing attack.

D.	This is known as social engineering.

Q.6)	What is the scenario called that an attacker uses to persuade a user to execute an action to be successful?

A.	This is known as a back door.

B.	This is known as password guessing.

C.	This is known as man-in-the-middle.

D.	This is known as social engineering.

Q.7)	A stranger enters the head offices of Certkiller .com pretending to be a communications technician. A packet sniffer is then connected to the network switch in the wiring closet and hidden behind the switch against a wall. This process is known as?

A.	It is an example of social engineering

B.	It is an example of a vulnerability scan.

C.	It is an example of a man in the middle attack.

D.	It is an example of a penetration test.

Q.8)	Which of the following network mapping tools uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)?

A.	port scanner.

B.	map scanner.

C.	ping scanner.

D.	share scanner.

Q.9)	What can an attacker can determine which network services are enabled on a target system?

A.	Installing a rootkit on the target system.

B.	Checking the services file.

C.	Enabling logging on the target system.

D.	Running a port scan against the target system.

Q.10)	What type of port scan is used to determine which ports are in a listening state and then performs a two way handshake?

A.	TCP (transmission Control Protocol) SYN (Synchronize) scan

B.	TCP (transmission Control Protocol) connect scan

C.	TCP (transmission Control Protocol) fin scan

D.	TCP (transmission Control Protocol) null scan

Q.11)	You are in the process of auditing the security position of the company and detect that users are able to access the accounting data of the company. How can this be solved?

A.	You have to implement a host based intrusion detection system to address this problem.

B.	You have to ensure that the user rights and security groups are changed.

C.	You have to implement a host based intrusion prevention system to address this problem.

D.	You have to ensure that the file level audit settings are changed.

Q.12)	What is the function of an auditing record on an information system? (Choose TWO)

A.	You should identify printing as the function of the auditing record.

B.	You should identify troubleshooting as the function of the auditing record.

C.	You should identify investigations as the function of the auditing record.

D.	You should identify performance as the function of the auditing record.

E.	You should identify installing as the function of the auditing record.

Q.13)	Evaluating cryptographic hash functions of system executables, configuration files and log files illustrates which process?

A.	You should identify stateful packet filtering.

B.	You should identify host based intrusion detection.

C.	You should identify network based intrusion detection.

D.	You should identify file integrity auditing.

Q.14)	Identify the logs that will illustrate the unapproved usage attempts after the implementation of a file audit?

A.	The Application will show the usage attempts that are not approved.

B.	The Performance will show the usage attempts that are not approved.

C.	The System will show the usage attempts that are not approved.

D.	The Security will show the usage attempts that are not approved.

Q.15)	Identify the step that is often disregarded during an auditing process?

A.	Auditing all system events is frequently disregarded.

B.	Permitting auditing on the system is frequently disregarded.

C.	Deciding the events that need to be audit is frequently disregarded.

D.	Regularly reviewing event logs is frequently disregarded.

Q.16)	Identify the series of steps in the auditing process?

A.	You should consider enabling auditing. Then you can set auditing to record the events.

B.	You should consider enabling auditing. Then you can set auditing on the object and respond as alerts are generated.

C.	You should consider setting auditing on the object and respond as alerts are produced.

D.	You should consider enabling auditing. Then you can set auditing on objects and review event logs.

Q.17)	Which of the following is a VPN (Virtual Private Network) protocol that operates at the Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnect) model?

A.	PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)

B.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

C.	L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol)

D.	IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

Q.18)	Which of the following is a tunneling protocol that only works on IP networks?

IPX

L2TP

PPTP

SSH

Q.19)	On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol) and PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) connections respectively?

A.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 635 and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 654

B.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 749 and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 781

C.	UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 1701 and TCP (transmission Control Protocol) port 1723

D.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 1812 and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 1813

Q.20)	Which of the following are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols? (Choose two)

A.	PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol).

B.	SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol).

C.	L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol).

D.	SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).

E.	PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol).

Q.21)

In addition to opening the appropriate L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol) and IKE (Internet Key Exchange) transport layer ports on the perimeter router and firewall, what steps must be performed on the perimeter router and firewall to allow AH (Authentication Header) and ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) tunnel-encapsulated IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) traffic to flow between a client and the firewall?

A.	The perimeter router and firewall must allow inbound protocol number 51 for ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encapsulated IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) traffic

B.	The perimeter router and firewall must allow inbound protocol number 49 for ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encapsulated IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) traffic

C.	The perimeter router and firewall must allow inbound protocol numbers 50 and 51 for ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) and All (Authentication Header) encapsulated IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) traffic

D.	The perimeter router and firewall must allow inbound protocol numbers 52 and 53 for AH (Authentication Header) and ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encapsulated IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) traffic

Q.22)	Which of the following can be used to authenticate and encrypt IP (Internet Protocol) traffic?

A.	ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)

B.	S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)

C.	IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

D.	IPv2 (Internet Protocol version 2)

Q.23)	Which of the following can be used to create a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

A.	PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol).

B.	PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol).

C.	SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol).

D.	ESLIP (Encrypted Serial Line Internet Protocol).

Q.24)	Which of the following are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols?

A.	IPSec (Internet Protocol Security), L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), and SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

B.	IPSec (Internet Protocol Security), L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), and PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)

C.	L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), and SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

D.	PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), and IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

Q.25)	What is the biggest benefit to using RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) for a multi-site VPN (Virtual Private Network) that supports a large number of remote users?

A.	RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) provides for a centralized user database.

B.	RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) provides for a decentralized user database.

C.	No user database is required with RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service).

D.	User database is replicated and stored locally on all remote systems.

Q.26)	On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support TACACS?

161

Q.27)	On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support SSH (Secure Shell)?

A.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 22

B.	UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 69

C.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 179

D.	UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 17

Q.28)	Which of the following is an alternative to using telnet?

A.	DES (Data Encryption Standard).

S-Telnet.

C.	SSH (Secure Shell).

D.	PKI (Public Key Infrastructure).

Q.29)	On which TCP/IP model will IPSec work?

A.	IPSec will work on the Transport layer.

B.	IPSec will work on the Network layer.

C.	IPSec will work on the Application layer.

D.	IPSec will work on the Data link layer.

Q.30)	Who manages the IPSec Security Association?

A.	The IPSec Security Association is managed by ESP

B.	The IPSec Security Association is managed by ISAKMP.

C.	The IPSec Security Association is managed by AH.

D.	The IPSec Security Association is managed by IEEE.

Q.31)	Identify the port number that will ensure a secure LDAP usage by default?

A.	Port 389 will secure LDAP.

B.	Port 443 will secure LDAP.

C.	Port 53 will secure LDAP.

D.	Port 636 will secure LDAP.

Q.32)	Identify the port used by Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in IPSec?

A.	Port 51 is used.

B.	Port 50 is used.

C.	Port 20 is used.

D.	Port 25 is used.

Q.33)	Certkiller .com makes use of remote users to connect securely from their homes to the company network. Identify the encryption technology that will ensure that you are able to connect securely to the network?

A.	The PPTP will enable a secure connection.

B.	The IPSec will enable a secure connection.

C.	The PPPoE will enable a secure connection.

D.	The L2TP will enable a secure connection.

Q.34)	Determine the security links in an IPSec encrypted session for every direction?

A.	There are six security links

B.	There are one security links.

C.	There are four security links.

D.	There are eight security links.

Q.35)	Which security does L2TP tunneling reply on?

A.	It will reply on L2F.

B.	It will reply on IPSec.

C.	It will reply on SSH.

D.	It will reply on SSL.

Q.36)	Identify the VPN implementations that will take the IPv6 security characteristics and port them to IPv4?

A.	The IPSec VPN implementations will accomplish the task.

B.	The SSL VPN implementations will accomplish the task.

C.	The L2TP VPN implementations will accomplish the task.

D.	The PPTP VPN implementations will accomplish the task.

Q.37)	Determine the OSI model layer where SSL offers encryption?

A.	SSL offers encryption at the Session layer.

B.	SSL offers encryption at the Application layer.

C.	SSL offers encryption at the Transport layer

D.	SSL offers encryption at the Network layer.

Q.38)	On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support IMAP4?

143

443

110

3869

Q.39)	What is the main DISADVANTAGE of using a third party mail relay?

A.	Spammers can utilize the relay.

B.	The relay limits access to specific users.

C.	The relay restricts the types of e-mail that maybe sent.

D.	The relay restricts spammers from gaining access.

Q.40)	What is the purpose of S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)?

A.	To encrypt user names and profiles to ensure privacy

B.	To encrypt messages and files

C.	To encrypt network sessions acting as a VPN (Virtual Private Network) client

D.	To automatically encrypt all outbound messages

Q.41)	What do you require in order to use S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)?

A.	A digital certificate.

B.	A server side certificate.

C.	A SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) certificate.

D.	A public certificate.

Q.42)	What are the possible results of a malformed MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) header?

A.	It can create a back door that will allow an attacker free access to a company's private network.

B.	It can create a virus that infects a user's computer.

C.	It can cause an unauthorized disclosure of private information.

D.	It can cause an e-mail server to crash.

Q.43)	Which of the following is often used to encrypt e-mail messages?

S/MIME

BIND

DES

SSL

Q.44)	Which of the following represents the greatest benefit of using S/MIME /Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension)?

A.	It allows users to send encrypted and digitally sign e-mail messages.

B.	It allows users to send anonymous e-mails.

C.	It allows users to send e-mails with a return receipt.

D.	It expedites the delivery of e-mail.

Q.45)	Which of the following is a possible technical impact of receiving large quantifies of spam?

A.	DoS (Denial of Service).

B.	Processor under utilization.

C.	Reduction in hard drive space requirements.

D.	Increased network throughput.

Q.46)	With regard to viruses and hoaxes, which of the following is TRUE? (Choose the best answer)

A.	Hoaxes can create as much damage as a real virus.

B.	Hoaxes are harmless pranks and should be ignored

C.	Hoaxes can help educate user about a virus.

D.	Hoaxes carry a malicious payload and can be destructive.

Q.47)	Which types of attachments should be filtered from e-mails to minimize the danger of viruses?

A.	Text files.

B.	Image files.

C.	Sound files.

D.	Executable files.

Q.48)	Which of the following is the primary attribute associated with e-mail hoaxes?

A.	E-mail hoaxes create unnecessary e-mail traffic and panic in non-technical users.

B.	E-mail hoaxes take up large amounts of server disk space.

C.	E-mail hoaxes can cause buffer overflows on the e-mail server.

D.	E-mail hoaxes can encourage malicious users.

Q.49)	Which of the following does PGP use to encrypt data?

A.	An asymmetric scheme

B.	A symmetric scheme

C.	a symmetric key distribution system

D.	An asymmetric key distribution

Q.50)	Which of the following mail standards relies on a "Web of Trust"?

A.	Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail extensions (S/MIME)

B.	Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

C.	MIME Object Security Services (MOSS)

D.	Privacy Enhanced Mail (PEM)

Q.51)	Which of the following defines the ability to verify that an e-mail message received has not been modified in transit?

A.	Authorization

B.	Non-repudiation

Integrity

D.	Cryptographic mapping

Q.52)	Which of the following would best protect the confidentiality and integrity of an e-mail message?

A.	IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

B.	SHA-1 (Secure Hashing Algorithm 1)

C.	Digital signature

D.	S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)

Q.53)	What does S/MIME use to execute public key exchange and authentication?

A.	S/MIME makes use of RSA.

B.	S/MIME makes use of 3DES.

C.	S/MIME makes use of RC2.

D.	S/MIME makes use of X.509.

Q.54)	What should be installed for HTTPS in order to function properly on a web site?

A.	You should install a security token.

B.	You should install a Symmetric key.

C.	You should install a Digital certificate.

D.	You should install a 3DES encryption.

Q.55)	Identify the error that will arise if an HTML-based e-mail has a mislabeled MIME type .exe attachment?

A.	It will result in the executable being able to execute automatically.

B.	It will result in the unreadable e-mail.

C.	It will result in the mail server constantly resending the e-mail.

D.	It will result in the e-mail client will delete the e-mail.

Q.56)	What are the damaging consequences of a virus hoax? (Choose TWO)

A.	It results in the capacity of the e-mail server to be consumed by message traffic.

B.	It results in the system configuration being changed by clients.

C.	It results in the risk for identity theft.

D.	It results in the consumption of technical support resources by increased client calls.

Q.57)	Identify the symmetric encryptions of message data and hashing methods uses Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)? (Choose TWO)

A.	Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) makes use of Blowfish.

B.	Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) makes use of NTLM

C.	Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) makes use of 3DES.

D.	Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) makes use of SHA-1.

E.	Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) makes use of Diffie-Hellman.

Q.58)	What is the important defect in Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) authentication?

A.	The most important defect is that the client has to trust the public key that is received.

B.	The most important defect is that the private keys can be compromised.

C.	The most important defect is that it is subject to a man-in-the-middle attack.

D.	The most important defect is that the weak encryption can easily be broken.

Q.59)	What is the name of the trust model that will permit users to create and sign certificates for known people?

A.	It is known as web-of-trust.

B.	It is known as browser trust-list.

C.	It is known as single certificate authority (CA).

D.	It is known as hierarchical.

Q.60)	What can be used to make the information unreadable to those who don't have the correct key?

A.	Non-repudiation protects the confidentiality of data.

B.	Encryption protects the confidentiality of data.

C.	Hashing protects the confidentiality of data

D.	Digital signatures protect the confidentiality of data.

Q.61)	What is clearance into a confidential section known as that only permit access to certain data within that section?

A.	It is known as dual control.

B.	It is known as need to know.

C.	It is known as separation of duties.

D.	It is known as acceptable use.

Q.62)	Why is spam regard as a problem when deleted prior to opening it?

A.	Spam installs the Trojan horse viruses

B.	Spam authenticates the validity of email addresses

C.	Spam alters the mail file.

D.	Spam waste several company bandwidth.

Q.63)	What can be done to stop the malicious code being carried out in e-mail clients?

A.	You can ensure that regular updates are executed.

B.	You can ensure that the preview screens are disabled.

C.	You can ensure that the spam and anti-virus filters are used.

D.	You can ensure that the e-mail client characteristics are disabled.

Q.64)	You work as the security administrator at Certkiller .com. During routine monitoring you detect an increase in the integer of spam e-mails. You receive a complaint from several users stating that the problem is escalating even though they are unsubscribed from the lists. Why the problem persisting?

A.	The problem persists since unsubscribe requests confirms e-mail addresses.

B.	The problem persists since the e-mails include a disclaimer.

C.	The problem persists since the spam blocker software has to be updated.

D.	The problem persists since the e-mails are not properly deleted.

Q.65)	You work as the security administrator at Certkiller .com. You want to configure the Certkiller network to allow only HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) traffic for outbound Internet connections. You also want to set permissions to allow only certain users to browse the web. Which of the following should you use?

A.	A packet filtering firewall.

B.	A protocol analyzer.

C.	A proxy server.

D.	A stateful firewall

Q.66)	You work as the security administrator at Certkiller .com. You notice that an e-mail server is currently relaying e-mail (including spam) for any e-mail server requesting relaying. On further investigation you discover the existence of /etc/mail/relay domains. How should you modify the relay domains file to prevent relaying for non-explicitly named domains?

A.	Move the .* entry to the bottom of the relay domains file and restart the e-mail process

B.	Move the .* entry to the top of the relay domains file and restart the e-mail process.

C.	Delete the .* entry in the relay domains file and restart the e-mail process.

D.	Delete the relay domains file from the /etc/mail folder and restart the e-mail process.

Q.67)	What is the main purpose of an e-mail relay server?

A.	It is used to block all spam, which allows the e-mail system to function more efficiently without the additional load of spam.

B.	It is used to prevent viruses from entering the network.

C.	It is used to defend the primary e-mail server and limit the effects of any attack.

D.	It is used to eliminate e-mail vulnerabilities since all e-mail is passed through the relay first.

Q.68)	Why should e-mail server be configured to prevent e-mail relay?

A.	Untraceable, unwanted e-mail can be sent

B.	An attacker can gain access and take over the server.

C.	Confidential information in the server's e-mail boxes can be read using the relay

D.	The open relay can be used to gain control of nodes on additional networks.

Q.69)	Which of the following can be used to exploit the clear text nature of an Instant-Messaging session?

A.	Packet sniffing.

B.	Port scanning.

C.	Cryptanalysis.

D.	Reverse engineering.

Q.70)	On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support e-mail communication using SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)?

A.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 110 to all inbound and outbound connections.

B.	UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 110 to all inbound connections.

C.	UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 25 to all inbound connections

D.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 25 to all inbound and outbound connections.

Q.71)	How many steps are used during the SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) handshake process?

Q.72)	What will the SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) enabled server do first when a user clicks to browse a secure page?

A.	Use its digital certificate to establish its identity to the browser.

B.	Validate the user by checking the CRL (Certificate Revocation List).

C.	Request the user to produce the CRL (Certificate Revocation List).

D.	Display the requested page on the browser, then provide its IP (Internet Protocol) address for verification

Q.73)	Which of the following types of encryption does SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) use?

A.	Asymmetric

Symmetric

C.	Public Key

Secret

Q.74)	Which of the following steps in the SSL (Secure Socket Layer) protocol allows for client and server authentication, MAC (Mandatory Access Control) and encryption algorithm negotiation, and selection of cryptographic keys?

A.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) alert protocol.

B.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) change cipher spec protocol.

C.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) record protocol.

D.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) handshake protocol.

Q.75)	Which of the following protocols is used to encrypt traffic between a web browser and web server?

A.	IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

B.	HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

C.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

D.	VPN (Virtual Private Network)

Q.76)	Which of the following protocols does a web server use to encrypt data?

A.	TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol)

ActiveX

C.	IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

D.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

Q.77)	In which lengths are SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) session keys available? (Choose two)

40-bit

64-bit.

128-bit.

D.	1,024-bit.

Q.78)	Which of the following protocols is used to secure web transactions?

A.	S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)

B.	XML (Extensible Makeup Language)

C.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

D.	SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

Q.79)	Which of the following represents the main advantage of using SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) has over HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer)?

A.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) offers full application security for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) while HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer) does not.

B.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) supports additional application layer protocols such as FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and NNTP (Network News Transport Protocol) while HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer) does not.

C.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer) are transparent to the application

D.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) supports user authentication and HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer) does not.

Q.80)	What does a web client and server require in order for an SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) connection to be established between them automatically?

A.	A shared password.

B.	A certificate signed by a trusted root CA (Certificate Authority).

C.	An address on the same subnet.

D.	A common operating system.

Q.81)	Which of the following is a key function introduced SSLv3.0 (Secure Sockets Layer version 3.0)?

A.	The ability to act as a CA (Certificate Authority).

B.	The ability to force client side authentication via digital certificates.

C.	The ability to use x.400 certificates.

D.	The ability to protect transmissions with 1024-bit symmetric encryption.

Q.82)	On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)?

A.	UDP (User Datagram Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 80

B.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 80

C.	TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 443

D.	UDP (User Datagram Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 69

Q.83)	Which of the following allows secure access to a web page, regardless of the browser type or vendor?

A.	Certificates with SSL (Secure Sockets Layer).

B.	Integrated web with NOS (Network Operating System) security.

C.	SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) only.

D.	None of the above.

Q.84)	Between which layers of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model does SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) operate? (Choose all that apply)

A.	The Application Layer.

B.	The Transport Layer

C.	The Network Layer

D.	The Data Link Layer

E.	The Physical Layer

Q.85)	What makes Instant Messaging extremely insecure compared to other messaging systems?

A.	It is a peer-to-peer network that offers most organizations virtually no control over it.

B.	Most IM clients are actually Trojan Horses.

C.	It is a centrally managed system that can be closely monitored.

D.	It uses the insecure Internet as a transmission medium.

Q.86)	Which of the following is the greatest vulnerability of using Instant Messaging clients?

A.	Theft of root user credentials.

B.	Disconnection from the file server.

C.	Hostile code delivered by file transfer.

D.	Slow Internet connections.

E.	Loss of email privileges.

Q.87)	Which of the following is the biggest problem associated with Instant Messaging?

A.	It is widely deployed and difficult to control.

B.	It was created without security in mind.

C.	It is easily spoofed.

D.	It is created with file sharing enabled.

Q.88)	Which of the following is Instant Messaging most vulnerable to?

A.	DoS (Denial of Service).

fraud.

C.	stability.

sniffing.

Q.89)	With which privileges are ActiveX control executed?

A.	Current user account

B.	Administrator account

C.	Guest account

D.	System account

Q.90)	Which of the following is responsible for displaying an install dialog box for an ActiveX component?

A.	The user's browser setting.

The

Quiz Comments (7)

Many of the questions were poorly worded. They look as though they were written by someone who does not normally speak English. In fact, some of the wording and spelling was worse than I receive in Nigerian 419 spam.

posted by:Guest 1348 days ago

Not sure what test you took, but most of these question are worded in english, and better yet in the test form

posted by:Guest 807 days ago

Question stop at #35. Otherwise a pretty good quiz. Thanks

posted by:Guest 1255 days ago

The test has been failing due to question being reported as actual test questions

posted by:Guest 807 days ago

I have taken the test twice now and there is an error at question 93/94 where the web page does not display correctly resulting in the test reporting that I have failed because only 7 questions have been answered. Please look into this as this is a pretty goo test!

posted by:Guest 943 days ago

The test has been failing due to question being reported as actual test questions

posted by:Guest 807 days ago

Do NOT take this test! It fails on some questions before the test is completed and you CANNOT get past the question. Sucks because this is a good test! I got to question 99 this last time before it crapped out on me.

posted by:Guest 669 days ago

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