4c0x1 7 Level Vol 1
7 Level URE'S 2011
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What must society change in order to overcome the influence of racism?
- A.
Laws.
- B.
Policies.
- C.
Attitudes.
- D.
Education.
Correct Answer
C. Attitudes.Explanation
To overcome the influence of racism, society must change its attitudes. Laws and policies can help in creating a legal framework against racism, and education can play a crucial role in promoting understanding and tolerance. However, it is ultimately the attitudes of individuals that need to change. By challenging and addressing deep-rooted prejudices and biases, society can work towards creating a more inclusive and equal environment for everyone, regardless of their race or ethnicity.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Most people base prejudices upon information
- A.
Obtained from research.
- B.
Learned from formal courses.
- C.
Gained from learned stereotypes.
- D.
Gathered from community-based training programs.
Correct Answer
C. Gained from learned stereotypes.Explanation
The correct answer is "gained from learned stereotypes." Prejudices are often formed based on preconceived notions and generalizations about certain groups of people. These stereotypes are learned through various means such as media, socialization, and personal experiences. They may not necessarily be accurate or based on factual information, but they shape people's perceptions and attitudes towards others.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When counselors act upon their prejudices, they
- A.
Become better people.
- B.
Overcome stereotypes.
- C.
Engage in discriminatory behavior.
- D.
Ensure equal treatment of all patients.
Correct Answer
C. Engage in discriminatory behavior.Explanation
When counselors act upon their prejudices, they engage in discriminatory behavior. This means that they are treating individuals unfairly or unequally based on their preconceived biases or stereotypes. Instead of providing equal treatment to all patients, counselors who act on their prejudices are perpetuating discrimination, which goes against the principles of ethical counseling. It is important for counselors to recognize and challenge their own biases in order to provide unbiased and effective support to their clients.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur?
- A.
Personal.
- B.
Intimate.
- C.
Social.
- D.
Public.
Correct Answer
A. Personal.Explanation
Most therapeutic relationships occur in the personal space zone. This is because therapeutic relationships involve a level of trust and intimacy that is typically found in personal relationships. In this zone, individuals feel comfortable sharing personal information and emotions with their therapist, which is essential for the therapeutic process. The intimate space zone is typically reserved for close relationships, while the social and public space zones are more appropriate for casual or formal interactions.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In which personal space do formal interactions occur?
- A.
Personal.
- B.
Intimate.
- C.
Social.
- D.
Public.
Correct Answer
D. Public.Explanation
Formal interactions typically occur in public personal space. This is a space where individuals engage in social interactions that are more formal and less intimate. It is a setting where people can interact with acquaintances, colleagues, or strangers in a professional manner. Public personal space may include places like offices, conference rooms, or public events where formal conversations and interactions take place.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which culture values empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment?
- A.
Asian/ Pacific Islanders.
- B.
Westernized healthcare providers.
- C.
Native Americans.
- D.
Hispanics.
Correct Answer
B. Westernized healthcare providers.Explanation
Westernized healthcare providers value empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment. This means that they prioritize using evidence-based practices and relying on scientific research to inform their decisions. They place importance on using diagnostic tools and treatment methods that have been proven to be effective through rigorous testing and research. This approach is in contrast to other cultures, such as Asian/Pacific Islanders, Native Americans, and Hispanics, who may have different perspectives on healthcare and may value other factors in their diagnostic and treatment approaches.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which is an example of a strategy a counselor might use to become more culturally competent?
- A.
Attends a conference for advances in the treatment of depression.
- B.
A white counselor tells his black client to relax because he sees no color.
- C.
Asks a client to refrain from using slang terminology to ease the language barrier.
- D.
A Hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee.
Correct Answer
D. A Hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee.Explanation
A counselor becoming more culturally competent involves actively seeking opportunities to learn about and engage with different cultures. Attending a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee demonstrates a commitment to understanding and appreciating the experiences and perspectives of the Black community. This strategy allows the counselor to gain firsthand knowledge, engage in dialogue, and build relationships with individuals from a different cultural background. By actively participating in such events, the counselor can expand their cultural awareness and sensitivity, ultimately enhancing their ability to provide effective counseling services to clients from diverse backgrounds.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which aging theory states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan?
- A.
Activity Theory of Aging.
- B.
Continuity Theory of Aging.
- C.
Subculture Theory of Aging.
- D.
Disengagement Theory of Aging.
Correct Answer
B. Continuity Theory of Aging.Explanation
The Continuity Theory of Aging states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan. This theory suggests that individuals tend to maintain their established patterns of behavior, preferences, and lifestyles as they age. It emphasizes the importance of continuity in maintaining a sense of identity and well-being as individuals grow older. According to this theory, individuals adapt to the changes that come with aging by maintaining their established roles, relationships, and activities, rather than seeking new ones. This theory contrasts with the Disengagement Theory of Aging, which suggests that individuals withdraw from society and disengage from their previous roles and activities as they age.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which aging theory states that the elderly possess their own norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors?
- A.
Activity Theory of Aging.
- B.
Continuity Theory of Aging.
- C.
Subculture Theory of Aging.
- D.
Disengagement Theory of Aging.
Correct Answer
C. Subculture Theory of Aging.Explanation
The Subculture Theory of Aging states that the elderly develop their own unique norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors, which differentiate them from younger generations. This theory suggests that as individuals age, they form their own subculture within society, with distinct values and practices. This subculture allows older adults to maintain a sense of identity and belonging, while also providing a framework for understanding and navigating the aging process.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How is alcoholism detected among elderly patients?
- A.
Through routine, thorough screening measures.
- B.
As a result of physical consequences of alcohol abuse.
- C.
Through histories obtained by family members of the elderly patient.
- D.
By responses from surveys used during prevention and outreach activities.
Correct Answer
B. As a result of physical consequences of alcohol abuse.Explanation
Alcoholism among elderly patients is detected through the physical consequences of alcohol abuse. This means that healthcare professionals look for signs and symptoms such as liver damage, cognitive impairment, malnutrition, and other health issues that are commonly associated with long-term alcohol abuse. Detecting alcoholism in elderly patients can be challenging as they may not exhibit typical signs or may attribute their symptoms to other age-related conditions. Therefore, identifying physical consequences is an important method to diagnose and address alcoholism in this population.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which group is more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications?
- A.
Veterans.
- B.
Babny Boomers.
- C.
Generation Xers.
- D.
Generation Nexters.
Correct Answer
C. Generation Xers.Explanation
Generation Xers are more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications because they are typically more proactive and assertive when it comes to their healthcare. This generation, born between the early 1960s and early 1980s, is known for being independent and self-reliant, and they are more likely to take charge of their health and seek out specific treatments or medications that they believe will benefit them. Veterans, Baby Boomers, and Generation Nexters may also approach providers with specific requests, but Generation Xers are generally considered to be the group that is most likely to do so.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the perpetrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model?
- A.
There has been no noticeable effect.
- B.
Lack of appropriate screening measures in identifying male victims.
- C.
Females receive more and more services each year because of their victimization.
- D.
Lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence.
Correct Answer
D. Lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence.Explanation
The effect of the traditional model of domestic violence presenting males as perpetrators and females as victims has been a lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence. This stereotypic model has perpetuated the belief that only women can be victims, leading to a lack of resources and support for male victims. As a result, men who experience domestic violence may face difficulties in accessing the help they need, further exacerbating their situation.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing
- A.
Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use.
- B.
Blackouts, hangovers, and compulsive use.
- C.
Blackouts, hangovers, and withdrawal.
- D.
Tolerance, withdrawal, and hangovers.
Correct Answer
A. Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use.Explanation
Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use. Tolerance refers to the need for increased amounts of the substance to achieve the desired effect, withdrawal refers to the physical and psychological symptoms that occur when the substance is discontinued, and compulsive use refers to the inability to control or stop using the substance despite negative consequences. By evaluating these factors, counselors can determine whether an individual is engaging in substance abuse or if they have developed a dependence on the substance.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which term describes the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days?
- A.
Speedball.
- B.
Tweaking.
- C.
Speed run.
- D.
Crash.
Correct Answer
B. Tweaking.Explanation
The term "tweaking" refers to the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days. During this period, the individual may exhibit symptoms such as restlessness, anxiety, paranoia, aggression, and hallucinations. "Speedball" refers to the combination of cocaine and heroin, "speed run" is not a term associated with methamphetamine use, and "crash" typically refers to the period of exhaustion and depression that follows a drug high.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which substance will an amphetamine user typically use to manage the agitation experienced during a crash?
- A.
Cocaine or heroin.
- B.
Heroin or opiates.
- C.
Opiates or alcohol.
- D.
Alcohol or heroin.
Correct Answer
D. Alcohol or heroin.Explanation
Amphetamine users often experience a crash, which is characterized by feelings of agitation. To manage this agitation, they may turn to substances that can help them calm down. Alcohol and heroin are both depressants that can produce sedative effects, making them potential choices for managing the agitation experienced during an amphetamine crash.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which schizophrenic symptom either exaggerates or grossly distorts the patient's normal level of functioning?
- A.
Cluster.
- B.
Positive.
- C.
Negative.
- D.
Perceptual.
Correct Answer
B. Positive.Explanation
Positive symptoms of schizophrenia refer to symptoms that are added to a person's normal level of functioning. These symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and disorganized behavior. They are called positive symptoms because they represent an excess or exaggeration of normal functioning. In contrast, negative symptoms refer to a reduction or absence of normal functioning, such as lack of motivation, social withdrawal, and flattened affect. Perceptual symptoms, on the other hand, are not specific to schizophrenia and can occur in other mental health conditions as well. Therefore, the correct answer is positive.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which Diagnosis is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month?
- A.
Schizophrenia
- B.
Schizoaffective disorder.
- C.
Delusional disorder
- D.
Schizophreniform disorder.
Correct Answer
C. Delusional disorderExplanation
Delusional disorder is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month. Unlike schizophrenia, which involves a range of symptoms such as hallucinations and disorganized thinking, delusional disorder primarily focuses on the presence of delusions. Schizoaffective disorder involves a combination of symptoms of both schizophrenia and mood disorders, while schizophreniform disorder is characterized by symptoms similar to schizophrenia but lasting for a shorter duration (between one and six months). Therefore, the correct answer is Delusional disorder.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A patient has spent $5,000 on shoes in the last three weeks. Which symptom of mania is this behavior evidence of?
- A.
Indiscretion.
- B.
Extravagance.
- C.
Grandiosity.
- D.
Overstimuli.
Correct Answer
A. Indiscretion.Explanation
The behavior of spending $5,000 on shoes in the last three weeks is evidence of indiscretion. Indiscretion refers to a lack of judgment or restraint in one's actions, often leading to impulsive and excessive behavior. In this case, the patient's excessive spending on shoes demonstrates a lack of judgment and restraint, indicating a symptom of mania.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which describes a manic patient's initial behavior?
- A.
Increased productivity, but decreased energy.
- B.
Increased productivity and increased energy.
- C.
Decreased productivity and decreased energy.
- D.
Decreased productivity, but increased energy.
Correct Answer
B. Increased productivity and increased energy.Explanation
A manic patient's initial behavior is characterized by increased productivity and increased energy. This means that they are likely to be highly active, engaged in multiple tasks, and have a heightened sense of motivation and drive. This behavior is often accompanied by a decreased need for sleep and an overall sense of restlessness.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?
- A.
Intense fear of an identifiable stressor.
- B.
Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor.
- C.
Moderate fear of an identifiable stressor.
- D.
Moderate fear of an unidentifiable stressor.
Correct Answer
B. Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor.Explanation
A panic attack is characterized by intense fear or discomfort that arises suddenly and reaches its peak within minutes. It is often accompanied by physical symptoms such as a racing heart, shortness of breath, and sweating. The primary characteristic of a panic attack is the intense fear, but it is specifically focused on an unidentifiable stressor, meaning that the person experiencing the panic attack may not be able to pinpoint a specific cause for their fear.Rate this question:
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- 21.
An NCO attending the NCO Academy reports to his instructor that he feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech. Which type of panic attack might the NCO be experiencing?
- A.
Expected.
- B.
Unexpected.
- C.
Situationally bound.
- D.
Situationally predisposed
Correct Answer
C. Situationally bound.Explanation
The NCO is experiencing a panic attack that is situationally bound. This means that the panic attack is triggered by a specific situation, in this case, the thought of giving a speech. The NCO feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech, suggesting that the panic attack is directly related to this specific situation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is an essential feature of PTSD?
- A.
Tearfulness.
- B.
Dissociation.
- C.
Hallucination.
- D.
Sleeplessness.
Correct Answer
B. Dissociation.Explanation
PTSD, or Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, is a mental health condition that can occur after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Dissociation is an essential feature of PTSD, where individuals may feel detached from their surroundings, have a sense of unreality, or experience a disconnect from their emotions. This can manifest as feeling numb, spacing out, or having gaps in memory related to the traumatic event. Tearfulness, hallucinations, and sleeplessness can be associated with PTSD, but dissociation is considered a core symptom.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD?
- A.
Acute intervention.
- B.
Desensitization exposure.
- C.
Psychopharmacological intervention
- D.
Allowing the patient to spend time alone.
Correct Answer
A. Acute intervention.Explanation
Acute intervention refers to providing immediate and short-term support and treatment to individuals who have experienced a traumatic event. This can help prevent long-term psychological scarring or the development of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). By addressing the trauma early on and offering appropriate interventions, such as counseling or therapy, individuals can receive the necessary support to process their experiences and reduce the risk of long-term psychological consequences.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
- A.
Refusal to maintain control over diet.
- B.
Need to confront poor eating habits.
- C.
Intense pain related to eating certain foods.
- D.
Refusal to maintain appropriate body weight.
Correct Answer
D. Refusal to maintain appropriate body weight.Explanation
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a refusal to maintain a healthy body weight. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often have a distorted body image and engage in extreme measures to control their weight, such as severe calorie restriction, excessive exercise, and purging behaviors. This primary characteristic sets anorexia nervosa apart from other eating disorders and is a key diagnostic criteria for the disorder.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which disorder is commonly diagnosed for people who suffer from anorexia nervosa?
- A.
Mania.
- B.
Depression.
- C.
Substance abuse.
- D.
Impulsive purging.
Correct Answer
B. Depression.Explanation
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. People with anorexia often have low self-esteem and a negative perception of themselves, which can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and worthlessness. Depression is commonly diagnosed in individuals with anorexia nervosa due to the emotional and psychological toll that the disorder takes on their mental health.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the time frame of binge behavior?
- A.
More than two hours.
- B.
Less than two hours.
- C.
More than three hours.
- D.
Less than three hours.
Correct Answer
B. Less than two hours.Explanation
The time frame of binge behavior is less than two hours. This suggests that binge behavior refers to engaging in a particular activity excessively and compulsively for a relatively short period of time. It implies that individuals who engage in binge behavior tend to do so for a duration of less than two hours, indicating a pattern of intense and excessive behavior within a limited time frame.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Many eating disorders go undetected because
- A.
Of poor screening measures.
- B.
Patients are adept at hiding their behavior.
- C.
Other mental illnesses mask eating disorders.
- D.
Counselors are not skilled at assessing for eating disorders.
Correct Answer
A. Of poor screening measures.Explanation
Many eating disorders go undetected because of poor screening measures. This means that there may not be effective methods in place to identify individuals with eating disorders. Without proper screening, it becomes difficult for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of these disorders, resulting in many cases going unnoticed. This lack of detection can prolong the suffering of individuals with eating disorders and delay their access to necessary treatment and support.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder?
- A.
2 and 5 months, respectively.
- B.
3 and 6 months, respectively.
- C.
4 and 7 months, respectively.
- D.
5 and 8 months, respectively.
Correct Answer
B. 3 and 6 months, respectively.Explanation
The general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder is between 3 and 6 months. This means that it typically takes around 3 months for the disorder to fully develop, and then it can take up to 6 months for the symptoms to remit or improve.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which term describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than six months?
- A.
Acute.
- B.
Chronic.
- C.
Persistent.
- D.
Short-term.
Correct Answer
A. Acute.Explanation
The term "acute" describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than six months. This means that the symptoms have occurred recently and are of a short duration. Unlike chronic or persistent symptoms that last for a longer period of time, acute symptoms are temporary and typically resolve within a relatively short timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to which cluster of personality disorders?
- A.
A.
- B.
B.
- C.
C.
- D.
D.
Correct Answer
A. A.Explanation
The correct answer is A. Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to Cluster A of personality disorders. Cluster A includes disorders such as paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder. These disorders are characterized by unusual or eccentric behavior, social withdrawal, and difficulty forming close relationships. People with Cluster A personality disorders often have peculiar beliefs or thoughts and may exhibit odd or eccentric mannerisms.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which personality disorder is dominated by a person feeling very uncomfortable in a close personal relationship and is often described as odd or eccentric?
- A.
Schizotypal.
- B.
Dependent.
- C.
Paranoid.
- D.
Schizoid.
Correct Answer
A. Schizotypal.Explanation
Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by a person feeling extremely uncomfortable in close personal relationships and exhibiting odd or eccentric behavior. They may have unusual beliefs or perceptual experiences and struggle with social interactions. This disorder is often associated with eccentric thinking and behavior, such as magical thinking or peculiar speech patterns. Unlike other personality disorders listed, such as dependent or paranoid, schizotypal personality disorder specifically highlights the odd or eccentric nature of the individual's behavior and discomfort in close relationships.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A patient assessed as constantly seeking attention and having difficulty understanding boundary issues should be diagnosed with having a
- A.
Borderline Personality Disorder.
- B.
Histrionic Personality Disorder.
- C.
Antisocial Personality Disorder.
- D.
Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.
Correct Answer
B. Histrionic Personality Disorder.Explanation
A patient who constantly seeks attention and has difficulty understanding boundary issues is likely to be diagnosed with Histrionic Personality Disorder. This disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior, dramatic and exaggerated emotions, and a strong desire to be the center of attention. Individuals with Histrionic Personality Disorder often have difficulty maintaining healthy relationships due to their attention-seeking behaviors and may have a tendency to manipulate others to gain attention. This diagnosis is more fitting than Borderline Personality Disorder, Antisocial Personality Disorder, or Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder, as these disorders have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.Rate this question:
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- 33.
In alcohol treatment, when a patient has alcoholism or substance abuse along with medical, legal, or social issues, this is called
- A.
Dual diagnosis.
- B.
Polysubstance abuse.
- C.
Coexisting conditions.
- D.
Polysubstance dependence.
Correct Answer
C. Coexisting conditions.Explanation
The term "coexisting conditions" refers to the situation where a patient undergoing alcohol treatment has both alcoholism or substance abuse and additional medical, legal, or social issues. This implies that the patient is dealing with multiple conditions at the same time, which may complicate their treatment and require a comprehensive approach to address all the issues effectively.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The average adult can oxidize approximately how many drinks in 180 minutes?
- A.
2.
- B.
3.
- C.
4.
- D.
6.
Correct Answer
B. 3.Explanation
The question asks about the number of drinks that an average adult can oxidize in 180 minutes. Oxidation refers to the process by which alcohol is broken down and eliminated from the body. The correct answer is 3 because it suggests that an average adult can metabolize or oxidize three drinks within a span of 180 minutes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing the alcohol consumed so the drinker will become intoxicated at lower level of consumption?
- A.
Reverse tolerance.
- B.
Residual tolerance.
- C.
Alcoholic hepatitis.
- D.
Alcoholic cirrhosis.
Correct Answer
A. Reverse tolerance.Explanation
Reverse tolerance is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing alcohol, resulting in the drinker becoming intoxicated at a lower level of consumption. This means that over time, the body becomes more sensitive to the effects of alcohol, requiring less alcohol to achieve the same level of intoxication. This phenomenon can be dangerous as it increases the risk of alcohol-related harm and addiction.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she withholds judgment of a patient?
- A.
Self-awareness.
- B.
Acceptance.
- C.
Observation.
- D.
Empathy.
Correct Answer
B. Acceptance.Explanation
When a counselor withholds judgment of a patient, they are demonstrating acceptance. Acceptance is the ability to acknowledge and respect the patient's thoughts, feelings, and experiences without imposing personal biases or opinions. By practicing acceptance, the counselor creates a safe and non-judgmental space for the patient to explore their emotions and concerns openly. This allows for a deeper level of trust and understanding between the counselor and patient, facilitating the therapeutic process.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she conveys an understanding of a patient's situation or feeling?
- A.
Self-awareness.
- B.
Acceptance.
- C.
Observation.
- D.
Empathy.
Correct Answer
D. Empathy.Explanation
Empathy is the skill that a counselor utilizes when conveying an understanding of a patient's situation or feeling. Empathy involves being able to understand and share the feelings of another person, showing genuine concern and compassion. By demonstrating empathy, the counselor creates a safe and supportive environment for the patient to express their emotions and experiences, ultimately fostering a stronger therapeutic relationship. This skill allows the counselor to connect with the patient on a deeper level and helps in providing effective guidance and support.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In order to work with the mental health patients, a counselor must believe every
- A.
Counselor can help patients change.
- B.
Patient has the capacity to change.
- C.
Counselor can help patients.
- D.
Patient can be changed.
Correct Answer
B. Patient has the capacity to change.Explanation
The correct answer is "patient has the capacity to change." This means that in order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe that every patient has the ability to change. This belief is important because it forms the foundation for the counselor's approach and interventions, as they will be working towards helping the patient make positive changes in their mental health and well-being. By believing in the patient's capacity to change, the counselor can provide the necessary support, guidance, and encouragement to facilitate the patient's growth and progress.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What term describes the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient?
- A.
Therapeutic alliance.
- B.
Acceptance.
- C.
Empathy.
- D.
Rapport.
Correct Answer
D. Rapport.Explanation
Rapport refers to the mutual respect and trust that is established between the interviewer and the patient. It involves creating a positive and comfortable atmosphere, where both parties feel understood and valued. Building rapport is essential in establishing a therapeutic alliance, as it allows for effective communication and collaboration in the healthcare setting. Acceptance and empathy are important components of rapport, but they alone do not encompass the entirety of the concept.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The best benefit the patient receives from the therapeutic alliance is
- A.
Being able to make changes based on new information.
- B.
Being able to take more responsibility for his or her life.
- C.
Feeling confident the counselor will provide sound advice.
- D.
Being able to feel relief to have help with his or her problems.
Correct Answer
B. Being able to take more responsibility for his or her life.Explanation
The therapeutic alliance refers to the relationship between a patient and a counselor or therapist. It is a collaborative partnership where the patient actively participates in their own treatment. By taking more responsibility for their life, the patient becomes empowered to make decisions and take actions that promote their well-being. This benefit allows the patient to have a sense of control over their own life and fosters personal growth and self-improvement. It also helps to build trust and rapport between the patient and the counselor, leading to better therapeutic outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is an improtant consideration in using self-disclosure?
- A.
Presenting the information in a nonthreatening manner.
- B.
Considering how much is appropriate to disclose.
- C.
Understanding the reason for disclosing.
- D.
Knowing the ethics of disclosing.
Correct Answer
C. Understanding the reason for disclosing.Explanation
Understanding the reason for disclosing is an important consideration in using self-disclosure because it allows individuals to evaluate their motivations and intentions behind sharing personal information. By understanding the reason for disclosing, individuals can ensure that their self-disclosure is purposeful and relevant to the situation at hand. This consideration helps to avoid unnecessary or inappropriate self-disclosure, and promotes effective communication and relationship building.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What does motivational interviewing seek to resolve?
- A.
Ambivalence.
- B.
Resistance.
- C.
Conflict.
- D.
Issues.
Correct Answer
A. Ambivalence.Explanation
Motivational interviewing seeks to resolve ambivalence. Ambivalence refers to having mixed feelings or uncertainty about change. In motivational interviewing, the therapist aims to help individuals explore and resolve their ambivalence towards making positive changes in their lives. By addressing ambivalence, motivational interviewing can help individuals overcome barriers and increase their motivation to change. This approach is often used in therapy for addiction, behavior change, and other areas where individuals may have conflicting feelings about making changes.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the role of the counselor in supporting self-efficacy?
- A.
Share a belief with the patient that the patient is capable of making change.
- B.
Share the burden of responsibility for making change with the patient.
- C.
Roll with resistance to avoid conflict with the patient.
- D.
Deal with ambivalence by confronting discrepancy.
Correct Answer
A. Share a belief with the patient that the patient is capable of making change.Explanation
The role of the counselor in supporting self-efficacy is to share a belief with the patient that they are capable of making change. This involves instilling confidence in the patient's abilities and encouraging them to believe in their own potential for change. By expressing this belief, the counselor helps to empower the patient and increase their self-confidence, which in turn enhances their motivation to make positive changes in their life. This approach promotes a collaborative and supportive relationship between the counselor and the patient, fostering a sense of trust and optimism.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A common mistake in the assessment when the diagnosis is substance abuse is failure to assess
- A.
For acute withdrawal.
- B.
Recent binge episodes.
- C.
For substance intoxication.
- D.
The need for detoxification.
Correct Answer
D. The need for detoxification.Explanation
When assessing a patient with a diagnosis of substance abuse, it is important to assess for the need for detoxification. Detoxification is the process of removing toxic substances from the body, and it is often necessary for individuals who are dependent on drugs or alcohol. Failure to assess for the need for detoxification can lead to complications during the treatment process and hinder the patient's recovery. Therefore, it is crucial to evaluate if detoxification is required as part of the overall treatment plan for substance abuse.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome is a past history of
- A.
Other mental illness.
- B.
Polysubstance abuse.
- C.
Withdrawal syndrome.
- D.
Substance intoxication
Correct Answer
C. Withdrawal syndrome.Explanation
A past history of withdrawal syndrome increases the probability that the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome again. This is because the body and brain have already gone through the process of withdrawal before, making it more likely to happen again in the future.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following forms the basis of treatment recommendations for the substance using patient?
- A.
Information obtained in at least five ASAM dimensions.
- B.
Information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions.
- C.
Past history of treatment outcomes.
- D.
Discovery of dual diagnosis.
Correct Answer
B. Information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions.Explanation
The basis of treatment recommendations for a substance using patient is formed by gathering information in all six ASAM dimensions. These dimensions include the patient's acute intoxication and withdrawal potential, biomedical conditions and complications, emotional and behavioral conditions or complications, treatment acceptance and resistance, relapse potential, and recovery environment. By obtaining information in all six dimensions, healthcare professionals can have a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and tailor the treatment plan accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is
- A.
2, Biomedical conditions and complications.
- B.
3, Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications.
- C.
4, Readiness to change.
- D.
5, Relapse, continued use or continued problem potential.
Correct Answer
B. 3, Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications.Explanation
The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is 3, Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on assessing and treating any emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions that may be present alongside substance use disorders. It recognizes that mental health issues often coexist with addiction and emphasizes the importance of addressing both aspects in order to achieve successful recovery.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty Air Force installation with a MTF?
- A.
Highest ranking enlisted mental health technician.
- B.
Highest ranking privileged life skills provider.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
TSR team Chief.
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the establishment of at least one TSR (Traumatic Stress Response) team at each active duty Air Force installation with a Medical Treatment Facility (MTF). This means that the installation commander has the authority and duty to ensure that the necessary resources and personnel are in place to form and maintain the TSR teams. The highest ranking enlisted mental health technician, highest ranking privileged life skills provider, and TSR team chief may play important roles within the TSR team, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which individual is not typically part of the TSR team?
- A.
Social worker.
- B.
3-level mental health technician.
- C.
7-level mental health technician.
- D.
Community readiness consultant.
Correct Answer
B. 3-level mental health technician.Explanation
A 3-level mental health technician is not typically part of the TSR team. The other options, such as a social worker, 7-level mental health technician, and community readiness consultant, are more likely to be part of the TSR team.Rate this question:
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- 50.
According to the Air Force's Traumatic Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when which symptom lasts for over a month, and/or impacts work or social functioning.
- A.
Flashbacks.
- B.
Suicidal ideation.
- C.
Homicidal ideation.
- D.
Alcohol or drug abuse.
Correct Answer
A. Flashbacks.Explanation
According to the Air Force's Traumatic Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when flashbacks last for over a month and/or impacts work or social functioning. Flashbacks are intrusive memories or re-experiencing of a traumatic event, and if they persist for an extended period or significantly affect an individual's daily life, it is crucial to seek help. This can indicate the presence of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and professional assistance may be necessary for coping and recovery.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 13, 2011Quiz Created by
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