1.
The File Services role and other storage-related features included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable system administrators to address many problems on a scale appropriate to a large enterprise entwork. However, before you implement the role or begin using these tools, what should you spend some time thinking about?
Correct Answer
B. Your users' needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing practices
Explanation
The File Services role and other storage-related features included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable system administrators to address all of these problem on a scale appropriate to a large enterprise network. However, before you implement the role or begin using these tools, you should spend some time thinking about your users' needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing practices.
2.
The process of deploying and configuring a simple file server using Windows Server 2008 includes many of the most basic server administration task, including all of the following except ___________.
Correct Answer
B. Partitioning drives
Explanation
The process of deploying and configuring a simple file server using Windows Server 2008 includes many of the most basic server administration tasks including installing disks, creating shares, assigning permissions, and mapping drive letters.
3.
The system partition contains what types of files?
Correct Answer
C. Hardware-related files that the computer uses to boot
Explanation
The system partition contains hardware-related files that the computer uses to boot.
4.
When you work with basic disks in Windows Server 2008, how many primary partitions can you create?
Correct Answer
D. 4
Explanation
When you work with basic disks in Windows Server 2008, you can create up to four primary partitions, that is, a partition that can be used to load an operating system. For the fourth partition, you have the option of creating an extended partition instead on which you can create as many logical drives as you need.
5.
How many active partitions can yo7u have per hard drive
Correct Answer
A. 1
6.
What volume type consists of space on three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks?
Correct Answer
D. RAID-5
Explanation
A RAID-5 volume consists of space on three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks. The system stripes data and parity information across all of the disks so that if one physical disk fails, the missing data can be recreated using the parity information on the other disks.
7.
Windows Server 2008 can support dynamic volumes as large as _______ terabytes
Correct Answer
C. 64
Explanation
Windows Server 2008 can support dynamic volumes as large as 64 terabytes.
8.
What is the first step in designing a file-sharing strategy?
Correct Answer
D. Projecting anticipates storage needs and procuring the correct server hardware and disk arrays to meet your needs.
Explanation
The first step in designing a file-sharing strategy begins before you even install the server operating system by projecting your anticipated storage needs and procuring the correct server hardware and disk arrays to meet your needs. Once you are ready to begin configuring file sharing, you will then decide how many shares to create and where to create them.
9.
What file system provides the most granular user access control and also provides other advanced storage features, including file encryption and compression?
Correct Answer
A. NTFS
Explanation
NTFS not onprovides the most granular user access control, it also provides other advanced storage features, including file encryption and compression.
10.
Windows Server 2008 has several sets of permissions that operate independently of each other. Which permissions control access to folders over a network?
Correct Answer
A. Share permissions
Explanation
Share permissions control access to folders over a network.
11.
By default, what topology do replication groups use?
Correct Answer
B. Full mesh
Explanation
The large the DFS deployment, the more complicated the replication process becomes. By default, replication groups use a full mesh topology, which meabns that every member in a group replicates with every other member. For relatively small DFS deployments, this is a satisfactory solution, but on large installations, the full mesh topology can generate a hugh amount of network traffic.
12.
The Distributed File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two technologies DFS Namespaces and _________________.
Correct Answer
B. DFS Replication
Explanation
The Distrivbuted File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two technologies: DFS Namespaces and DFS Replication.
13.
What sever is responsible for maintaining the list of DFS shares folders and responding to user requests for those folders?
Correct Answer
C. Namespace severs
14.
Although any Windows computer can function as a print server, it is not recommended that you use a workstation for this task.
Correct Answer
B. False
15.
To stop a job that is currently printing, you must clear the print device's memory (by resetting it or power-cycling the unit), as well as clear the job from the queue.
Correct Answer
A. True
16.
To install the Internet Printing role service, you must also install the Web Server (IIS) role.
Correct Answer
A. True
17.
What computer (or standalone device) receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network?
Correct Answer
B. Print server
Explanation
A print server is a computer (or standalone device) that receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network.
18.
What standardized, highly portable print job format is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems?
Correct Answer
B. Enhanced Metafile (EMF)
Explanation
Enhanced Metafile (EMF) is a standardized, highly portable print job format that is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems.
19.
To share printers, which Network Sharing and Discovery setting must be turned on?
Correct Answer
B. Printer Sharing
Explanation
To share printers, the following Network Sharing and Discovery settings must be turned on: Network Discovery and Printer Sharing.
20.
Which document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again?
Correct Answer
D. Printer > Pause Printing
21.
Which document management menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item again?
Correct Answer
C. Printer > Use Printer Offline
22.
To set printer priorities, you must do all of the following except _______.
Correct Answer
B. Create multiple print users
23.
Which of the following is not an option with the Print Services Management Console?
Correct Answer
A. Installing a printer
24.
Which version of Windows automatically supports automatic policy-based printer deployments by default?
Correct Answer
D. None of the above
Explanation
Clients running earlier versions of Windows, including Windows XP and Windows Server 2003, do no support automatic policy-based printer deployments. To enable the GPO to deploy printers on these computers, you must configure the systems to run a utility called PushPrinterConnections.ece.
25.
The XML Paper Specification format is included with which of the following operating systems by default?
Correct Answer
A. Windows Vista
Explanation
XML Paper Specification (XPS) is a new, platform-independent document format included with Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista in which print job files use a single XPS format for their entire journey to the print device rather than being converted first to EMS and then later to PCL.
26.
Just as with folder shares, what must clients have to access a shre printer?
Correct Answer
D. Proper permissions
Explanation
Just as with folder shares, clients must have teh proper permissions to access a shared printer.
27.
By default, the Print Management console displays only which of the following in its list of print servers?
Correct Answer
B. Local machine
Explanation
By default, the Print Management console displays only the local machine in its list of print servers.
28.
How many possibilities of filter combinations exist in the Print Management Console?
Correct Answer
D. More than 1,000
Explanation
When creating filters, each entry in the Field drop-down list has its own collection of possible entries for the Condition drop-down list, and each Condition entry has its own possible entries for the Value setting. Therefore, there are many thousands of possible filter combinations.
29.
You can create your own custom Data Collector Set.
Correct Answer
A. True
30.
The version of Network Monitor that is built into Windows Server 2008 can capture 100 percent of the network traffic available to the network interface.
Correct Answer
B. False
31.
If multiple servers run WSUS, the administrator controls which clients access particular servers that run WSUS.
Correct Answer
A. True
32.
Which of the following is not a tool that can help you proactively troubleshoot network problems?
Correct Answer
B. Performance console
33.
Which of the following is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor
Correct Answer
C. Resource
34.
The Reliability and Performance Monitor is a tool located within the Administrative Tools folder that combines features that had previously been spread across a number of tools. Which of the following is not a feature?
Correct Answer
B. Performance Monitor
Explanation
The Reliability and Performance Monitor is a tool located within the Adminisitrative Tools folder that combines features that had previously been spread across a number of tools. Performance Logs and Alerts, Server Performance Advisor, and System Monitor. The Reliability and Performance Monitor in Windows Server 2008 allows you to collect real-time information on your local computer or from a specific computer to which you have permissions.
35.
In which view can you view the counter associated with Data Collector Sets?
Correct Answer
A. Performance Monitor
Explanation
You can view the counters associated with Data Collector Sets in Performance Monitor view, use them to generate alert actions when particular performance thresholds are reached, and integrate them with the Windows Task Schedule to collect performance data at specific times.
36.
In which node is Event Viewer located?
Correct Answer
C. Diagnostics node
Explanation
Even Viewer is accessible from Server Manager by drilling down to the Dianostics node or by selecting Event Viewer from the Administrative Tools folder on the Start menu.
37.
When you first launch Network Monitor, what key do you press to begin capturing network traffic?
Correct Answer
C. F10
Explanation
When you first launch Network Monitor, you can press F10 to begin capturing network traffic and F11 to end the capture.
38.
Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include all of the following except ________.
Correct Answer
C. Additional user experience features
Explanation
Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include security fixes, critical updates, and critical drivers. These updates resolve known security vulnerabilities and stability issues in the Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008 operating systems.
39.
Which of the following is not a category for the Windows operating system updates?
Correct Answer
A. Group Policy updates
40.
Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS. This enhancement adds all of the following features when used in conjunction with a WSUS server except ___________.
Correct Answer
D. Support for Unix-based systems
Explanation
Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS. This enhancement adds the following features when used in conjunction with a WSUS server approved content download from a WSUS server, scheduled content download and installation, the ability to configure all Automatic Updates options by using Group Policy Object Editor or by editing the registry, and support for systems without a logged-on local administrator.
41.
Which of the following is not a main component of WSUS?
Correct Answer
C. Windows Update Communication Service
Explanation
WSUS has three main components: Windows Update Synchronization Service which downloads content to your server that runs SUS; a Website hosted on a IIS server that services update requests from Automatic Updates clients, and a WSUS MMC Administration console.
42.
Server management includes all of the following with the exception of ________________
Correct Answer
B. Controlling download and installation behavior
Explanation
Server management includes reviewing and changing configuration options, automatically or manually synchronizing the server, viewing the update status, and backing up and restoring the server. Client management includes controlling download and installation behavior and configuration for Active Directory and non-Active Directory enviornments.
43.
Initial WSUS server configuration options include all of the following except ________.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Initial WSUS server configuration options include the following choice of whether the update files are hosted on the Internet Windows Update service or locally on your server that runs WSUS, proxy server information for the server to access the Internet, options for handling previously approved content, and the list of client language you would like to support.
44.
Each TCP/IP packet protected with IPSec contains a cryptographic checksum in the form of a keyed hash.
Correct Answer
A. True
45.
The Authentication Header (AH) protocol provides confidentiality and data encryption.
Correct Answer
B. False
46.
To identify a specific SA for tracking purposes, a 32-bit number known as the Security Parameters Indes (SPI) is used.
Correct Answer
A. True
47.
Where is the checksum located?
Correct Answer
B. Header of each packet
48.
What are the IPSEC default settings for the key lifetime in minutes?
Correct Answer
D. 480
49.
Which rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated to pass traffic?
Correct Answer
B. Authentication exemption
Explanation
The Authentication exemption rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated to pass traffic; for example, defining a DHCP server that should not have an Isolation connection security rule apply to it.
50.
IKE main mode has a default lifetime of _______ hours.
Correct Answer
B. 8
Explanation
IKE main mode has a default lifetime of 8 hours, but this number is configurable from 5 minutes to a maximum of 48 hours.