Test 5 Microbiology

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Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia
Test # 5 microbiology summer semester

  
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  • 1. 
    Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
    • A. 

      Mycology

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Histology

    • E. 

      Virology


  • 2. 
    The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen?
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Precipitation

    • D. 

      Specificity

    • E. 

      Sensitivity


  • 3. 
    Whole antigens are detected in this type of test:
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Coagulase

    • D. 

      Specificity

    • E. 

      Sensitivity


  • 4. 
    This test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody?
    • A. 

      Ouchterlony double diffusion

    • B. 

      Western blot

    • C. 

      Immunelectrophoresis

    • D. 

      Radioimmunoassay RIA

    • E. 

      The Quellung test


  • 5. 
    This test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test:
    • A. 

      Ouchterlony double diffusion

    • B. 

      Western Blot

    • C. 

      Immunelectrophoresis

    • D. 

      Radioimmunoassay(RIA)

    • E. 

      The Quellung test


  • 6. 
    Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in
    • A. 

      Ouchterlony Double diffusion

    • B. 

      Western Blot

    • C. 

      Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

    • D. 

      Immunelectrophoresis

    • E. 

      The Quellung Test


  • 7. 
    Which o fthe folowing is not a biochemical test used to identify a pathogen?
    • A. 

      Acid-fast reaction

    • B. 

      Hydrolysis of gelatin

    • C. 

      Coagulase production

    • D. 

      Oxygen requirements

    • E. 

      Carbohydrate fermentation


  • 8. 
    All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except
    • A. 

      Detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes

    • B. 

      Western Blot

    • C. 

      Cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection

    • D. 

      Signs and symptoms

    • E. 

      The light microscope


  • 9. 
    Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?
    • A. 

      Catalase test

    • B. 

      Gram stain

    • C. 

      Phage typing

    • D. 

      Antimicrobic sensitivity

    • E. 

      Production of gas


  • 10. 
    All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except?
    • A. 

      Motility

    • B. 

      Carbohydrate fermentation

    • C. 

      Catalase test

    • D. 

      Oxidase test

    • E. 

      Coagulase test


  • 11. 
    Sputum is obtained by
    • A. 

      Swabbing the mouth t sample saliva

    • B. 

      A clean catch urine sample

    • C. 

      The patient coughing up mucus from th elower respiratory system

    • D. 

      A spinal tap above the chest

    • E. 

      A throat swab


  • 12. 
    All species of Staphylococcus
    • A. 

      Lack spores

    • B. 

      Are motile

    • C. 

      Have capsules

    • D. 

      Produce coagulase

    • E. 

      All fo the choices are correct


  • 13. 
    The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
    • A. 

      Enterotoxin

    • B. 

      Hemolysin

    • C. 

      Toxic shock syndrome toxin

    • D. 

      Exfoliative toxin

    • E. 

      Erythrogenic toxin


  • 14. 
    All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections except
    • A. 

      They often from an endogenous source

    • B. 

      They typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices

    • C. 

      Catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection

    • D. 

      The organism is coagulase negative

    • E. 

      The organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins


  • 15. 
    Scarlet fever is caused by strains of
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogens

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae


  • 16. 
    Staphylococci can be differentiated from steptococci by the
    • A. 

      Gram stain

    • B. 

      Coagulase test

    • C. 

      Catalase

    • D. 

      Fermentation of mannitol

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 17. 
    Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their
    • A. 

      Cell wall carbohydrates in a serologica test

    • B. 

      Patterns of hemolysis on blood agar

    • C. 

      Ability to produce catalase

    • D. 

      Gram stain appearance

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 18. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except
    • A. 

      Necrotizing fascilitis

    • B. 

      Erysipelas

    • C. 

      Impetigo

    • D. 

      Scarlet fever

    • E. 

      Scalded skin syndrome


  • 19. 
    Streptococcal pharyngitis involved all the following except
    • A. 

      A purulent exudate over the tonsils

    • B. 

      Can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain

    • C. 

      Can lead to serious sequelae

    • D. 

      Is usually caused by the viridans streptococci

    • E. 

      Causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever


  • 20. 
    All of the following pertain to enterococcus faecalis except
    • A. 

      Normal flora of the human large intestine

    • B. 

      Increaingly resistant to many antimicrobics

    • C. 

      Cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias

    • D. 

      Can cause endocarditis

    • E. 

      Belong to Lancefield Group B strptococci


  • 21. 
    Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
    • A. 

      The cause fo ohthalmia neonatorum

    • B. 

      The cause of gonorrhea

    • C. 

      Called the gonococcus

    • D. 

      Virulent de to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 22. 
    All of the following pertain  to gonorrhea except
    • A. 

      A chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry

    • B. 

      It is a reportable infectious disease

    • C. 

      Pelvic inflammatory disease( PID) and infertility are complications

    • D. 

      Females can have asymptomatic infection

    • E. 

      Cymptoms include painfule urination and discharge


  • 23. 
    A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci?
    • A. 

      Nutrient agar

    • B. 

      Blood agar

    • C. 

      Chocolate agar

    • D. 

      MacConkey agar

    • E. 

      Mannitol salt agar


  • 24. 
    A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and shuld be treated with a course of antibiotics and gloulin. This test indicative of
    • A. 

      Group A streptococci

    • B. 

      Group B streptococci

    • C. 

      S. epidermidis

    • D. 

      S. saprophyticus

    • E. 

      S. Aureus


  • 25. 
    Legionella pneumophila
    • A. 

      Requires special lab growth media

    • B. 

      Often lives in close association with amoebas

    • C. 

      Cause fever, cough, and diarrhea

    • D. 

      Causes a severe pneumonia

    • E. 

      All choices are correct


  • 26. 
    Characteristics of all th emembers of the family enterobacteriaceae include
    • A. 

      Ferment lactose

    • B. 

      Are normal flora ofo human intestines

    • C. 

      Produce enterotoxins

    • D. 

      Ferment glucose

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 27. 
    Which is mismatched?
    • A. 

      H antigen-fimbriae

    • B. 

      K antigen-capsule

    • C. 

      O antigen-cell wall, somatic

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 28. 
    Which disease involves transmission by aerosolize water fro whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
    • A. 

      Legionellosis

    • B. 

      Pertussis

    • C. 

      Brucellosis

    • D. 

      Plague

    • E. 

      Traveler's diarrhea


  • 29. 
    E. Coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except
    • A. 

      It only cause ocupational illness in people who work with animals

    • B. 

      It is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated undercooked food, especially hamburger

    • C. 

      It causes a bloody diarrhea

    • D. 

      It is reservoir is cattle intestines

    • E. 

      Some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure


  • 30. 
    Salmonella are
    • A. 

      Coliforms

    • B. 

      Gram positive rods

    • C. 

      Lactose fermenters

    • D. 

      Motile

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 31. 
    All fo the following are coliforms that caused oppotunistic and and nosocomial infections except
    • A. 

      Enterobacter

    • B. 

      Citrobacter

    • C. 

      Shigella

    • D. 

      Klebsiela

    • E. 

      Serratia


  • 32. 
    Yersinia pestis
    • A. 

      Was virulent in the middle ages but is no longer virulent

    • B. 

      Has humans as an endemic reservoir

    • C. 

      Does not respond to antimicrobic drugs

    • D. 

      Is usually transmitted by a flea vector

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 33. 
    Which fastidious genus requires hemin(x factor) and NAD(X factor) in its growth medium?
    • A. 

      Legionella

    • B. 

      Haemophilus

    • C. 

      Brucella

    • D. 

      Shigella

    • E. 

      All fo the choices are correct


  • 34. 
    All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
    • A. 

      It tis transmitted by human feces

    • B. 

      The caused by yersinia pestis

    • C. 

      The patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes

    • D. 

      The patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness

    • E. 

      It can progress to a septicemia


  • 35. 
    Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis?
    • A. 

      Exhibit bipolar staining

    • B. 

      Gram negative rod

    • C. 

      Produces coagulase

    • D. 

      Has a capsule

    • E. 

      Poduces enterotoxin


  • 36. 
    Plague includes
    • A. 

      Septicemic form-called black death

    • B. 

      Bubonic form-buboes develop

    • C. 

      Pneumonic form-sputum highly contagious

    • D. 

      Disease control- control of rodent population

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 37. 
    Which of the folowing is not caused by haemophilus influenzae?
    • A. 

      Bacterial meningitis

    • B. 

      Influenza(flu)

    • C. 

      Otitis media

    • D. 

      Bronchitis

    • E. 

      Epiglottitis


  • 38. 
    Which of the following is an agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid?
    • A. 

      Haemophilus aegyptius

    • B. 

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • C. 

      Haemophilus parainfluenzae

    • D. 

      Haemophilus ducreyi

    • E. 

      Haemophilus aphrophilus


  • 39. 
    Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock. This is due to
    • A. 

      The presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane

    • B. 

      Lipoteichoic acid in the cell wall

    • C. 

      A cytotoxin similar to the diphtheria toxin

    • D. 

      Coagulase

    • E. 

      A neurotoxin similar to botulin


  • 40. 
    Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal disease are caused by
    • A. 

      Enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli

    • B. 

      Salmonella

    • C. 

      Shigella dysenteriae

    • D. 

      E. coli O157:H7

    • E. 

      Enteroinvasive E. coli


  • 41. 
    All of the following are correct a bout Strptococcus pyogenes except
    • A. 

      Humans are the only significan reservoir

    • B. 

      Some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens

    • C. 

      Most strains do nothave a capsule

    • D. 

      It can cause impetigo and erysipelas

    • E. 

      Infection is generally through direct contact


  • 42. 
    Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
    • A. 

      Capsule and exotoxins are virulent factors

    • B. 

      Anaerobic

    • C. 

      Reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil

    • D. 

      Gram positive bacillus

    • E. 

      Sporeformer


  • 43. 
    Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
    • A. 

      Pulmonary

    • B. 

      Gastrointestinal

    • C. 

      Cutaneous

    • D. 

      All of teh choices are correct

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 44. 
    Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus?
    • A. 

      Present in soil

    • B. 

      Produce enterotoxins

    • C. 

      Causes a zoonosis

    • D. 

      Causes foodborne intoxication

    • E. 

      Associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are storedat room temperature


  • 45. 
    The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
    • A. 

      Gastrointestinal anthrax

    • B. 

      Bacillus cereus intoxication

    • C. 

      Botulism

    • D. 

      Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 46. 
    This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis
    • A. 

      Clostridium botulinum

    • B. 

      Clostriduium perfringens

    • C. 

      Dlostridium difficile

    • D. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • E. 

      All fo the choices are correct


  • 47. 
    Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
    • A. 

      It occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds

    • B. 

      It is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen

    • C. 

      Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release

    • D. 

      Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms


  • 48. 
    All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except
    • A. 

      It it due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies

    • B. 

      It is a colitis that is a superinfection

    • C. 

      It often has an endogenous source

    • D. 

      It may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors

    • E. 

      It is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals


  • 49. 
    All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except:
    • A. 

      Gram positive

    • B. 

      Sporeformer

    • C. 

      Contaminant of dairy product, meats, poultry

    • D. 

      Causes foodborne listeriosis

    • E. 

      Bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell


  • 50. 
    Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
    • A. 

      Diphtheria

    • B. 

      Listeriosis

    • C. 

      Tuberculosis

    • D. 

      Erysipeloid

    • E. 

      Botulism


  • 51. 
    Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
    • A. 

      All species are human pathogens

    • B. 

      Cell walls have waxy lipids

    • C. 

      Acid fast

    • D. 

      Usually have a slow growth rate

    • E. 

      Long, slender rods


  • 52. 
    Leprosy is a disease
    • A. 

      Of lung tissue

    • B. 

      That has benn eradicated around the world

    • C. 

      Caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab

    • D. 

      Can be diagnosed by teh Mantoux test

    • E. 

      Caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus


  • 53. 
    What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis?
    • A. 

      Improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin

    • B. 

      Eating unpateurized diry containing Listeria monocytogenes

    • C. 

      Handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae

    • D. 

      Therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile

    • E. 

      Living in close contac with someone infected with C. perfringens


  • 54. 
    Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene?
    • A. 

      Debridement of the wound

    • B. 

      Hyperbaric chamber

    • C. 

      Amputation fo affected limb

    • D. 

      Rigorous cleansing of deep wounds

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 55. 
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
    • A. 

      Found in soil and water

    • B. 

      An opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes

    • C. 

      Highly chemical resistant

    • D. 

      Motile

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 56. 
    Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas seruginosa?
    • A. 

      Lemon yellow

    • B. 

      Red-orange

    • C. 

      Golden

    • D. 

      Blue-green

    • E. 

      Pale orange


  • 57. 
    Leginonella pneumophila
    • A. 

      Requires special lab growth media

    • B. 

      Often lives in close association with amoebas

    • C. 

      Causes fever, cough, and diarrhea

    • D. 

      Causes a severe pneumonia

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 58. 
    Is negative for lysine decarboxylase
    • A. 

      Klebsiella pneumonia

    • B. 

      Enterobacter aerogenes

    • C. 

      E. coli

    • D. 

      Proteus mirabilis

    • E. 

      Serratia marcescenes


  • 59. 
    Is negative for ornithine decarboxylase
    • A. 

      Klebsiella pneumonia

    • B. 

      Enterobacter aerogenes

    • C. 

      E. coli

    • D. 

      Proteus mirabilis

    • E. 

      Serratia marcescenes


  • 60. 
    Isa negative for arabinose and negative for sorbitol
    • A. 

      Klebsiella pneumonia

    • B. 

      Enterobacter aerogenes

    • C. 

      E. coli

    • D. 

      Proteus mirabilis

    • E. 

      Serratia marcescenes


  • 61. 
    Is negative for citrate
    • A. 

      Klebsiella pneumonia

    • B. 

      Enterobacter aerogenes

    • C. 

      E. coli

    • D. 

      Proteus mirabilis

    • E. 

      Serratia Marcescenes


  • 62. 
    Infections caused by staphylococcus aureus include all the following except
    • A. 

      Folliculitis

    • B. 

      Furuncles and carbuncles

    • C. 

      Sore throat

    • D. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • E. 

      Pneumonia


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