Network Design

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Network Design Revision For exam


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Upon what two variables does the data rate of a channel depend?

    • A.

      A. Symbol rate and noise level

    • B.

      B. Symbol rate and number of symbols

    • C.

      C. Symbol rate and Baud rate

    • D.

      D. Symbol rate and bandwidth

    • E.

      E. Symbol rate and signalling rate

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Symbol rate and number of symbols
  • 2. 

    Upon what two variables does the maximum capacity of a channel depend?

    • A.

      A. Noise power and signal power

    • B.

      B. Signal to noise ratio and signalling rate

    • C.

      C. Bandwidth and signal power

    • D.

      D. Bandwidth and signal to noise ratio

    • E.

      E. Bandwith and number of symbols

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Bandwidth and signal to noise ratio
  • 3. 

    In what units is bandwidth generally specified?

    • A.

      A. Hertz (Hz)

    • B.

      B. Bits per second (bps)

    • C.

      C. Baud (Bd)

    • D.

      D. Baud per symbol (bps)

    • E.

      E. Decibels (dB)

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Hertz (Hz)
  • 4. 

    Which of the following does NOT affect the signal to noise ratio (SNR)?

    • A.

      A. The power at which the signal is transmitted

    • B.

      B. Attenuation over the distance of transmission

    • C.

      C. Thermal noise

    • D.

      D. Amplification of the received signal

    • E.

      E. Distortion caused by frequency response characteristics of the medium

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Amplification of the received signal
  • 5. 

    Which is a correct description of the term attenuation?

    • A.

      A. Attenuation is a reduction in signal power over the distance travelled

    • B.

      B. Attenuation is a form of noise and reduces data rates

    • C.

      C. Attenuation the power level at which a signal is transmitted

    • D.

      D. Attenuation the power level at which a signal is received

    • E.

      E. Attenuation is measured in Hertz (Hz)

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Attenuation is a reduction in signal power over the distance travelled
  • 6. 

    Which of the following is an correct description of a type of noise

    • A.

      A. Thermal noise is caused by environmental factors such as switching or mains hum

    • B.

      B. Distortion is cause by other signals in close proximity

    • C.

      C. Interference is caused by vibrations at an atomic level and is always present

    • D.

      D. Crosstalk (inter-symbol interference) is caused by delayed versions of the signal itself

    • E.

      E. Crosstalk (inter-channel interference) is caused by the frequency response characteristics of the medium

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Crosstalk (inter-symbol interference) is caused by delayed versions of the signal itself
  • 7. 

    For what quantity is the unit Baud (Bd) used?

    • A.

      A. Bandwidth

    • B.

      B. Signal to noise ratio

    • C.

      C. Data rate

    • D.

      D. Maximum channel capacity

    • E.

      E. Symbol rate

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Symbol rate
    Explanation
    E. Symbol rate
    fs(Bd) = symbol rate, baud rate, signalling rate or modulation rate

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  • 8. 

    What causes attenuation in copper cabling?

    • A.

      A. The high frequencies used by the signal

    • B.

      B. Thermal noise

    • C.

      C. Resistance and other impedance's

    • D.

      D. The insulating sheath around the cable

    • E.

      E. Interference from other signals in the cable

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Resistance and other impedance's
  • 9. 

    Which of the following is NOT a type of noise?

    • A.

      A. Thermal noise

    • B.

      B. Interference

    • C.

      C. Crosstalk

    • D.

      D. Attenuation

    • E.

      E. Distortion

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Attenuation
  • 10. 

    What two phenomena are the causes of the fundamental limits to data transmission rates?

    • A.

      A. Electrons vibrating and absolute zero

    • B.

      B. Thermal noise and the number of symbols

    • C.

      C. Signalling rates and distortion at high frequencies

    • D.

      D. The Baud criterion and information content

    • E.

      E. Finite bandwidth and the presence of noise

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Finite bandwidth and the presence of noise
  • 11. 

    Which of the following is NOT the approximate propagation speed for the specified media types?

    • A.

      A. Coaxial cable: 2×108 m s-1

    • B.

      B. UTP: 2×108 m s-1

    • C.

      C. Multimode optical fibre: 2× 10 to the power of 8 m s-1

    • D.

      D. Monomode optical fibre: 3× 10 to the power of 8 m s-1

    • E.

      E. Radio: 3× 108 m s-1

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Monomode optical fibre: 3× 10 to the power of 8 m s-1
    Explanation
    Guided Media 2 X 10 tot the power of 8 ms-1
    Unguided Media 3 X 10 to the power of 8 ms-1

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following phenomenon describes how electromagnetic waves are affected by obstacles smaller than the wavelength (such as raindrops or leaves)

    • A.

      A. Reflection

    • B.

      B. Refraction

    • C.

      C. Propagation

    • D.

      D. Diffraction

    • E.

      E. Scattering

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Scattering
  • 13. 

    Which of the following is the gain of an isotropic antenna, in dBi?

    • A.

      A. -10 dB

    • B.

      B. 0 dB

    • C.

      C. +2.78 dB

    • D.

      D. +3 dB

    • E.

      E. +10 dB

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 0 dB
  • 14. 

    As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases what happens to the wavelength?

    • A.

      A. The wavelength increases

    • B.

      B. The wavelength decreases

    • C.

      C. The wavelength stays the same

    • D.

      D. The wavelength changes phase

    • E.

      E. The wavelength's energy becomes unstable

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The wavelength decreases
  • 15. 

    Which of the following correctly describes the two main types of optical fibre?

    • A.

      A. Monomode fibre is made of a single strand of glass, while multimode fibre is made of many strands

    • B.

      B. Monomode fibre can only carry a single signal, while multimode fibre can carry many signals

    • C.

      C. Monomode fibre is made of glass with only one refractive index, while multimode fibre is made of glass with multiple refractive indices

    • D.

      D. Monomode fibre has a single coloured coating, while multimode fibre has a striped coating

    • E.

      E. Monomode fibre has a much narrower core than multimode fibre, so power losses are lower

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Monomode fibre has a much narrower core than multimode fibre, so power losses are lower
  • 16. 

    Which of the following is NOT true regarding unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable?

    • A.

      A. The twisting of the pairs reduces the impact of external noise through cancellation

    • B.

      B. A protective jacket surrounds the twisted pairs of wire

    • C.

      C. Each pair is twisted by a different amount to reduce crosstalk

    • D.

      D. It has a braid or foil shield to reduce interference

    • E.

      E. Different grades are available with different frequency and attenuation characteristics

    Correct Answer
    D. D. It has a braid or foil shield to reduce interference
  • 17. 

    Which of the following best describes how interference is reduced in coaxial copper cable?

    • A.

      A. The plastic insulating sheath prevents interference reaching the copper conductors inside

    • B.

      B. The braiding prevents interference reaching the internal conductor

    • C.

      C. The dielectric between the braiding and the conductor is the main means of reducing interference

    • D.

      D. The twisting of the cable uses cancellation to reduce interference

    • E.

      E. The copper meterial of the internal conductor is resistant to interference

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The braiding prevents interference reaching the internal conductor
  • 18. 

    When Cat-5 UTP is used with RJ45 connections to connect two devices using Ethernet, what is the requirement for successful communcation?

    • A.

      A. Straight-through cable must be used

    • B.

      B. Crossover cables must be used

    • C.

      C. At least one device must have an internal crossover in the interface

    • D.

      D. An odd number of crossovers is required, which may be present in cable and/or the device interfaces

    • E.

      E. An even number of crossovers is required, which may be present in cable and/or the device interfaces

    Correct Answer
    D. D. An odd number of crossovers is required, which may be present in cable and/or the device interfaces
  • 19. 

    Which of the following is NOT not an advantage of optical fibre in comparison to copper cable?

    • A.

      A. Fibre has higher bandwidth

    • B.

      B. Fibre has lower attenuation

    • C.

      C. Fibre infrastructure is easier to install

    • D.

      D. Fibre is more resistant to interference

    • E.

      E. Fibre does not require grounding on inter-building runs

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Fibre infrastructure is easier to install
  • 20. 

    Which of the following is an advantage of the wireless (radio) medium over cabled media

    • A.

      A. Infrastructure for wireless infrastructure is generally cheaper, since cables are not required

    • B.

      B. Attenuation increases with the square of the distance, rather than distance

    • C.

      C. Radio is less prone to interference and noise

    • D.

      D. Since radio bandwidth is infinite, data throughput is generally higher with wireless media

    • E.

      E. There is no limit to transmit power on unlicensed radio bands

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Infrastructure for wireless infrastructure is generally cheaper, since cables are not required
  • 21. 

    What does `broadband' (in constrast to `baseband') mean when describing a data transmission system?

    • A.

      A. The signals are travelling at a faster speed from transmitter to receiver

    • B.

      B. The data is being transmitted at a faster rate (in bits per second)

    • C.

      C. A carrier wave is being modulated, rather than a signal being sent directly on the medium

    • D.

      D. A `local loop' phone line is being used to transmit the data

    • E.

      E. One end of the transmission path is in somebody's home

    Correct Answer
    C. C. A carrier wave is being modulated, rather than a signal being sent directly on the medium
  • 22. 

    Which parameters of the sinusoid equation y=x sin (2 π y t + z) are changed for amplitude and phase modulations?

    • A.

      A. x and y

    • B.

      B. y and z

    • C.

      C. x and z

    • D.

      D. x and t

    • E.

      E. π and y

    Correct Answer
    C. C. x and z
  • 23. 

    Manchester coding provides synchronisation by means of a regular transition in the signal. How are the individual bits (0 and 1) themselves represented?

    • A.

      A. By the direction (positive or negative) of the transition

    • B.

      B. By the presence or absence of an additional transition

    • C.

      C. By the transition being in the same or the opposite direction as the previous one

    • D.

      D. By the amplitude of the transition

    • E.

      E. By varying the exact time of the regular transition

    Correct Answer
    A. A. By the direction (positive or negative) of the transition
  • 24. 

    How many bits per symbol are sent using a QAM-16 modulation system?

    • A.

      A. 1

    • B.

      B. 2

    • C.

      C. 4

    • D.

      D. 8

    • E.

      E. 16

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 4
  • 25. 

    When describing a modulation system as M-ary, what does the M stand for?

    • A.

      A. The number of symbols

    • B.

      B. The number of bits per symbol

    • C.

      C. The number of symbols per bit

    • D.

      D. The number of bits

    • E.

      E. The number of modulation systems used

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The number of symbols
  • 26. 

    How many symbols and in what way differing from one another does a 8-ary ASK use?

    • A.

      A. 3 symbols, differing in amplitude

    • B.

      B. 3 symbols, differing in attenuation

    • C.

      C. 8 symbols, differing in amplitude

    • D.

      D. 8 symbols, differing in attenustion

    • E.

      E. 8 symbols, differing in phase

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 8 symbols, differing in amplitude
  • 27. 

    What does a 4B5B line code do, and why?

    • A.

      A. Compresses 4 bytes into 5 bits to increase data transfer speeds

    • B.

      B. Transmits 4 bits, then pauses for 5 bits to allow other stations to transmit

    • C.

      C. Encodes 4 bits as 5 symbols to increase data throughput

    • D.

      D. Encodes 4 bits as 5 bits to include a parity bit for error detection

    • E.

      E. Encodes 4 bits as 5 bits in order to increase the number of transitions for better synchronisationE. Encodes 4 bits as 5 bits in order to increase the number of transitions for better synchronisation

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Encodes 4 bits as 5 bits in order to increase the number of transitions for better synchronisationE. Encodes 4 bits as 5 bits in order to increase the number of transitions for better synchronisation
  • 28. 

    How can NRZ encodings be described?

    • A.

      A. They generally use two signal levels, one positive and one negative

    • B.

      B. They can use any number of signal levels, all of which must be positive

    • C.

      C. They use three signal levels, including zero, which cannot be repeated more than once

    • D.

      D. They only use a single signal level, which is not zero

    • E.

      E. They can use any number of signal levels, but when a zero is repeated, a line code is required

    Correct Answer
    A. A. They generally use two signal levels, one positive and one negative
  • 29. 

    How many bits per symbol does a binary FSK data transmission system send?

    • A.

      A. 1

    • B.

      B. 2

    • C.

      C. 3

    • D.

      D. 4

    • E.

      E. 8

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1
  • 30. 

    Which of the following protocols does NOT use broadband transmission techniques?

    • A.

      A. 100 Mbps Ethernet over copper

    • B.

      B. IEEE 802.11 over a radio physical layer

    • C.

      C. Dialup modem access to the Internet

    • D.

      D. Radio and television broadcast

    • E.

      E. ADSL home Internet access

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 100 Mbps Ethernet over copper
  • 31. 

    Which best describes the bit error rate?

    • A.

      A. The number of bits expected to be in error in a typical PDU

    • B.

      B. The number of bits expected to be in error per second

    • C.

      C. The proportion of bits expected to be in error

    • D.

      D. The probability of an PDU containing an error

    • E.

      E. The base-2 logarithm of the packet length

    Correct Answer
    C. C. The proportion of bits expected to be in error
  • 32. 

    What are the two main strategies for error correction?

    • A.

      A. Error detection codes and error correction codes

    • B.

      B. Idle-RQ and continuous RQ

    • C.

      C. Selective repeat and go-back-N

    • D.

      D. Feedback error correct and forward error correction

    • E.

      E. Checksums and CRCs

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Feedback error correct and forward error correction
  • 33. 

    In the absence of errors, and with a sufficiently large window size, what is the maximum media utilisation efficiency of which continuous RQ is capable?

    • A.

      A. 18%

    • B.

      B. 37%

    • C.

      C. 80%

    • D.

      D. 100% media utilisation

    • E.

      E. It depends on the normalised delay-bandwidth product

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 100% media utilisation
  • 34. 

    Upon which of the following parameters does the value of the normalised delaybandwidth product over a single transmission link NOT depend?

    • A.

      A. Data transmission rate

    • B.

      B. Typical PDU length

    • C.

      C. Physical length of the transmission link

    • D.

      D. Propagation speed of medium

    • E.

      E. Bandwidth of the physical channel

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Bandwidth of the physical channel
  • 35. 

    What is the code rate of an error detection or correction code?

    • A.

      A. The speed at which errors can be detected or corrected

    • B.

      B. The number of PDUs which can be checked each second

    • C.

      C. The number of bits used for the code in each PDU sent

    • D.

      D. The proportion of errors which can be detected or corrected using the code chosen

    • E.

      E. The proportion of the number of bits of original data to the number of bits of data plus code sent

    Correct Answer
    E. E. The proportion of the number of bits of original data to the number of bits of data plus code sent
  • 36. 

    Which of the following is a form of feedback error correction?

    • A.

      A. Idle RQ

    • B.

      B. Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

    • C.

      C. 2D parity

    • D.

      D. Forward error correction

    • E.

      E. Checksums

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Idle RQ
  • 37. 

    What is NOT true regarding cyclic redundancy checks (CRCs)

    • A.

      A. They are based on polynomial division

    • B.

      B. They can only detect errors with an odd number of incorrect bits

    • C.

      C. They are used in LAN protocols

    • D.

      D. They are used in WAN protocols

    • E.

      E. They can be implemented in hardware

    Correct Answer
    B. B. They can only detect errors with an odd number of incorrect bits
  • 38. 

    What is true regarding simple parity checks?

    • A.

      A. They can detect single bit errors

    • B.

      B. They can correct single bit errors

    • C.

      C. They can detect 2-bit errors

    • D.

      D. They are robust in the face of multiple errors

    • E.

      E. They cannot be implemented in hardware

    Correct Answer
    A. A. They can detect single bit errors
  • 39. 

    Upon what single parameter does the medium utilisation of the idle-RQ retransmission system depend?

    • A.

      A. The transmission time

    • B.

      B. The propagation time

    • C.

      C. The normalised delay-bandwidth product

    • D.

      D. The sliding window size

    • E.

      E. The length of an average PDU

    Correct Answer
    C. C. The normalised delay-bandwidth product
  • 40. 

    What are the two main forms of continuous RQ?

    • A.

      A. Standard and idle-RQ

    • B.

      B. Go-back-N and selective repeat

    • C.

      C. Sliding window and synchronised window

    • D.

      D. Error detection only and error correcting mode

    • E.

      E. Synchronisation and acknowledgement

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Go-back-N and selective repeat
  • 41. 

    Which of the following is an example of an entirely deterministic media access protocol?

    • A.

      A. Reservation Aloha

    • B.

      B. CSMA

    • C.

      C. Token Passing

    • D.

      D. CSMA/CA

    • E.

      E. CSMA/CD

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Token Passing
  • 42. 

    What is the key difference between the operation of Aloha and the CSMA-based protocols?

    • A.

      A. CSMA always has a higher media utilisation

    • B.

      B. CSMA checks that no other stations are transmitting before transmitting data

    • C.

      C. CSMA has a collision detection function

    • D.

      D. CSMA cannot operate in a radio environment

    • E.

      E. CSMA requires that the value of a is known

    Correct Answer
    B. B. CSMA checks that no other stations are transmitting before transmitting data
  • 43. 

    How is a, the normalised delay-bandwidth product, upon which the media utilisation of many media access protocols depends, calculated from the propagation time of the signal from one station to another tPROP and the transmission time of a typical PDU, tTX?

    • A.

      A. The sum tTX + tPROP

    • B.

      B. The difference tTX - tPROP

    • C.

      C. The product tPROP × tTX

    • D.

      D. The quotient tPROP / tTX

    • E.

      E. The quotient tTX / tPROP

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The quotient tPROP / tTX
  • 44. 

    Which variant of CSMA, once it has detected a busy medium, will always attempt to transmit immediately once the medium is clear?

    • A.

      A. 1-persistent CSMA

    • B.

      B. p-persistent CSMA

    • C.

      C. Nonpersistent CSMA

    • D.

      D. CSMA/CD

    • E.

      E. CSMA/CA

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1-persistent CSMA
  • 45. 

    Which variant of CSMA cannot be used in a radio environment, and why?

    • A.

      A. CSMA, because collisions will prevent correct communication

    • B.

      B. CSMA/CA, because collisions are unavoidable with radio

    • C.

      C. CSMA/CA, because of random backoff errors

    • D.

      D. CSMA/CD, because of hidden nodes and the duplex transmission requirement

    • E.

      E. CSMA/CD, because JAM signals cannot be transmitted on a radio link

    Correct Answer
    D. D. CSMA/CD, because of hidden nodes and the duplex transmission requirement
  • 46. 

    What is true regarding the throughput of CSMA?

    • A.

      A. Unslotted versions generally perform better than slotted versions

    • B.

      B. Persistent CSMA performs best at high loads

    • C.

      C. Nonpersistent CSMA outperforms slotted Aloha at high loads

    • D.

      D. CMSA performs best when a is large

    • E.

      E. CSMA always performs better than token passing

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Nonpersistent CSMA outperforms slotted Aloha at high loads
  • 47. 

    Which of the following is entirely a contention-based media access protocol?

    • A.

      A. The reserved phase of Reservation Aloha

    • B.

      B. TDMA

    • C.

      C. FDMA

    • D.

      D. CDMA

    • E.

      E. CSMA

    Correct Answer
    E. E. CSMA
  • 48. 

    How does CSMA/CA avoid collisions?

    • A.

      A. It waits for a random backoff period after a collision is detected

    • B.

      B. It waits for a random backoff period after the medium becomes free

    • C.

      C. It can anticipate when other stations are about to transmit, and holds back data until it has seen these transmissions take place

    • D.

      D. It uses separate frequencies for transmitting and acknowledgments

    • E.

      E. It retransmits immediately with probability p

    Correct Answer
    B. B. It waits for a random backoff period after the medium becomes free
  • 49. 

    If a faster throughput is required of a media access protocol such as Ethernet, what is the problem with simply increasing the data transmission rate without making any other changes?

    • A.

      A. Collisions may not be noticed at higher transmission rates

    • B.

      B. The interframe gap becomes too short for the processor speed to keep up with

    • C.

      C. Hidden nodes are more likely at higher data transmission rates

    • D.

      D. Random numbers required for the backoff time calculation cannot be produced quickly enough

    • E.

      E. The increase in a means that utilisation of the medium will fall unless propagation times are also reduced

    Correct Answer
    E. E. The increase in a means that utilisation of the medium will fall unless propagation times are also reduced
  • 50. 

    What is NOT true regarding the token passing media access protocol?

    • A.

      A. Token passing has a higher media utilisation than Aloha

    • B.

      B. Token Ring is a well-known implementation of token passing

    • C.

      C. Token passing is a deterministic media access protocol

    • D.

      D. Stations may only transmit when they are in possession of an electronic `token', which is passed in a special PDU

    • E.

      E. Token passing is less complex than the CSMA or Aloha protocols

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Token passing is less complex than the CSMA or Aloha protocols

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
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