Z3dx7x Vol. 1

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Z3dx7x Vol. 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

    • A.

      Computer Systems Programming.

    • B.

      Cyber Systems Operations.

    • C.

      Cyber Transport Systems.

    • D.

      Cyber Surety.

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming.
  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

    • A.

      Minimum rank of SSgt.

    • B.

      6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.

    • C.

      Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements.

    • D.

      Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.
  • 3. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • A.

      Communications Focal Points.

    • B.

      Unit Deployment Monitor.

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk.

    • D.

      Quality Assurance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Focal Points.
  • 4. 

    What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

    • A.

      TO 00–5–15.

    • B.

      MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

    • C.

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.

    • D.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.

    Correct Answer
    B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.
  • 5. 

    Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?

    • A.

      At major command functional managers.

    • B.

      At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

    • C.

      At the Air Force Personnel Center.

    • D.

      With career field managers.

    Correct Answer
    B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

    • A.

      Program Element Code (PEC).

    • B.

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

    • C.

      Authorization Change Request (ACR).

    • D.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
  • 7. 

    Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

    • A.

      Program Element Code (PEC)

    • B.

      Special Experience Identifier (SEI).

    • C.

      Authorization Change Request (ACR).

    • D.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC)
  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

    • A.

      Construct career paths.

    • B.

      Manage skill-level training requirements.

    • C.

      Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

    • D.

      Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
  • 9. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).

    • B.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager.

    • C.

      Career Field Manager (CFM).

    • D.

      SAF/CIO A6.

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
  • 10. 

    Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

    • A.

      Segment 1

    • B.

      Segment 2

    • C.

      Segment 3

    • D.

      Segment 3

    Correct Answer
    B. Segment 2
  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

    • A.

      Draft and sign minutes.

    • B.

      Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).

    • C.

      Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description.

    • D.

      Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • B.

      AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer.

    • C.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).

    • D.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer.
  • 13. 

    What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Occupational Analysis report (OAR).

    • B.

      Quality Training Package (QTP).

    • C.

      Subject Matter Experts (SME).

    • D.

      Job Quality Standards (JQS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational Analysis report (OAR).
  • 14. 

    What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

    • A.

      Remedy.

    • B.

      Situational Report (SITREP).

    • C.

      Telephone Management System (TMS).

    • D.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

    • A.

      Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly

    • B.

      Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

    • C.

      Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).

    • D.

      Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
  • 16. 

    Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • A.

      Communications Focal Point.

    • B.

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • C.

      Production Controller.

    • D.

      Commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Commander/Chief
  • 17. 

    Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

    • A.

      Master Task List.

    • B.

      Job Qualification Standard.

    • C.

      Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D.

      Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.

    Correct Answer
    B. Job Qualification Standard.
  • 18. 

    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      120.

    Correct Answer
    D. 120.
  • 19. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A.

      Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • B.

      Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.

    • C.

      Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.

    • D.

      Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
  • 20. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      4.

    • C.

      6.

    • D.

      8.

    Correct Answer
    C. 6.
  • 21. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on...

    • A.

      AF Form 55.

    • B.

      AF Form 971.

    • C.

      AF Form 623A.

    • D.

      AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55.
  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

    • A.

      Job Safety Training (JST).

    • B.

      Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).

    • C.

      Task Hazard Analysis (THA).

    • D.

      Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Safety Training (JST).
  • 23. 

    Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

    • A.

      Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

    • B.

      Resources required to manage and use TOs.

    • C.

      Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

    • D.

      Training to manage and use TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
  • 24. 

    Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

    • A.

      AFTO Form 673.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 22.

    • C.

      AF Form 673.

    • D.

      AF Form 22.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFTO Form 22.
  • 25. 

    Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

    • A.

      Library Custodian.

    • B.

      Flight command/chief.

    • C.

      Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

    • D.

      Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight command/chief.
  • 26. 

    Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

    • A.

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • B.

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • C.

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D.

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
  • 27. 

    Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

    • A.

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • B.

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • C.

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D.

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
  • 28. 

    Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

    • A.

      The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).

    • B.

      Commander/director responsible for the guidance.

    • C.

      The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

    • D.

      Publications Manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
  • 29. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

    • A.

      Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

    • B.

      Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • C.

      Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

    • D.

      Military only.

    Correct Answer
    C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
  • 30. 

    The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      37

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
  • 31. 

    Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      32

    • D.

      37

    Correct Answer
    C. 32
  • 32. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

    • A.

      Wing Commander.

    • B.

      Numbered Air Force Commander.

    • C.

      Communications Squadron Commander.

    • D.

      Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander.
  • 33. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

    • A.

      Misuse of position

    • B.

      A covered relationships.

    • C.

      Non-public information.

    • D.

      Personal conflict of interest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
  • 34. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • A.

      Military Personnel (MILPERS).

    • B.

      Military Construction (MILCON).

    • C.

      Operation and Maintenance (O&M).

    • D.

      Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).

    Correct Answer
    B. Military Construction (MILCON).
  • 35. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

    • A.

      $100,000.

    • B.

      $250,000.

    • C.

      $750,000.

    • D.

      $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    C. $750,000.
  • 36. 

    In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

    • A.

      10–401.

    • B.

      33–360.

    • C.

      38–101.

    • D.

      64-117.

    Correct Answer
    D. 64-117.
  • 37. 

    At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

    • A.

      Approval Official (AO).

    • B.

      Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

    • C.

      DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).

    • D.

      Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

    • A.

      Making authorized transactions.

    • B.

      Reconciling transactions.

    • C.

      Logging transactions.

    • D.

      Funds accountability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Funds accountability.
  • 39. 

    Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in...

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.

    • B.

      Joint Publication 1–02.

    • C.

      Joint Publication 1–03.

    • D.

      AFI 10-401.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 10-401.
  • 40. 

    Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

    • A.

      Air Force Chief of Staff.

    • B.

      Secretary of the Air Force.

    • C.

      Selected major command Command Chiefs.

    • D.

      Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Staff.
  • 41. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

    • A.

      Wing.

    • B.

      Group.

    • C.

      Squadron.

    • D.

      Major Command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing.
  • 42. 

    Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction...

    • A.

      36-2604

    • B.

      36-2803

    • C.

      36-2805

    • D.

      36-2845

    Correct Answer
    D. 36-2845
  • 43. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • A.

      1 October - 30 September.

    • B.

      1 January - 31 December.

    • C.

      1 April - 31 March.

    • D.

      1 July - 30 June.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 October - 30 September.
  • 44. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to...

    • A.

      53

    • B.

      63

    • C.

      73

    • D.

      83

    Correct Answer
    B. 63
  • 45. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • A.

      Monitor.

    • B.

      Scanner.

    • C.

      Keyboard.

    • D.

      Graphics Card.

    Correct Answer
    C. Keyboard.
  • 46. 

    A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

    • A.

      At least 5.

    • B.

      No more than 10.

    • C.

      No more than 20.

    • D.

      20 or more.

    Correct Answer
    C. No more than 20.
  • 47. 

    Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

    • A.

      Simple.

    • B.

      Relative.

    • C.

      Positive.

    • D.

      Absolute.

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive.
  • 48. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • A.

      Norton Utilities.

    • B.

      Acrobat Reader.

    • C.

      Virus Scan.

    • D.

      WinZip.

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilities.
  • 49. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • A.

      High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

    • B.

      Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

    • C.

      Distance Vector and Link State.

    • D.

      RS–232 and RS–530.

    Correct Answer
    B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
  • 50. 

    Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

    • A.

      Network.

    • B.

      Physical.

    • C.

      Data Link.

    • D.

      Transport.

    Correct Answer
    C. Data Link.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 12, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Sean
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