Ground Radar Systems Journeyman CDC 4-6 #1
One shops CDC practise test. Not to sure of #91. Also, if any andswers are off. Please tell me. Thanks
- 1.
What method does an A-scan indicator use to display video?
- A.
Z-axis modulation.
- B.
Intensity modulation
- C.
Deflection modulation
- D.
Amplitude modulation
Correct Answer
C. Deflection modulation -
- 2.
What target information is provided by the plan-position indicator? (PPI)
- A.
Azimuth only
- B.
Elevation only
- C.
Range and azimuth
- D.
Elevation and range
Correct Answer
C. Range and azimuth -
- 3.
What type of scan can “paint” a map of the area, to include areas if heavy rain or clouds?
- A.
A-scan.
- B.
B-scan.
- C.
Raster scans.
- D.
Plan-position indicator scan
Correct Answer
D. Plan-position indicator scan -
- 4.
In a Raster scan indicator, how many vertical scan periods does it take to produce one complete picture?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2 -
- 5.
Which indicator component determines the overall operation of the indicator?
- A.
Data processing circuits.
- B.
Deflection circuits.
- C.
Video Circuits.
- D.
Cathode-ray tube
Correct Answer
A. Data processing circuits. -
- 6.
Which indicator component’s main purpose is to control the intensity of CRT electron beam?
- A.
Deflection circuits.
- B.
Video circuits
- C.
Power Supply.
- D.
Cathode-ray tube
Correct Answer
B. Video circuits -
- 7.
Digital display data from the data processing circuits is converted into analog drive signal in the
- A.
Deflection circuits
- B.
Video circuits
- C.
Power supply
- D.
CRT
Correct Answer
A. Deflection circuits -
- 8.
Electromagnetic deflection is accomplished by applying
- A.
Current through the two deflection plates.
- B.
Triggers to the two deflection plates
- C.
Current through the deflection coil
- D.
Triggers to the deflection coil
Correct Answer
C. Current through the deflection coil -
- 9.
The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)
- A.
Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken
- B.
Keeps the phosphor coating from burning
- C.
Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates
- D.
Prevents collision between electrons in the beam and air molecules
Correct Answer
D. Prevents collision between electrons in the beam and air molecules -
- 10.
What is the leading edge-to-edge edge spacing between P1 and P3 of Mode 3?
- A.
0.45 µsec
- B.
3 µsec
- C.
5 µsec
- D.
8 µsec
Correct Answer
D. 8 µsec -
- 11.
The frequency used for identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) interrogations is
- A.
1030 MHz
- B.
1070 MHz
- C.
1090 MHz
- D.
1270 MHz
Correct Answer
A. 1030 MHz -
- 12.
What information pulses are present in a code train that decodes as 5421?
- A.
A4, A1, B4, C2, D1.
- B.
C4, B3, B1, A4, D2
- C.
D4, B1, C2, D4, A1
- D.
B4, B1, C2, D4, A1.
Correct Answer
A. A4, A1, B4, C2, D1. -
- 13.
An X pulse is present in an SIF code train when
- A.
A Mode 4 reply is being received
- B.
The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile
- C.
The aircraft is declaring a military emergency
- D.
It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position
Correct Answer
B. The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile -
- 14.
Which special response explains 7500 reply?
- A.
Communication failure.
- B.
Military emergency.
- C.
Engine failure
- D.
Hijacking
Correct Answer
D. Hijacking -
- 15.
The AN/UPM-155 radar test set is capable of testing
- A.
Interrogators and associated components
- B.
Radar transmitter VZWR
- C.
Radar jamming strength
- D.
Radar receivers
Correct Answer
A. Interrogators and associated components -
- 16.
What possible input voltage (s) may be supplied to the AN/UPM-155 radar test set for operation?
- A.
115 VAC
- B.
120 VAC
- C.
130 VAC
- D.
115 VAC or 230 VAC
Correct Answer
D. 115 VAC or 230 VAC -
- 17.
What three components are included within electronic combat (EC).
- A.
Electronic attack (EA), suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), and electronic warfare (EW).
- B.
Electronic attack, suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), signal intelligence (SIGNT).
- C.
Command, control, and communication countermeasures (C³CM), suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), and electronic warfare (EW).
- D.
Command, control, and communication countermeasures (C³CM), suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), signal intelligence (SIGNT).
Correct Answer
C. Command, control, and communication countermeasures (C³CM), suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), and electronic warfare (EW). -
- 18.
What are the three primary areas of electronic warfare?
- A.
Electronic warfare support (ES), electronic attack (EA), and electronic protection (EP).
- B.
Suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), Electronic warfare support (ES), electronic attack (EA).
- C.
Suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), Electronic warfare support (ES), and electronic protection (EP)
- D.
Electronic warfare support (ES), electronic attack (EA), Command, control, and communication countermeasures (C³CM).
Correct Answer
A. Electronic warfare support (ES), electronic attack (EA), and electronic protection (EP). -
- 19.
What is the relatively new concept of employing electronic warfare support (ES)?
- A.
To exploit signal environment before an engagement
- B.
To provide a tactically oriented immediate response
- C.
To provide indirect support to theater commanders
- D.
To support long term intelligence
Correct Answer
B. To provide a tactically oriented immediate response -
- 20.
The primary role of the electronic warfare support (ES) is a wartime function that provides the military commander a capability that can
- A.
Prevent jamming from accruing
- B.
Identify all possible interferences
- C.
Isolate friendly from enemy forces
- D.
Integrate with other operational forces
Correct Answer
D. Integrate with other operational forces -
- 21.
Predictable external factors that affect electronic attack (EA) are
- A.
Troposheric scatter and burn through range.
- B.
Atmospheric attenuation and tropospheric scatter
- C.
Victim radar characteristic and burn through range
- D.
Atmospheric attenuation and victim radar characteristics.
Correct Answer
C. Victim radar characteristic and burn through range -
- 22.
The three major categories that noise jammers can be divided into are
- A.
Confusion jammers, spot jammers, and sweep jammers
- B.
Spot jammers, sweep jammers, and barrage jammers
- C.
Deception jammers, confusion jammers, and spot jammers
- D.
Deception jammers, confusion jammers, and barrage jammers
Correct Answer
B. Spot jammers, sweep jammers, and barrage jammers -
- 23.
A decoy is
- A.
An expendable aircraft-like vehicle used to provide deception
- B.
An expendable aircraft-like vehicle used to gather information
- C.
A manned aircraft flown in a different sector to mislead operators
- D.
A manned aircraft flown at different altitudes to mislead operators
Correct Answer
A. An expendable aircraft-like vehicle used to provide deception -
- 24.
That transmitter fix is for synchronous pulsed jammers?
- A.
Staggered PRF
- B.
Coded Pulse Anti-Clutter System
- C.
Manual gain control
- D.
Frequency agility
Correct Answer
A. Staggered PRF -
- 25.
What technique is used in a strong clutter or jamming environment to improve target detection?
- A.
Fast time constant (FTC)
- B.
Manual gain control (MGC).
- C.
Moving target indicator (MTI)
- D.
Instantaneous automatic gain control (IAGC)
Correct Answer
A. Fast time constant (FTC) -
- 26.
The range resolution of a radar set is determined by what characteristic?
- A.
Pulse recurraence frequency
- B.
Transmitted pulse width
- C.
Pulse recurrence time
- D.
Antenna beam width
Correct Answer
C. Pulse recurrence time -
- 27.
Azimuth resolution is directly related to what radar set characteristic?
- A.
Pulse recurrence frequency
- B.
Transmitted pulse width
- C.
Pulse recurrence
- D.
Antenna beam width
Correct Answer
D. Antenna beam width -
- 28.
What is the width if the azimuth scan for the GPN-22 precision approach radar
- A.
15 degrees
- B.
20 degrees
- C.
25 degrees
- D.
30 degrees
Correct Answer
B. 20 degrees -
- 29.
While siting an airport surveillance radar, the approach path, including touchdown, should be in the line of sight. If it is impossible to include the touch-down point, there should be a line-of –sight path at least to the point corresponding to the
- A.
Minimum approach range
- B.
Maximum approach range
- C.
Minimum instrument flight rule (IFR) altitude for the base.
- D.
Maximum instrument flight rule (IFR) altitude for the base
Correct Answer
C. Minimum instrument flight rule (IFR) altitude for the base. -
- 30.
The GPN-22 precision approach radar accuracy is impaired when the setback distance is more than
- A.
1000
- B.
3000
- C.
5000
- D.
6000
Correct Answer
D. 6000 -
- 31.
The most commonly used and normally maintenance free reflecter used for the used for the GPN-22 precision approach radar is the
- A.
Moving target indicator reflector
- B.
Center-line reflector
- C.
Reference reflector
- D.
Bracket reflector
Correct Answer
C. Reference reflector -
- 32.
In the GPN-22 precision approach radar frequency diversity is used in the scan mode to eliminate
- A.
Weather returns
- B.
Large target fluctuations only
- C.
Large target fluctuations and weather returns
- D.
Large target fluctuations and provide target enhancement
Correct Answer
D. Large target fluctuations and provide target enhancement -
- 33.
In the GPN-22 precision approach radar, the coherent and non-coherent input signal data converter is
- A.
Unipolar video
- B.
Bipolar video
- C.
Canceled unipolar video
- D.
Canceled bipolar video
Correct Answer
B. Bipolar video -
- 34.
Once a track is established in the GPN-22 precision approach radar, what device uses error data obtain from the received signal predict where the target will be during the next track interval
- A.
Target data computer (TDC)
- B.
Signal data computer (SDC)
- C.
Computer data entry module (CDEM)
- D.
Antenna beam position control (ABPCU)
Correct Answer
A. Target data computer (TDC) -
- 35.
How many narrow band filters does GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
- A.
24
- B.
37
- C.
74
- D.
137
Correct Answer
A. 24 -
- 36.
During the target tracking cycle, in the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR) employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
Correct Answer
D. 6 -
- 37.
At what interval does the target data computer (TDC) perform system fault monitoring?
- A.
Every PRT
- B.
Once every 2 seconds
- C.
Once per track interval
- D.
At beam interrupt signal time
Correct Answer
B. Once every 2 seconds -
- 38.
In the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR), what are the three modes of operation with respect to the data loop operation?
- A.
Command, input, and output
- B.
Command, open-loop, closed-loop
- C.
Diagnostic, operational, coherent
- D.
Data point, closed-loop, self-test
Correct Answer
A. Command, input, and output -
- 39.
The data loop interface logic circuitry used in each of the subsystem is commonly called
- A.
One’s component
- B.
Repeater logic
- C.
Closed-loop
- D.
Open-loop
Correct Answer
B. Repeater logic -
- 40.
Which if the following is not part of the siting info requested ny the target data computer ftom the computer data entry(CDE)?
- A.
Safety zone
- B.
Elevation angle
- C.
Distance to taxiway
- D.
Distance to touchdown
Correct Answer
C. Distance to taxiway -
- 41.
The operator collects what type if data for Acquisition word by positioning the trackball symbol to lead the target return slightly
- A.
Azimuth and range
- B.
Range only
- C.
Range and elevation
- D.
Elevation only
Correct Answer
C. Range and elevation -
- 42.
What is the time duration of the local oscillator (LO) chirp
- A.
.5 microseconds
- B.
1
- C.
1.3
- D.
1.5
Correct Answer
C. 1.3 -
- 43.
The refresh memory provides a flicker-free presentation if the target symbol on the radar display refreshing the display at a
- A.
15 cycle rate
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
120
Correct Answer
B. 30 -
- 44.
What is the original source of the continous wave transmitter drive?
- A.
37-mhz crystal oscillator
- B.
74-mhz crystal oscillator
- C.
Local oscillator
- D.
Stable local oscillator
Correct Answer
A. 37-mhz crystal oscillator -
- 45.
The transmitted pulse is made of two .5 mircoseconds pulses, separated in frequency by
- A.
120 mhz
- B.
74
- C.
37
- D.
24
Correct Answer
C. 37 -
- 46.
The stabilized master oscillator multiplies the continous wave transmitted drive signal to
- A.
L-band
- B.
S-band
- C.
W-band
- D.
X-band
Correct Answer
D. X-band -
- 47.
How long is the traveling wave amplifier tube(TWAT) turned on to amplify the transmitted RF pulse
- A.
.5 microsecond
- B.
1
- C.
1.35
- D.
1.53
Correct Answer
C. 1.35 -
- 48.
The purpose if the traveling wave amplifier tube (TWAT) radar modulator in the transmitted is to
- A.
Provide voltage amplification and trigger shaping for the TWAT
- B.
Modulate the incoming video for conversion to IF
- C.
Produce excitation voltage for the cathode if the TWAT
- D.
Provide pulse shaping fit stable master oscillator
Correct Answer
A. Provide voltage amplification and trigger shaping for the TWAT -
- 49.
In the GPN-22 PAR transmitter, which fault would cycle the transmitter to the STANDBY mode of operation?
- A.
Traveling wave amplifier tube (TWAT) arc
- B.
High voltage (HV) deck fault
- C.
Standby converter fault
- D.
Airflow
Correct Answer
A. Traveling wave amplifier tube (TWAT) arc -
- 50.
The principal purpose if the antenna beam position unit (ABPCU)and array phase control unit in the GPN-22 is to
- A.
Generate timing signal for the radar system
- B.
Provide predicted target location
- C.
Generate ultra high frequency (UHF) transmitter drive frequencies
- D.
Generate phase delay command to phase shifter elements of the antenna
Correct Answer
D. Generate phase delay command to phase shifter elements of the antenna -
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Mar 15, 2022Quiz Edited by
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