A320 Bank
Quiz areas includes:- General questions; Air conditioning and pressurisation; Automatic Flight; Auxiliary Power Unit; Communications; Electrical; Energy Equipment; Fire Protection; Flight Controls; Flight Instruments; Fuel; Hydraulic Power; Ice and Rain Protection; Landing Gear; Navigation; Pneumatics; Power Plant; Limitations; Minimum Equipment List; Emergency Procedures; Low Visibility; EIS and FMS
- 1.
Which lights go off when the gear is retracted
- A.
Nose and Turn Off
- B.
Turn Off and Wing
- C.
Nose and Land
- D.
Logo and Land
Correct Answer
A. Nose and Turn Off -
- 2.
Which colour code is correct for push button switches?
- A.
AMBER - immediate action : BLUE - temporary operation
- B.
GREEN - temporary operation : WHITE - abnormal position
- C.
WHITE - temporary operation : GREEN - normal operation
- D.
RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch
Correct Answer
D. RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch -
- 3.
"Below the passenger door window is a red CABIN PRESSURE light which ...
- A.
... flashes if there is residual cabin pressure."
- B.
... is illuminated whenever the cabin pressure is greater than 2.5 mb."
- C.
... flashes with residual pressure and slides armed."
- D.
... cannot be seen from outside the aircraft."
Correct Answer
A. ... flashes if there is residual cabin pressure." -
- 4.
"Set on LO, the actual pack flow may be ...
- A.
... HI due to APU bleed supplying."
- B.
... NORM due to APU bleed supplying."
- C.
... HI due to air conditioning temperature demands."
- D.
... NORM or HI due to single ack operation."
Correct Answer
A. ... HI due to APU bleed supplying." -
- 5.
"The MAN V/S CTL switch is ...
- A.
...operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve."
- B.
... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve."
- C.
... operative in the MAN pressurisation mofe: - hold up to OPEN the safety valve."
- D.
... inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON."
Correct Answer
B. ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve." -
- 6.
What is displayed on the COND S.D. if the primary channel of the Zone Controller has failed?
- A.
"ALTN MODE"
- B.
"PACK REG"
- C.
Double crosses ( XX )
- D.
"TRIM AIR VALVE FAULT"
Correct Answer
A. "ALTN MODE" -
- 7.
What are the Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler used for?
- A.
Initial cooling of air after entering the pack.
- B.
Cooling H.P. air only.
- C.
Cooling bleed air in accordance with pack demands.
- D.
Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.
Correct Answer
D. Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃. -
- 8.
The Trim Air Valves:
- A.
Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.
- B.
Adjusts temperature by adding cold air.
- C.
Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.
- D.
Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.
Correct Answer
A. Are electrically controlled by the zone controller. -
- 9.
With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be?
- A.
LO or NORM or HI.
- B.
Always NORM.
- C.
NORM or HI.
- D.
NORM or LO.
Correct Answer
C. NORM or HI. -
- 10.
The Avionics Vent System has two "conditions" - GROUND and FLIGHT. When does the transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occur?
- A.
After second engine start.
- B.
At lift-off.
- C.
At 100 kts. on the take-off roll.
- D.
When the thrust is set for take-off.
Correct Answer
D. When the thrust is set for take-off. -
- 11.
Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true?
- A.
ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]
- B.
ATHR in white - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]
- C.
ATHR in blue - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) ]
- D.
ATHR in white - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA) ]
Correct Answer
A. ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ] -
- 12.
When can both Autopilots be engaged at the same time?
- A.
After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.
- B.
After APPR is armed on the FCU.
- C.
After LOC capture.
- D.
After G/S capture.
Correct Answer
B. After APPR is armed on the FCU. -
- 13.
The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped . Why is this?
- A.
The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.
- B.
The Air Intake Flap failing to close.
- C.
A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns.
- D.
A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).
Correct Answer
C. A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns. -
- 14.
"The APU may be started ...
- A.
... at or below 35,000 feet only."
- B.
... at or below 25,000 feet only."
- C.
... at or below 300 knots only."
- D.
...throughout the normal flight envelope."
Correct Answer
D. ...throughout the normal flight envelope." -
- 15.
What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on?
- A.
The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately
- B.
The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open.
- C.
The APU Fuel Pump will operate.
- D.
The APU Intake Flap opens.
Correct Answer
D. The APU Intake Flap opens. -
- 16.
What does the AVAIL light on the START switch indicate?
- A.
APU starter disengagement.
- B.
APU electrical power can be used.
- C.
N speed greater than 75%
- D.
ECB power-up check is satisfactory.
Correct Answer
B. APU electrical power can be used. -
- 17.
When does the APU starter engage?
- A.
When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.
- B.
When the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i.
- C.
When the MASTER SW is pressed on.
- D.
When the START SW is pressed on.
Correct Answer
A. When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on. -
- 18.
On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?
- A.
The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS.
- B.
The Captain's ACP has failed.
- C.
The Captain's loudspeaker has failed.
- D.
Both RMPs have failed.
Correct Answer
B. The Captain's ACP has failed. -
- 19.
For the ACP, which is true?
- A.
The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.
- B.
The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers.
- C.
The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3
- D.
The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.
Correct Answer
D. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights. -
- 20.
On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?
- A.
Failure of the associated transmitter.
- B.
Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver.
- C.
SELCAL operation only.
- D.
SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.
Correct Answer
D. SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin. -
- 21.
What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails?
- A.
Switch it off : use ACP 2
- B.
Switch it off : use RMP 3 only.
- C.
Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2.
- D.
Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)
Correct Answer
C. Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2. -
- 22.
Which is true of the AC ESS Bus in the event of an AC BUS 1 FAULT?
- A.
It cannot be powered.
- B.
It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected.
- C.
It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2.
- D.
It will be powered by the emergency generator.
Correct Answer
B. It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected. -
- 23.
What is the effect of selecting the GEN1 LINE to OFF?
- A.
Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS.
- B.
GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS.
- C.
GEN 1 is de-energised.
- D.
GEN 1 is line contactor opens.
Correct Answer
D. GEN 1 is line contactor opens. -
- 24.
What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid loss), the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?
- A.
The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System.
- B.
The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT.
- C.
The RAT will not deploy.
- D.
The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.
Correct Answer
D. The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate. -
- 25.
The aircraft is on the chocks. All sources (Engine, APU and External Power) are ON. Which of the following is true?
- A.
The External Power is supplying the network.
- B.
If the Engines are shut down, the APU will supply the network.
- C.
If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network.
- D.
If the APU is shut down, the External Power will supply the network.
Correct Answer
C. If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network. -
- 26.
Which conditions will cause the Cabin Signs and Lighting to illuminate?
- A.
Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switch positions.
- B.
Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.
- C.
Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM.
- D.
If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.
Correct Answer
A. Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switch positions. -
- 27.
What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?
- A.
Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.
- B.
20 minutes.
- C.
15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.
- D.
15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.
Correct Answer
C. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat. -
- 28.
If, on opening a door with the slide armed, the slide does not auto-inflate, what are the correct actions?
- A.
Close the door and use another exit.
- B.
Manually open the Air Valve.
- C.
Recycle the Door Control Handle.
- D.
Recycle the Slide Arming lever.
Correct Answer
B. Manually open the Air Valve. -
- 29.
What will trigger a fire warning?
- A.
Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine).
- B.
Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU).
- C.
Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine).
- D.
Fire detection by Loops A or B (Engine).
Correct Answer
C. Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine). -
- 30.
Following an engine fire, when will AGENT pushbutton lights illuminate?
- A.
SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when squib has fired.
- B.
SQUIB when squib has failed; DISCH when squib has fired.
- C.
SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected.
- D.
SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurised.
Correct Answer
D. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurised. -
- 31.
What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration?
- A.
Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
- B.
Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67°
- C.
Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
- D.
Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°
Correct Answer
A. Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67° -
- 32.
What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot?
- A.
Alpha.
- B.
Altitude.
- C.
Airspeed.
- D.
G.
Correct Answer
A. Alpha. -
- 33.
In Alternate Law, how do indications change on the speed scale?
- A.
Alpha protection is replaced by an extended Vʟꜱ.
- B.
There are no changes : it is possible to stall the aircraft.
- C.
V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replacesVʟꜱ.
- D.
V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft.
Correct Answer
D. V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft. -
- 34.
What happens in the event of SFCC 1total failure?
- A.
SLATS will be inoperative.
- B.
FLAPS will be inoperative.
- C.
SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake.
- D.
SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.
Correct Answer
D. SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed. -
- 35.
When will MECH BACK-UP occur?
- A.
Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder.
- B.
Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with elevator & rudder.
- C.
Loss of G and Y hydraulics : aircraft control with stab and rudder.
- D.
Loss of all hydraulics.
Correct Answer
A. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder. -
- 36.
What does a SPEED BRK memo indicate On the EWD?
- A.
In green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto-retraction.
- B.
In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1.
- C.
In amber - partial or total speedbrake failure.
- D.
Extension of speedbrakes when in excess of Vᴍᴏ / Mᴍᴏ
Correct Answer
B. In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1. -
- 37.
"VFE NEXT is ...
- A.
... the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight."
- B.
... the minimum speed for the present configuration."
- C.
... the minimum FLAP / SLAAT retraction speed."
- D.
... the maximum speed for the present configuration."
Correct Answer
A. ... the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight." -
- 38.
If a spoiler has failed, how does the system compensate for undesirable yaw?
- A.
Automatic rudder trim.
- B.
Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing.
- C.
FAC commands.
- D.
ELAC turn co-ordination commands.
Correct Answer
B. Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing. -
- 39.
A-LOCK (alpha lock) appears below the slat / Flap indicator on the E/WD. What causes this and how do you recover?
- A.
Flaps are locked in Config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the flaps.
- B.
Slats and Flaps are locked in Config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats and flaps.
- C.
Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap lever to retract the slats.
- D.
Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to retract the slats.
Correct Answer
D. Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to retract the slats. -
- 40.
In normal flight, what does sidestick deflection demand?
- A.
Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll.
- B.
Load factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll.
- C.
Rate of pitch change, and 67° bank at full roll demand.
- D.
A pitch attitude, and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank.
Correct Answer
A. Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll. -
- 41.
A/C on GND - Flap Lever Position 1
- A.
SLATS are 2 FLAPS are 1
- B.
SLATS are 0 FLAPS are 1
- C.
SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1
- D.
SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 0
Correct Answer
C. SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1 -
- 42.
In Alternate LAW, which of the following statements is true?
- A.
High Speed Protection will prevent an overspeed.
- B.
Alpha Floor will prevent the aircraft being stalled.
- C.
Low Speed Stability will prevent the aircraft being stalled.
- D.
It is possible to stall the aircraft.
Correct Answer
D. It is possible to stall the aircraft. -
- 43.
During acceleration on initial climb-out (Config. 1 + F) with no movement of the flap handle, what will happen?
- A.
The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.
- B.
The SLATS will auto-retract at 210 kts.
- C.
The FLAPS and SLATS will retract at 210 kts.
- D.
An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts.
Correct Answer
A. The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts. -
- 44.
If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, which of the following statements is true?
- A.
The last pilot to press a button has priority.
- B.
They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally.
- C.
Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight.
- D.
After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.
Correct Answer
A. The last pilot to press a button has priority. -
- 45.
On the FLT CTL SD the ailerons have two neutral indications. Why is this?
- A.
To show the tolerances when LAF is operating.
- B.
To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative.
- C.
One for clean, one for slats extended (Aileron droop).
- D.
One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop).
Correct Answer
D. One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop). -
- 46.
If (autopilot / autothrust off) a bank angle of 45° is exceeded; what happens?
- A.
The Flight Director (only) is no longer displayed.
- B.
The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed.
- C.
The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.
- D.
The aircraft goes into Alternate law.
Correct Answer
C. The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed. -
- 47.
Regarding the Sidestick Priority Lights on the Glareshield, which is true?
- A.
A red arrow will always be accompanied by a green light.
- B.
A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light.
- C.
A red arrow and a green light may be illuminated together on the Captain's side of the glareshield.
- D.
A red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick.
Correct Answer
B. A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light. -
- 48.
What does "F" speed represent at take-off on the IAS strip?
- A.
Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1.
- B.
Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3.
- C.
Minimum speed for present flap setting.
- D.
Minimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.
Correct Answer
A. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1. -
- 49.
What information is given at top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode?
- A.
Raw Data from a tuned VOR.
- B.
Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint.
- C.
Flight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint.
- D.
Track and Groundspeed.
Correct Answer
B. Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint. -
- 50.
After T/O, when does SRS (FMA) change to CLB?
- A.
When the thrust levers are placed in the climb detent.
- B.
After SLAT retraction.
- C.
When passing acceleration altitude.
- D.
When passing thrust reduction altitude.
Correct Answer
C. When passing acceleration altitude. -
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2022Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 22, 2013Quiz Created by
Javier.morellc
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