E170 Systems
Systems question Quiz using the CBT unit tests
- 1.
How far can the Longhaul version fly with standard reserves left in the tank?
- A.
2000NM
- B.
1800NM
- C.
1200NM
- D.
2100NM
Correct Answer
A. 2000NM -
- 2.
What is the certified Ceiling of the ERJ170?
- A.
30000FT
- B.
41000FT
- C.
39000FT
- D.
31000FT
Correct Answer
B. 41000FT -
- 3.
In case of total power loss
- A.
DC power provide Emergency lighting
- B.
AC power provide Emergency Lighting
- C.
AC and DC power provide Emergency Lighting
- D.
Emergency lighting is not fitted
Correct Answer
A. DC power provide Emergency lighting -
- 4.
In a turn, what requires the largest Clearance?
- A.
Nosetip
- B.
Tail
- C.
Wingtip
- D.
Nosewheel
Correct Answer
B. Tail -
- 5.
Above what cabin Alt will the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs automatically illuminate?
- A.
10000FT
- B.
12000FT
- C.
14000FT
- D.
15000FT
Correct Answer
C. 14000FT -
- 6.
How many service doors provide access for service access?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
Nil
Correct Answer
B. 2 -
- 7.
What is the max thrust of one engine?
- A.
13800Lbs
- B.
13500Lbs
- C.
1400Lbs
- D.
14200Lbs
Correct Answer
D. 14200Lbs -
- 8.
Where is the EICAS display brightness control knob?
- A.
On center pedestal near the screen
- B.
On the right hand glare shield light control panel
- C.
On the left hand glare shield light control panel
- D.
On both glare shield control panels
Correct Answer
C. On the left hand glare shield light control panel -
- 9.
What is the theoretical minimum pavement width required to perform 180 degree turn?
- A.
19m/60ft
- B.
17m/54ft 8in
- C.
16m/50ft 6in
- D.
18m/57ft
Correct Answer
B. 17m/54ft 8in -
- 10.
How long is the wingspan of the aircraft?
- A.
29.9m/98ft 1in
- B.
25m/82ft 1in
- C.
Twice 9.67m/32ft
- D.
26m/85ft 4in
Correct Answer
D. 26m/85ft 4in -
- 11.
The warning message CABIN ALT HI together with a red cabin altitude indication will be displayed whenever cabin alt exceeds?
- A.
10400ft
- B.
9700ft
- C.
12400ft
- D.
14000ft
Correct Answer
B. 9700ft -
- 12.
Cabin zone temperature control
- A.
Can only be controlled using the respective knob on the flight attendant control panel
- B.
Can only be controlled using the PAX/CABIN selector knob in the cockpit
- C.
Can be transferred from the cockpit control panel to the flight attendant control panel
- D.
Is set by an automatic temperature sensor behind the cabin wall paneling
Correct Answer
C. Can be transferred from the cockpit control panel to the flight attendant control panel -
- 13.
Pushing the dump switch on the pressurization panel in the cockpit
- A.
Will depressurize the cabin to a max of 12400ft cabin altitude, and deactivates the ECS pack
- B.
Will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 12000ft cabin altitude, and deactivates the recirculation fans
- C.
Will depressurize the cabin to a max of 12400ft cabin Altitude, and deactivates the recirculation fans and the ECS packs
- D.
Will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 10000ft cabin alt
Correct Answer
C. Will depressurize the cabin to a max of 12400ft cabin Altitude, and deactivates the recirculation fans and the ECS packs -
- 14.
During normal operation, the conditioned air consists of
- A.
75% fresh air and 25% recirculation air
- B.
52% fresh air and 48% recirculation
- C.
40% fresh air and 60% recirculation air
- D.
52% recirculation air and 48% fresh air
Correct Answer
B. 52% fresh air and 48% recirculation -
- 15.
The emergency ram air valve is commanded open
- A.
If Pack 1 is commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 25000FT
- B.
If Pacl 2 is commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 20000FT
- C.
If Pack 1 and Pack 2 are commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 25000FT
- D.
If Pack 1 and Pack 2 are commanded/failed OFF and the altitude is more than 25000FT
Correct Answer
C. If Pack 1 and Pack 2 are commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 25000FT -
- 16.
Which of the following components regulate the flow into the ECS packs
- A.
The Conditioned air Check Valve
- B.
The Trim Control Valve
- C.
The Flow Control Valve
- D.
The fan air modulation valve
Correct Answer
C. The Flow Control Valve -
- 17.
During cruise below 37000FT, the nominal differential pressure is limited to
- A.
8.3 PSID
- B.
7.8 PSID
- C.
7.9 PSID
- D.
8.7 PSID
Correct Answer
B. 7.8 PSID -
- 18.
The CPCS calculates a target cabin altitude for each of the following CPCS flight modes:
- A.
Takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, land, and abort
- B.
Takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and abort
- C.
Ground, taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and abort
- D.
Taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and land
Correct Answer
C. Ground, taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and abort -
- 19.
The Positive pressure relief valve (safety valve) opens independently whenever the differential pressure exceeds
- A.
7.7 PSID
- B.
8.4 PSID
- C.
8.6 PSID
- D.
7.9 PSID
Correct Answer
C. 8.6 PSID -
- 20.
The Cabin Pressure Control System consists of the following main components
- A.
One cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, one positive pressure relief valve and one static port
- B.
Two cabin pressure controllers, one cabin outflow valve, two positive pressure relief valves and two static ports
- C.
Two cabin pressure controllers, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve and one static port
- D.
One cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, two positive relief valves and one static port
Correct Answer
A. One cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, one positive pressure relief valve and one static port -
- 21.
During a normal APU shutdown what services are available?
- A.
Electrics and conditioning air
- B.
Electrics only
- C.
Conditioning air only
- D.
No services are available
Correct Answer
B. Electrics only -
- 22.
Pushing the emergency stop button on the APU panel causes what?
- A.
APU to stop after 2 minute cool down period
- B.
APU to stop immediately
- C.
A red bar to appear in the button
- D.
The fire extinguisher to be armed
Correct Answer
B. APU to stop immediately -
- 23.
What causes the APU to automatically shutdown on the ground?
- A.
Overspeed, FADEC, critical fault
- B.
APU fire, EGT over temp, sensor failure
- C.
APU high Oil temp, APU low oil pressure
- D.
All of the Above
Correct Answer
D. All of the Above -
- 24.
What is the max altitude for starting the APU?
- A.
20000ft
- B.
25000FT
- C.
30000FT
- D.
33000FT
Correct Answer
C. 30000FT -
- 25.
What is the max altitude for the conditioning air operation from the APU?
- A.
33000FT
- B.
30000FT
- C.
15000FT
- D.
25000FT
Correct Answer
C. 15000FT -
- 26.
What actions trip the autopilot?
- A.
Manual trim or quick disc switches activated, column shakers are activated
- B.
The fly by wire system in direct mode, aileron and elevator system disconnects
- C.
A column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 27.
Pressing the NAV button the FMA annunciator displays?
- A.
GS, Flare, NLOW
- B.
LNAV, LOC
- C.
FLCH, ASEL, ALT
- D.
PTH, VGP, VAPP
Correct Answer
B. LNAV, LOC -
- 28.
The Guidance panel provides what functions?
- A.
Lateral and Vertical Guidance control
- B.
AFCS management Control
- C.
Two independent A and B channels
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 29.
Pressing the center of the ALT selector knob does what?
- A.
Activates the Holding Altitude
- B.
Selects a new altitude
- C.
Provides the selected ALT in meters to be displayed on the PFD
- D.
De-activates the Holding Altitude
Correct Answer
C. Provides the selected ALT in meters to be displayed on the PFD -
- 30.
Pressing the backup trim switch with auto pilot engaged
- A.
The airplane maintains the new ALT requested
- B.
Lateral control returns to the previous selected lateral control mode
- C.
The auto pilot disconnects
- D.
Primary servos re-engage
Correct Answer
C. The auto pilot disconnects -
- 31.
Can you reconnect the IDG in flight?
- A.
No
- B.
Yes
- C.
Yes by cycling the IDG push button
- D.
Yes, but is not allowed due to short-circuit in generator line
Correct Answer
A. No -
- 32.
When IDG 1 and IDG 2 are selected off
- A.
The generator is de-energized and the line contractor is closed
- B.
The generator is energized and the line contractor is closed
- C.
The generator is energized and the line contractor is open
- D.
The generator is de-energized and the line contractor is open
Correct Answer
D. The generator is de-energized and the line contractor is open -
- 33.
What does the AVAIL lamp on the overhead electrical panel mean?
- A.
There is a failure in the gourd power unit
- B.
The external power is connected and all quality requirements are satisfied
- C.
The AC external power is powering the aircraft systems
- D.
The DC external power is connected and all parameters correct
Correct Answer
B. The external power is connected and all quality requirements are satisfied -
- 34.
If the APU is available and one engine generator fails, the failed generator is replaced by?
- A.
The APU generator
- B.
The other engine generator
- C.
The RAT Genereator
- D.
The inverter via AC STBY BUS
Correct Answer
A. The APU generator -
- 35.
The STBY AC BUS is normally powered by the ESS AC BUS. It will be powered by the inverter
- A.
After the loss of one IDG
- B.
After the loss of two IDG
- C.
When the aircraft is powered by batteries only
- D.
When the RAT is operating
Correct Answer
C. When the aircraft is powered by batteries only -
- 36.
Each thrust reverser half has,
- A.
4 air driven actuators
- B.
2 air driven actuators
- C.
2 hydraulic actuators
- D.
2 electrical actuators
Correct Answer
C. 2 hydraulic actuators -
- 37.
How many igniters are energized for each engine start?
- A.
One on ground and two in flight
- B.
One on ground and one in flight
- C.
Two at all times
- D.
Two on ground and one in flight
Correct Answer
A. One on ground and two in flight -
- 38.
What controls the fuel metering unit?
- A.
A mechanical link to the throttle lever
- B.
The FADEC
- C.
An electrical link direct to the throttle lever
- D.
The FMU is self controlled
Correct Answer
B. The FADEC -
- 39.
What type of engine is the GE CF34-8E?
- A.
Low bypass twin spool turbofan
- B.
Low bypass turbojet
- C.
High bypass two spool turbofan
- D.
High bypass triple spool turbofan
Correct Answer
C. High bypass two spool turbofan -
- 40.
During Normal engine start,
- A.
The pilot opens and closes the Starter Control Valve manually
- B.
The FADEC opens and closes the Starter Control Valve automatically
- C.
The pilot opens the Starter Control Valve and the FADEC closes it
- D.
The FADEC opens the Starter Control Valve and the Pilot closes it
Correct Answer
B. The FADEC opens and closes the Starter Control Valve automatically -
- 41.
Pushing the Test button on the fire extinguisher panel in the cockpit will?
- A.
Test the engine and APU fire detection system
- B.
Test the engine, the fire and the lavatory fire detection system
- C.
Test the engine and APU fire detection systems as well as the cargo smoke detection system
Correct Answer
C. Test the engine and APU fire detection systems as well as the cargo smoke detection system -
- 42.
When smoke is detected in the forward lavatory
- A.
An alarm will sound and the red alarm indicator will illuminate
- B.
An EICAS warning LAV SMOKE will be displayed in the cockpit
- C.
The flashing amber lights on both the attendant light indicator panels will be activated
- D.
All statements are correct
Correct Answer
D. All statements are correct -
- 43.
Pulling down an Engine Fire Handle in the cockpit will
- A.
Shutoff the fuel system, the hydraulic fluids and the bleed air system of the respective engine
- B.
Discharge the fire extinguisher agent into the respective engine
- C.
Both of the above statements are correct
Correct Answer
A. Shutoff the fuel system, the hydraulic fluids and the bleed air system of the respective engine -
- 44.
In the event of an APU fire on ground
- A.
The APU will shut down immediatly
- B.
The APU will shutdown after 10 seconds, if there is no command shut down through the APU emergency stop switch
- C.
The APU will continue to run until the APU emergency stop switch is pressed
Correct Answer
B. The APU will shutdown after 10 seconds, if there is no command shut down through the APU emergency stop switch -
- 45.
The lavatory Fire Extinguisher is
- A.
Activated automatically into the waste bin when a lavatory fire is detected by the lavatory smoke detector
- B.
Activated automatically when a certain temperature has been reached
- C.
Activated manually from the cockpit or the flight attendant panel
Correct Answer
B. Activated automatically when a certain temperature has been reached -
- 46.
The HS-ACE responds to
- A.
Trim commands from the Backup trim, Pilot trim, Co-pilot trim and PCM trim inputs
- B.
Trim commands from the control columns only
- C.
Trim commands from the autopilot only
- D.
Elevator position commands via the FCM
Correct Answer
A. Trim commands from the Backup trim, Pilot trim, Co-pilot trim and PCM trim inputs -
- 47.
What is the correct sequence of Slats/Flaps extension and retraction?
- A.
Both surfaces move together
- B.
Flaps extend first, while slats retract first
- C.
Slats extend first, while flaps retract first
- D.
Slats extend and retract first
Correct Answer
C. Slats extend first, while flaps retract first -
- 48.
The elevator Thrust Compensation (ETC) function, stabilizing the aircraft around the pitch axis, will be available
- A.
In normal mode only, as it is computed in the FCM unit
- B.
In direct and normal mode, as it is computed in the P-ACE unit
- C.
Only when the autopilot is engaged, as it is computed in the AFCS
- D.
Only in the case of an engine failure
Correct Answer
A. In normal mode only, as it is computed in the FCM unit -
- 49.
Two Aileron PCU's per side operate the aileron surface
- A.
In an active/standby configuration
- B.
In an active/active configuration
- C.
In a control/monitor configuration
- D.
In standby configuration only
Correct Answer
B. In an active/active configuration -
- 50.
Hydraulic system 3 powers which elevator PCU
- A.
Left outboard
- B.
Left and right outboard
- C.
Right outboard
- D.
Left and right inboard
Correct Answer
C. Right outboard -
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
-
Jan 14, 2014Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jan 09, 2014Quiz Created by
Crabinow16
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