3e6x1 V5 Pretest

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3e6x1 V5 Pretest - Quiz

3E6X1 v5 pretest


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (801) What is the single source for Air Force planning and support of combat forces in a time of war?

    • A.

      Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan.

    • B.

      Deployment requirements manning document.

    • C.

      Air Force War and Mobilization Plan, Volume 1.

    • D.

      AFI 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force War and Mobilization Plan, Volume 1.
  • 2. 

    (801) What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?

    • A.

      Advance echelon (ADVON).

    • B.

      Follow-on force.

    • C.

      Initial Force.

    • D.

      Cadre

    Correct Answer
    A. Advance echelon (ADVON).
  • 3. 

    (801) The first aircraft squadron arrives at a bare base as a part of the

    • A.

      Advance echelon (ADVON)

    • B.

      Follow-on force.

    • C.

      Initial Force.

    • D.

      Cadre

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial Force.
  • 4. 

     (802) During a contingency, what gives you a break down of all material that must be moved to the forward location?

    • A.

      Interim work information management system (IWIMS)

    • B.

      Automated data processing equipment (ADPE)

    • C.

      War reserve material (WRM)

    • D.

      Unit type code (UTC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit type code (UTC)
  • 5. 

    (803) Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment?

    • A.

      Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)

    • B.

      Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR)

    • C.

      Unit manning document (UMD)

    • D.

      Unit type code (UTC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)
  • 6. 

    (803) What personnel system is used to generate a departure report?

    • A.

      Deployment management system (DeMS)

    • B.

      Virtual-Military Personnel Flight (V-MPF).

    • C.

      Military personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • D.

      Manpower and Personnel Module – Base Level (MANPER–B).

    Correct Answer
    D. Manpower and Personnel Module – Base Level (MANPER–B).
  • 7. 

     (803) What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in unit type code (UTC) capabilities?

    • A.

      Personnel identification and travel itinerary report.

    • B.

      Mobility requirements/resources roster.

    • C.

      Processing discrepancy report

    • D.

      Departure report.

    Correct Answer
    C. Processing discrepancy report
  • 8. 

    (804) Specific unit type codes (UTC) that are normally eligible for deployment given a certain set of deployment conditions and assuming full readiness are considered

    • A.

      Available to deploy.

    • B.

      Ready to deploy.

    • C.

      Non-deployable.

    • D.

      Postured

    Correct Answer
    A. Available to deploy.
  • 9. 

    (804) Where is unit type code (UTC) substitution rules outlined?

    • A.

      WMP–3 Part 2, UTC Availability.

    • B.

      Integrated Deployment System (IDS).

    • C.

      AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • D.

      AFI 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
  • 10. 

    (804) How many engineering and operations equipment/vehicle unit type codes (UTC) are there?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      14

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      18

    Correct Answer
    B. 14
  • 11. 

    (804) How many members are on an engineer augmentation team?

    • A.

      1  6.

    • B.

      2  3.

    • C.

      2  4.

    • D.

      3  5.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1  6.
  • 12. 

    (805) Which product summarizes a unit’s wartime tasks and requirements?

    • A.

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement

    • B.

      Unit type code (UTC) availability record.

    • C.

      Status resources and training system (SORTS) personnel availability roster.

    • D.

      Deployment requirements manning document.

    Correct Answer
    A. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
  • 13. 

     (805) Who ensures all Prime BEEF team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy?

    • A.

      NCOIC of logistics readiness squadron

    • B.

      Readiness and emergency management flight manager.

    • C.

      Unit deployment manager.

    • D.

      Prime BEEF manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prime BEEF manager.
  • 14. 

     (805) The status of resource and training system (SORTS) is

    • A.

      a system of electromagnetic phone lines connected with modems to the endpoint computer.

    • B.

      . an external management tool comprised of a family of computer data bases and a reporting system to update them

    • C.

      A system of electromagnetic phone lines with multiplexers that are attached to the endpoint laptop computer system

    • D.

      Automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the armed forces and certain foreign organizations

    Correct Answer
    D. Automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the armed forces and certain foreign organizations
  • 15. 

    (805) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the three measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five-point scale called

    • A.

      A-levels.

    • B.

      C-levels

    • C.

      M-levels

    • D.

      P-levels

    Correct Answer
    B. C-levels
  • 16. 

     (806) When must a Prime BEEF courier carry an authorization letter that identifies the individual and describes the cargo they are escorting?

    • A.

      The cargo is vehicles

    • B.

      The cargo is weapons

    • C.

      The cargo is classified

    • D.

      The cargo is munitions

    Correct Answer
    C. The cargo is classified
  • 17. 

    (807) Which document consolidates Prime BEEF equipment and supply requirements?

    • A.

      Designed operational capability (DOC)

    • B.

      Equipment and supplies listing (ESL).

    • C.

      Statement Allowance standard (AS)

    • D.

      Unit type code (UTC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment and supplies listing (ESL).
  • 18. 

     (807) Which deployment database contains the logistics details of each unit type code (UTC) and provides model load and packing lists for each cargo increment/pallet?

    • A.

      Logistics force (LOGFOR).

    • B.

      Standard base supply system (SBSS).

    • C.

      Status resources and training system (SORTS).

    • D.

      Air Expeditionary Force UTC reporting tool (ART).

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics force (LOGFOR).
  • 19. 

     (807) Which mobility bag contains extreme cold weather equipment?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C-1

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    B. B
  • 20. 

    (808) What factor is the most important to reduce confusion when building pallets for an exercise or actual deployment?

    • A.

      Practice

    • B.

      Training

    • C.

      Organization

    • D.

      Qualified personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Practice
  • 21. 

    (808) Where are cargo container keys kept?

    • A.

      With the packing lists and pallet plans

    • B.

      In the deployed custodian’s briefcase

    • C.

      In the Prime BEEF manager’s office.

    • D.

      With the cargo.

    Correct Answer
    D. With the cargo.
  • 22. 

     (809) What is not considered war reserve material (WRM)?

    • A.

      Rations

    • B.

      Vehicles

    • C.

      Subsistence items

    • D.

      Consumable items.

    Correct Answer
    C. Subsistence items
  • 23. 

    (809) Who is the functional expert for their respective area and is essential to the WRM program?

    • A.

      MAJCOM materiel management personnel.

    • B.

      MAJCOM WRM personnel

    • C.

      Unit war reserve material (WRM) managers

    • D.

      War reserve material (WRM) NCO.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit war reserve material (WRM) managers
  • 24. 

    (810) What kind of order does the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) approve and transmit to the supported commander and Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) announcing the selected course of action (COA)?

    • A.

      Deployment

    • B.

      Planning

    • C.

      Warning

    • D.

      Alert

    Correct Answer
    D. Alert
  • 25. 

    (811) Which logistics module (LOGMOD) report, created through the Schedule module, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment?

    • A.

      Movement summary

    • B.

      Hazard code lis

    • C.

      Packing list

    • D.

      Load list.

    Correct Answer
    C. Packing list
  • 26. 

     (811) Where is cargo weighed, measured, and the cargo documentation validated?

    • A.

      Cargo deployment function (CDF).

    • B.

      Deployment control center (DCC).

    • C.

      Personnel deployment function (PDF)

    • D.

      Marshaling yard

    Correct Answer
    A. Cargo deployment function (CDF).
  • 27. 

     (811) Who is notified immediately when cargo becomes frustrated?

    • A.

      Cargo deployment function (CDF).

    • B.

      Deployment control center (DCC).

    • C.

      Personnel deployment function (PDF).

    • D.

      Marshaling yard.

    Correct Answer
    B. Deployment control center (DCC).
  • 28. 

    (812) What are all the Air Force incident management system (AFIMS) phases of incident management?

    • A.

      Prevention, preparedness, response, recovery and mitigation.

    • B.

      Prevention, preparedness, and response

    • C.

      Preparedness, response, and mitigation

    • D.

      Response and recovery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevention, preparedness, response, recovery and mitigation.
  • 29. 

     (812) What type of command would be established if off base agencies responded on base?

    • A.

      Single command.

    • B.

      Complex command.

    • C.

      Unified command.

    • D.

      Area command

    Correct Answer
    C. Unified command.
  • 30. 

    (812) What type of command would be established if multiple incident commanders are managing several incidents across the installation?

    • A.

      Area command.

    • B.

      Division command

    • C.

      Unified command.

    • D.

      Integrated command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Area command.
  • 31. 

     (812) What are the primary special staff positions within the incident commanders staff (ICS)?

    • A.

      Public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer.

    • B.

      Public information officer, operations officer, and liaison officer.

    • C.

      Operations, logistics, planning, and finance.

    • D.

      Operations, logistics, planning, and administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer.
  • 32. 

     (812) What positions comprise the incident commander’s staff (ICS) general staff?

    • A.

      Operations, planning, and finance and administration section chiefs.

    • B.

      Logistics, planning, and finance and administration section chiefs.

    • C.

      Operations, logistics, and planning section chiefs.

    • D.

      Operations, logistics, planning, and finance and administration section chiefs.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operations, logistics, planning, and finance and administration section chiefs.
  • 33. 

     (813) What three functions support the incident control center (ICC) command and control structure?

    • A.

      BDOC, EOC, and UCCs

    • B.

      CAT, EOC, and UCCs.

    • C.

      ICP, EOC, and UCCs.

    • D.

      IC, EOC, and UCCs.

    Correct Answer
    B. CAT, EOC, and UCCs.
  • 34. 

     (813) What communication centers make up the emergency communication center (ECC)?

    • A.

      Fire, security force, and medical dispatch centers.

    • B.

      . Fire and emergency services, and security forces dispatch centers.

    • C.

      Emergency operations center (EOC) and unit control centers (UCC).

    • D.

      Incident control center (ICC) and EOC.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire, security force, and medical dispatch centers.
  • 35. 

     (814) The emergency operations center (EOC) is comprised of how many emergency support functions (ESF)?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    D. 15
  • 36. 

     (815) Checkpoints are defined when creating checklists to

    • A.

      Enable anyone with the ability to follow through the checklist.

    • B.

      Enable them to be sorted.

    • C.

      Show relevance of the task

    • D.

      Management the use of them.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable anyone with the ability to follow through the checklist.
  • 37. 

    (815) What step in creating a checklist identifies the main categories?

    • A.

      Scrutinize the categories.

    • B.

      Revise the checklist content.

    • C.

      Classify and sort the checkpoints.

    • D.

      Format the checklist to serve the intended uses.

    Correct Answer
    C. Classify and sort the checkpoints.
  • 38. 

     (816) What is the primary means of communication when contacting personnel on leave?

    • A.

      Telephone

    • B.

      Message

    • C.

      Runner

    • D.

      Mail

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
  • 39. 

    (816) What must be emphasized when preparing comm-out procedures?

    • A.

      Availability

    • B.

      Standardization

    • C.

      Validity of the recall roster

    • D.

      Early notification of key personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Early notification of key personnel.
  • 40. 

     (817) Who commands CEs unit control center (UCC)?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Support group commander.

    • C.

      Base civil engineer.

    • D.

      Chief of operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Chief of operations
  • 41. 

    (817) Who is responsible for periodically inventorying unit control center (UCC) equipment and supplies?

    • A.

      Material control

    • B.

      Chief of operations.

    • C.

      Vehicle control NCO.

    • D.

      Operations management apprentice.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operations management apprentice.
  • 42. 

     (818) Who establishes and maintains the events log?

    • A.

      Shop supervisor.

    • B.

      Chief of operations.

    • C.

      Operations managers.

    • D.

      Base civil engineer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Operations managers.
  • 43. 

    (819) What sequence is involved when updating unit control center (UCC) status boards?

    • A.

      Update the events log, record the damage on a status board, and report the information to the emergency operations center (EOC).

    • B.

      Record the damage on a status board, update the events log, and report the information to the EOC.

    • C.

      Record the damage on a status board, report the information to the EOC, and update the events log.

    • D.

      Update the events log, report the information to the EOC, and record the damage on a status board.

    Correct Answer
    A. Update the events log, record the damage on a status board, and report the information to the emergency operations center (EOC).
  • 44. 

     (819) What information is included on a damage status board?

    • A.

      Work order number

    • B.

      Work justification

    • C.

      Work priority.

    • D.

      Work order indicator

    Correct Answer
    C. Work priority.
  • 45. 

     (819) When changes are made to the status boards, you are required to report them to the

    • A.

      Emergency operations center (EOC).

    • B.

      incident control center (ICC).

    • C.

      Unit control center (UCC).

    • D.

      inspector general (IG).

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency operations center (EOC).
  • 46. 

    (820) Who dispatches and monitors the progress of airfield damage repair (ADR) teams?

    • A.

      Emergency control center (ECC).

    • B.

      Emergency operations center (EOC).

    • C.

      Incident control center (ICC).

    • D.

      Unit control center (UCC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit control center (UCC).
  • 47. 

     (820) How is airfield damage repair (ADR) status reported to make it difficult for the enemy to determine what is going on?

    • A.

      Using runners.

    • B.

      Using land lines.

    • C.

      Using checklist items.

    • D.

      Using category codes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Using checklist items.
  • 48. 

     (820) How are the craftsmen dispatched to perform expedient repairs?

    • A.

      By extent of needed repairs.

    • B.

      By availability of materials.

    • C.

      By work priority.

    • D.

      By map location.

    Correct Answer
    C. By work priority.
  • 49. 

    (821) Who normally coordinates contingency operation support with appropriate agencies?

    • A.

      Customer service.

    • B.

      Service call function.

    • C.

      The unit control center

    • D.

      The emergency operations center.

    Correct Answer
    D. The emergency operations center.
  • 50. 

    (822) Normally, when are situation reports (SITREPS) due?

    • A.

      At the start of the business day.

    • B.

      At shift change.

    • C.

      At the end of the business day.

    • D.

      At the beginning of the week.

    Correct Answer
    B. At shift change.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 02, 2015
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 18, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Silentwolf4169
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