3D151 Volume 2

100 Questions | Attempts: 2534
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3D151 Quizzes & Trivia

Volume 2 3D151


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The process of condensation occurs when air particles are

    • A.

      Pressurized causing them to move closer together

    • B.

      Heated rapidly causing them to spread farther apart

    • C.

      Pressurized causing them to be released to the atmosphere

    • D.

      Heated rapidly causing them to move closer together

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressurized causing them to move closer together
  • 2. 

    In hertz (Hz), what range of sound can the human ear detect?

    • A.

      200 to 3,000

    • B.

      20 to 20,000

    • C.

      20 to 200,000

    • D.

      Up to 2,600

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 to 20,000
  • 3. 

    The loudness of a sound is closely related to what part of the sine wave?

    • A.

      Amplitude

    • B.

      Frequency

    • C.

      Tone

    • D.

      Pitch

    Correct Answer
    A. Amplitude
  • 4. 

    Noise may be introduced into speech signals by thermal agitation and

    • A.

      Power variations

    • B.

      Black body radiation

    • C.

      Molecular breakdown

    • D.

      Amplitude variations

    Correct Answer
    B. Black body radiation
  • 5. 

    In hertz (Hz), what is the actual voice frequency band?

    • A.

      300 to 1600

    • B.

      300 to 3400

    • C.

      300 to 3800

    • D.

      300 to 2600

    Correct Answer
    B. 300 to 3400
  • 6. 

    Which models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

    • A.

      DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

    • B.

      DMS–100/200 and MSL–100.

    • C.

      DMS–100/200 and DMS–200.

    • D.

      DMS–200 and MSL–100.

    Correct Answer
    A. DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.
  • 7. 

    Which model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 family switches is installed in compact modular cabinets?

    • A.

      Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

    • B.

      DMS–200

    • C.

      DMS–100

    • D.

      System load (SL)–1.

    Correct Answer
    A. Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.
  • 8. 

    What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100 will support?

    • A.

      30,000

    • B.

      300,000

    • C.

      100,000

    • D.

      10,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 30,000
  • 9. 

    Which type link is normally used to interconnect two peripheral modules (PM) in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?

    • A.

      DS–30A

    • B.

      Digital signal (DS)–1

    • C.

      DS–32

    • D.

      T1A

    Correct Answer
    A. DS–30A
  • 10. 

    What major area is connected to the central side (C-side) of a network module (NM) in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?What major area is connected to the central side (C-side) of a network module (NM) in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?

    • A.

      Peripheral module (PM)

    • B.

      Control node (CN)

    • C.

      Central control

    • D.

      Message controller (MC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Central control
  • 11. 

    What is the mounting bracket called on which transmission or switching equipment is mounted in a Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?

    • A.

      Bay

    • B.

      Card

    • C.

      Frame

    • D.

      Shelf

    Correct Answer
    A. Bay
  • 12. 

    What contains bays of the same functional equipment?

    • A.

      Shelf

    • B.

      Card

    • C.

      Bay

    • D.

      Frame

    Correct Answer
    D. Frame
  • 13. 

    Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS) component uses 16–bit Motorola 68000 or 8bit Intel microprocessors?

    • A.

      A peripheral module’s (PM) peripheral processor (PP)

    • B.

      The computing module’s (CM) central processing unit (CPU)

    • C.

      A device controller

    • D.

      The network message controller

    Correct Answer
    A. A peripheral module’s (PM) peripheral processor (PP)
  • 14. 

    How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS) 30 speech link carry?

    • A.

      32

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      36

    • D.

      34

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
  • 15. 

    Up to how many duplicated digital signals (DS)–30 links are used to connect a line group controller (LGC) to the network module (NM)?

    • A.

      16

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 16
  • 16. 

    What type of digital signal (DS) links are used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Core and the DMS-Bus?

    • A.

      512

    • B.

      30A

    • C.

      1

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    A. 512
  • 17. 

    How many inter message switch links (IMSL) can be configured in a SuperNode?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
  • 18. 

    Where are the system clocks located within the SuperNode?

    • A.

      Network module (NM)

    • B.

      Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Bus

    • C.

      Peripheral module (PM)

    • D.

      DMS-Core

    Correct Answer
    C. Peripheral module (PM)
  • 19. 

    What type of digital signal (DS) protocol is used as a message carrier between the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Bus and the network modules (NM) and input/output controller (IOC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      512

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    D. 30
  • 20. 

    Where are the DMS-Core and DMS-Bus housed?

    • A.

      Line trunk controller (LTC)

    • B.

      Multipoint control unit (MCU)

    • C.

      Multipoint controller (MC)

    • D.

      Dual plane combined core (DPCC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Dual plane combined core (DPCC)
  • 21. 

    What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process?

    • A.

      The analog signal is band-limited

    • B.

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses

    • C.

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample

    • D.

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses

    Correct Answer
    A. The analog signal is band-limited
  • 22. 

    In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized samples into a binary word is called

    • A.

      Band limiting

    • B.

      Encoding

    • C.

      Sampling

    • D.

      Quantization

    Correct Answer
    B. Encoding
  • 23. 

    What is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair?

    • A.

      Pulse code modulation

    • B.

      Pulse amplitude modulation.

    • C.

      Time code multiplexing

    • D.

      Time division multiplexing

    Correct Answer
    D. Time division multiplexing
  • 24. 

    In the time division multiplexing (TDM) process, the rate of sampling must be equal to

    • A.

      The lowest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

    • B.

      Twice the lowest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

    • C.

      The highest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

    • D.

      Twice the highest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

    Correct Answer
    C. The highest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle
  • 25. 

    Each 125μs time period in the digital signal (DS) 30 signaling format (used within the voice network system) is called a

    • A.

      Snapshot

    • B.

      Frame

    • C.

      Channel

    • D.

      Span

    Correct Answer
    B. Frame
  • 26. 

    Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can combine voice and data services over the same wires because it uses

    • A.

      Digital subscriber lines

    • B.

      Internet data lines.

    • C.

      Direct connection lines

    • D.

      Standard telephone lines

    Correct Answer
    D. Standard telephone lines
  • 27. 

    What type of information is transmitted on a Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) B channel?

    • A.

      Signaling

    • B.

      Call control

    • C.

      Supervisory

    • D.

      User

    Correct Answer
    D. User
  • 28. 

    What are the two major established Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) transmission rates?

    • A.

      Bearer rate interface and data rate interface

    • B.

      Primary rate interface and secondary rate interface

    • C.

      Basic rate interface and secondary rate interface

    • D.

      Basic rate interface and primary rate interface

    Correct Answer
    D. Basic rate interface and primary rate interface
  • 29. 

    What is the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) R interface?

    • A.

      Connection point between a non-ISDN compatible device and a terminal adapter (TA)

    • B.

      Incoming connection point of a network termination 2 device

    • C.

      Connection point between a network termination 1 device and the ISDN

    • D.

      Outgoing connection point of a network termination 2 device

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection point between a non-ISDN compatible device and a terminal adapter (TA)
  • 30. 

    The Network Layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides the

    • A.

      Logical links between customer equipment and the circuit switch

    • B.

      Physical characteristics between the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) interface and the network

    • C.

      Actual routing of the signal

    • D.

      Final preparation of the signal before it is routed

    Correct Answer
    C. Actual routing of the signal
  • 31. 

    What circuit board in the REDCOM switch provides two signaling channels and is only necessary when interfacing with an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)-capable switch?

    • A.

      T1 legacy to internet

    • B.

      T1 direct digital interface

    • C.

      Basic rate U

    • D.

      Message transceiver interface

    Correct Answer
    D. Message transceiver interface
  • 32. 

    One of the main purposes of the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) handset telephone test set is to

    • A.

      Insert tones

    • B.

      Detect noise

    • C.

      Insert a signal delay

    • D.

      Verify a dial tone

    Correct Answer
    D. Verify a dial tone
  • 33. 

    What is the frame rate in feet per second (FPS) for transmitting video teleconferencing data on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      32

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
  • 34. 

    What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

    • A.

      Camera

    • B.

      Central processing unit (CPU)

    • C.

      Coder/decoder (CODEC)

    • D.

      Network termination 1

    Correct Answer
    C. Coder/decoder (CODEC)
  • 35. 

    How many channels are used when a voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another IP host?

    • A.

      One, they share the same channel

    • B.

      Two, one for each direction

    • C.

      Three, two to transmit/receive and one to signal

    • D.

      Four, two to transmit and two to receive

    Correct Answer
    B. Two, one for each direction
  • 36. 

    What component of voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?

    • A.

      Gatekeeper

    • B.

      Gateway

    • C.

      Multipoint control unit (MCU)

    • D.

      Terminal adapter

    Correct Answer
    B. Gateway
  • 37. 

    What component of voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) provides call management functions in a defined local area called a zone?

    • A.

      Gatekeeper

    • B.

      Multipoint control unit (MCU)

    • C.

      Gateway

    • D.

      Terminal adapter

    Correct Answer
    A. Gatekeeper
  • 38. 

    How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

    • A.

      Less than 150

    • B.

      Greater than 150

    • C.

      Less than 50

    • D.

      Greater than 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 150
  • 39. 

    What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

    • A.

      Quality of service (QoS)

    • B.

      Remote control protocol (RCP)

    • C.

      Phase-locked loop (PLL)

    • D.

      Forward error correction (FEC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Phase-locked loop (PLL)
  • 40. 

    What are frequencies from 30 to 300 megahertz (MHz) internationally designated as?

    • A.

      High

    • B.

      Very high

    • C.

      Ultra high

    • D.

      Medium

    Correct Answer
    B. Very high
  • 41. 

    The ultra high frequency designation applies to frequencies from

    • A.

      3 to 30 gigahertz (GHz)

    • B.

      300 to 3,000 MHz

    • C.

      30 to 300 GHz

    • D.

      3 to 30 megahertz (MHz)

    Correct Answer
    B. 300 to 3,000 MHz
  • 42. 

    Which of the following frequencies has the shortest wavelength?

    • A.

      1.4 megahertz (MHz)

    • B.

      14 kilohertz (kHz)

    • C.

      14 MHz

    • D.

      140 MHz

    Correct Answer
    D. 140 MHz
  • 43. 

    A mode of operation in which communication is possible between two or more stations, in both directions, using the same frequency, is called

    • A.

      Duplex

    • B.

      Simplex

    • C.

      Hybrid

    • D.

      Half-duplex

    Correct Answer
    A. Duplex
  • 44. 

    What communication mode(s) of operation allows two or more stations to send intelligence in both directions but not simultaneously?

    • A.

      Simplex and half duplex

    • B.

      Duplex and half duplex

    • C.

      Half duplex only

    • D.

      Duplex only

    Correct Answer
    A. Simplex and half duplex
  • 45. 

    Producing radio frequency (RF) energy and radiating useful signals into space is the purpose of the

    • A.

      Transmitter

    • B.

      Receiver

    • C.

      Antenna couple

    • D.

      Transmission lines

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter
  • 46. 

    What type modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission?

    • A.

      Amplitude

    • B.

      Pulse

    • C.

      Phased

    • D.

      Frequency

    Correct Answer
    D. Frequency
  • 47. 

    The ability to maintain a constant output carrier frequency refers to a transmitter’s frequency

    • A.

      Sensitivity

    • B.

      Accuracy

    • C.

      Distortion

    • D.

      Signal-to-noise ratio

    Correct Answer
    B. Accuracy
  • 48. 

    The process of mixing or combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device in an amplitude modulated (AM) receiver is called

    • A.

      Amplifying

    • B.

      Limiting

    • C.

      Heterodyning

    • D.

      Discriminating

    Correct Answer
    C. Heterodyning
  • 49. 

    What component of a frequency modulated (FM) receiver removes the original signal from the sidebands and recreates the audio intelligence?

    • A.

      Discriminator

    • B.

      Limiter

    • C.

      Detector

    • D.

      Amplifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Discriminator
  • 50. 

    What characteristic enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal from several closely spaced stations or from interfering frequencies?

    • A.

      Fade margin

    • B.

      Sensitivity

    • C.

      Thermal noise

    • D.

      Selectivity

    Correct Answer
    D. Selectivity

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 03, 2012
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    DCleve
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