Environmental Sampling Analysis And Monitoring Plan Quiz

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Environment Quizzes & Trivia

The environment is simply the biotic and abiotic surrounding of an organism or population. What does environmental sampling analysis and monitoring entail? Well, if you are interested in the study, take up the quiz below and find out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the difference between the DOD and AF Assessment Models?
    • A. 

      There is no difference.

    • B. 

      The AF model is an “iterative” approach.

    • C. 

      The DOD model does not include a control plan.

    • D. 

      Each process is designed to yield different results.

  • 2. 
    Which phrase most accurately describes the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) Exposure Model?
    • A. 

      Does not establish controls for exposures.

    • B. 

      The AIHA model strives for continuous improvement.

    • C. 

      The AIHA model is very different from the AF model.

    • D. 

      The AIHA model is best used as an initial assessment.

  • 3. 
    Which is not an AFI 48–146 guideline for performing exposure screening assessments?
    • A. 

      Documentation is not necessary.

    • B. 

      A minimum of three samples is recommended.

    • C. 

      Samples should be taken on three different days.

    • D. 

      Samples should be random, collected over time, and from different workers.

  • 4. 
    According to American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA), the goal of random sampling is to
    • A. 

      Obtain data for documentation.

    • B. 

      Produce results via a “shoot from the hip” method.

    • C. 

      Produce a cyclical process for prioritizing controls needed.

    • D. 

      Achieve equal probability of selecting an exposure period in the similar exposure group (SEG) during the assessment.

  • 5. 
    What type of Occupational and Environmental Exposure Limits (OEEL) is “set and enforced by governmental agencies?”
    • A. 

      Working.

    • B. 

      Internal.

    • C. 

      Regulatory.

    • D. 

      Authoritative.

  • 6. 
    A 15-minute time weighted average (TWA) short-term exposure limit is known as a
    • A. 

      Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL).

    • B. 

      Short-term Exposure Limit (STEL).

    • C. 

      Excursion Limit.

    • D. 

      Ceiling Limit.

  • 7. 
    What level of Protective Action Criteria (PAC) indicates life-threatening health effects?
    • A. 

      PAC–1.

    • B. 

      PAC–2.

    • C. 

      PAC–3.

    • D. 

      PAC–4.

  • 8. 
    The purpose of establishing an Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) exposure concentration is to
    • A. 

      Ensure the Maximum Contaminant Level Goal (MCLG) is enforced.

    • B. 

      Determine which Acute Exposure Guideline Levels (AEGL) exposure level has been reached

    • C. 

      Ensure the worker can escape from a contaminated environment without irreversible health effects.

    • D. 

      Ensure the worker is properly trained to understand and avoid Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry (ASTDR) occupational risk levels for inhalation.

  • 9. 
    In addition to being a required mandate, sampling is performed to
    • A. 

      Provide accurate documentation for reporting in DOEHRS

    • B. 

      Comprehensively complete a Conceptual Site Model (CSM).

    • C. 

      Increase confidence in characterizing and controlling potential threats.

    • D. 

      Provide information to fill the “gaps” inherent in HRA data gathering.

  • 10. 
    What type of sampling is being conducted if a technician is using a HAPSITE to sample at a specific time?
    • A. 

      Area.

    • B. 

      Grab.

    • C. 

      Swipe.

    • D. 

      Active.

  • 11. 
    Composite sampling is primarily used when sampling
    • A. 

      Air.

    • B. 

      Soil.

    • C. 

      Water.

    • D. 

      Chemicals.

  • 12. 
    Sample holding times, preservatives, and collection tool hygiene are things that a technician should be aware of when conducting which type of sampling?
    • A. 

      Integrated.

    • B. 

      Passive.

    • C. 

      Area.

    • D. 

      Grab.

  • 13. 
    When developing an Occupational Exposure strategy, the purpose of evaluating existing controls is to
    • A. 

      Determine workforce size.

    • B. 

      Determine if they are effective.

    • C. 

      Determine the maximum risk employee(s).

    • D. 

      Acquire funding for additional Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).

  • 14. 
    You are developing a Conceptual Site Model (CSM) to identify type(s) of data needed. Which step of the Data Quality Objectives (DQO) process is being conducted?
    • A. 

      Step 1- State the problem.

    • B. 

      Step 2- Identify the decision.

    • C. 

      Step 3- Identify the information inputs.

    • D. 

      Step 5- Develop the analytical approach.

  • 15. 
    What is the definition of quality control?
    • A. 

      The broad plan for maintaining quality in all aspects of sample collection.

    • B. 

      The steps to be taken to determine validity of sampling and analytical procedures.

    • C. 

      The specific procedures recommended by the USAFSAM Laboratory Sampling Guide.

    • D. 

      A checklist of pitfalls to avoid when developing, implementing and completing a sampling strategy.

  • 16. 
    Which statement best describes chain of custody?
    • A. 

      Samples must be verified prior to analysis.

    • B. 

      Samples must be traceable from collection through analysis.

    • C. 

      Samples should be redundantly labeled according to 49 CFR Part 172.

    • D. 

      Samples should be sent by standard United States Postal Service (USPS) mailing procedures.

  • 17. 
    The development of your flight’s Environmental Sampling Analysis and Monitoring Plan is based on
    • A. 

      The criteria provided to you by civil engineering.

    • B. 

      The requirements provided by your MAJCOM BE.

    • C. 

      The historical performance of your drinking water system.

    • D. 

      The regulatory requirements for your drinking water system.

  • 18. 
    When would it be advantageous to use field analytical screening methods that are direct reading?
    • A. 

      When you need to confirm indirect reading instrument sampling results.

    • B. 

      When an immediate answer is necessary or time is a constraint.

    • C. 

      When you don’t have access to indirect reading instruments.

    • D. 

      When you are in a potentially explosive atmosphere.

  • 19. 
    If you need to determine the residual chlorine content in a drinking water sampling, which piece of equipment would you use?
    • A. 

      Color comparator.

    • B. 

      Litmus test paper.

    • C. 

      Colilert color comparator.

    • D. 

      Heterotrophic plate count.

  • 20. 
    The equipment that functions as a fully equipped portable laboratory and is able to run about 100 tests is the
    • A. 

      DREL 2800.

    • B. 

      DREL 2010.

    • C. 

      M272 water testing kit.

    • D. 

      Bacteriological water test kit.

  • 21. 
    What type of sampler is best suited to collecting a water sample at various levels of a large tank containing an unknown liquid?
    • A. 

      Bacon bomb.

    • B. 

      Long pipette.

    • C. 

      Handheld dipper.

    • D. 

      Plastic polypropylene line glass jar attached to a rope.

  • 22. 
    Fluid transfer is best accomplished using
    • A. 

      Pasteur pipet.

    • B. 

      40 ml glass vial.

    • C. 

      Cubitaner sampler.

    • D. 

      Whirl-Pak sample bag.

  • 23. 
    The purpose of calibrating water sampling and analysis equipment is to
    • A. 

      Collect as many samples as possible for each water source.

    • B. 

      Know how the water sampling equipment should be operated.

    • C. 

      Ensure accurate results from drinking water sampling.

    • D. 

      Determine ranges for water contaminants.

  • 24. 
    When collecting drinking water samples, in what order should you collect them?
    • A. 

      Chemicals, microbiological, metals.

    • B. 

      Microbiological, metals, chemicals.

    • C. 

      Metals, chemicals, microbiological.

    • D. 

      Chemicals, metals, microbiological.

  • 25. 
    When sterilizing a water tap, what is the percentage of chlorine solution you should use and how long should the tap be immersed in the solution?
    • A. 

      1 percent chlorine solution; 0.5 minutes.

    • B. 

      1 percent chlorine solution; 2 minutes.

    • C. 

      1 percent chlorine solution; 1 minute.

    • D. 

      1 percent chlorine solution; 3 minutes.

  • 26. 
    When collecting potable water samples for bacteriological analysis, you should adhere to all of the following guidelines except which one?
    • A. 

      Never hold the bottle by the neck.

    • B. 

      Always used good personal hygiene.

    • C. 

      Never lay the bottle down on the ground.

    • D. 

      Always flush out the bottle before taking the sample.

  • 27. 
    If you ship your bacteriological water samples to an approved laboratory, what is the maximum time between collection and examination?
    • A. 

      12 hours.

    • B. 

      24 hours.

    • C. 

      36 hours.

    • D. 

      48 hours.

  • 28. 
    If the color of the water in the test tube does not exactly match any of the color comparator standards, you
    • A. 

      Repeat the sampling.

    • B. 

      Record the residual as the higher of the two standards.

    • C. 

      Record the residual as the lower of the two standards.

    • D. 

      Record the residual as the reading between the two standards.

  • 29. 
    Drinking water with a high pH level (above 8.5) indicates to you the water
    • A. 

      Is soft.

    • B. 

      Is corrosive.

    • C. 

      Is a health risk.

    • D. 

      Can cause aesthetic problems.

  • 30. 
    What type of water/liquid do you use to calibrate the pH pen?
    • A. 

      Distilled.

    • B. 

      Deionized.

    • C. 

      Buffer solution.

    • D. 

      Calibration fluid that comes with the pH pen.

  • 31. 
    What test do you use to obtain qualitative information on whether or not your water sample contains coliforms?
    • A. 

      Absence/confirmation method.

    • B. 

      Presence/deficiency method.

    • C. 

      Absence/validation method.

    • D. 

      Presence/absence method.

  • 32. 
    When should you take pH and chlorine measurements of the base swimming pool?
    • A. 

      Before anyone enters the pool.

    • B. 

      During minimum load conditions.

    • C. 

      During the busiest time of the day.

    • D. 

      When requested by the swimming pool facility manager.

  • 33. 
    When is the only time you collect bacteriological samples of a hot tub/spa?
    • A. 

      Weekly during times of high usage.

    • B. 

      When readings indicate there is no chlorine in the water.

    • C. 

      If an illness occurs as a result of someone using the hot tub/

    • D. 

      Immediately after the hot tub/spa has been drained and cleaned.

  • 34. 
    What action should you take if the bacteriological quality of the swimming pool water does not meet standards?
    • A. 

      Immediately recommend the pool be superchlorinated.

    • B. 

      Collect repeat samples from different sections of the pool.

    • C. 

      Recommend to the medical group commander the pool be closed.

    • D. 

      Collect repeat samples from the sections where you originally took samples.

  • 35. 
    You perform heterotrophic plate counts for swimming pools to
    • A. 

      Measure the exact number of live heterotrophic organism in the water.

    • B. 

      Determine the quality of the water following superchlorination.

    • C. 

      Measure changes in the swimming pool treatment process.

    • D. 

      Determine the number of fecal coliforms in the water.

  • 36. 
    What sample media do you use for the Spread Plate Method?
    • A. 

      R2A Agar.

    • B. 

      EC medium.

    • C. 

      M-Endo broth.

    • D. 

      M-FC medium.

  • 37. 
    When you are sampling for solids, what is the maximum regulatory time the samples can be stored prior to analysis?
    • A. 

      28 days.

    • B. 

      24 hours.

    • C. 

      2–7 days.

    • D. 

      0.25 hours.

  • 38. 
    Why are proper protocol and preservation guidelines important elements of a quality assurance/ quality control (QA/QC) program?
    • A. 

      These ensure water data is accurate and useful.

    • B. 

      These eliminate the need for field quality control samples.

    • C. 

      These affect the reporting procedures required.

    • D. 

      These eliminate the need for equipment calibration.

  • 39. 
    Which is a true statement regarding duplicate samples?
    • A. 

      Samples are handled differently.

    • B. 

      Samples are taken at the same location.

    • C. 

      Samples are taken using different collection methods.

    • D. 

      Samples are intended to compare laboratory differences.

  • 40. 
    In the liquid sampling quality assurance/ quality control (QA/QC) process, what is the difference between trip blanks and equipment blanks?
    • A. 

      Equipment blanks contain preservatives.

    • B. 

      Trip blanks are provided by the laboratory.

    • C. 

      Trip blanks only measure the temperature of the blank.

    • D. 

      Equipment blanks are analyzed differently than other samples.

  • 41. 
    It is important to use a chain of custody form because it helps ensure sample integrity from
    • A. 

      Collection to analysis.

    • B. 

      Analysis to data reporting.

    • C. 

      Collection to data reporting.

    • D. 

      Sampling shipment to analysis.

  • 42. 
    You should seal your liquid sample containers because it
    • A. 

      Ensures your samples will not leak during transport.

    • B. 

      Helps detect unauthorized tampering of your samples.

    • C. 

      Prevents unwanted contaminates from getting into the container.

    • D. 

      Prevents your sample containers from being damaged during shipment.

  • 43. 
    If any of your sampling equipment was contaminated it could cause
    • A. 

      Invalid sampling results.

    • B. 

      Skin contact hazard to the user.

    • C. 

      Damage to the sampling equipment.

    • D. 

      No problem as long as the contamination was minimal.

  • 44. 
    Why do you need to use caution when using reagents to decontaminate sample equipment?
    • A. 

      Reagents can damage the soil if not collected after use.

    • B. 

      Reagents can leave residue on the sampling equipment.

    • C. 

      Reagents must be stored separate from any non-compatible materials.

    • D. 

      Reagents can cause inhalation hazards if not used in a well-ventilated area.

  • 45. 
    When comparing your sample results to a standard, what is the generally accepted practice?
    • A. 

      Use the most current Environmental Restoration Program (EPA) standard.

    • B. 

      Use the most current Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) standard.

    • C. 

      Use the most current standard listed in the Threshold Limit Value (TLV) Booklet.

    • D. 

      Use the most current and stringent occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL).

  • 46. 
    What is the proper way to document your sample results once they have been interpreted is done according to
    • A. 

      The applicable Air Force Office of Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard.

    • B. 

      The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) criteria.

    • C. 

      The latest data management system.

    • D. 

      Flight’s locally developed criteria.

  • 47. 
    Water sample result interpretation is conducted by
    • A. 

      Conducting a thorough QA/QC process.

    • B. 

      Comparing results to a selected standard.

    • C. 

      Comparing current results to previous survey(

    • D. 

      Using your chain of command for their decision.

  • 48. 
    Which statement describes grab sampling?
    • A. 

      Sample collected over a period of time.

    • B. 

      Instantaneous sample to provide quick estimate.

    • C. 

      Samples taken must be analyzed by a certified laboratory.

    • D. 

      Samples taken to demonstrate compliance with health standards.

  • 49. 
    Integrated sampling is also referred to as
    • A. 

      Compliance screening.

    • B. 

      Instantaneous sample.

    • C. 

      Direct reading or screening compliance.

    • D. 

      Indirect reading or continuous monitoring.

  • 50. 
    Which is a portable gas chromatograph designed for response situations where “on-scene” detection, identification and quantification of chemical warfare agents and toxic industrial is required?
    • A. 

      Photoionization (PID).

    • B. 

      Indirect reading instrument.

    • C. 

      Flame ionization detectors (FID).

    • D. 

      Hazardous Air Pollutants on Site (HAPSITE).

  • 51. 
    What key indicators are measured by indoor air quality monitors?
    • A. 

      Contaminants, saturation, and air flow.

    • B. 

      . Flammability, volume, and conductivity.

    • C. 

      Compound(s), density, and metallic oxide.

    • D. 

      Temperature, relative humidity, and carbon dioxide.

  • 52. 
    Which is an example of an adsorption device?
    • A. 

      Filters.

    • B. 

      Cyclone

    • C. 

      Sorbent tube.

    • D. 

      Fritted bubbler.

  • 53. 
    What are the most commonly used devices for particulate sampling?
    • A. 

      Filters.

    • B. 

      Sorbent tubes.

    • C. 

      Fritted bubblers.

    • D. 

      Passive dosimeters.

  • 54. 
    Which device allows the collection of respirable sized particles?
    • A. 

      Fritted bubbler.

    • B. 

      Sorbent tube.

    • C. 

      Cyclone.

    • D. 

      Filters.

  • 55. 
    Exposure excursions above the Occupational and Environmental Exposure Limit - time weighted average (OEEL-TWA) should not exceed three times the OEEL-TWA for more than a total of how many minutes during a work day?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      45.

  • 56. 
    This occupational exposure limit is a concentration of contaminants which can never be exceeded during any part of the working exposure.
    • A. 

      Skin.

    • B. 

      Ceiling.

    • C. 

      Excursions.

    • D. 

      Short term.

  • 57. 
    Although the true limits are not to be exceeded, which can be a single sample or a series of consecutive samples totaling 15 minutes?
    • A. 

      Grab.

    • B. 

      Area.

    • C. 

      Random.

    • D. 

      Ceiling.

  • 58. 
    The recommended flow rate of an example chemical is 0.5 to 1.0 liters per minute (lpm). If you wanted to calculate the minimum amount of time you can sample and still meet the limit of detection, what flow rate would you use?
    • A. 

      0.25 lpm.

    • B. 

      0.5 lpm.

    • C. 

      1.0 lpm.

    • D. 

      1.5 lpm.

  • 59. 
    When sampling for vapors, minimum and maximum flow rates are used with a solid sorbent tube to ensure
    • A. 

      Tube is correctly placed.

    • B. 

      Flexibility in your sampling strategy.

    • C. 

      The sample is collected without damaging the media.

    • D. 

      Contaminant will be in contact with collection media log enough to be captured.

  • 60. 
    When determining the collection volume for an air sample, you would opt to collect less volume of air when
    • A. 

      Media collection efficiency is low.

    • B. 

      Media collection efficiency is high.

    • C. 

      Concentrations are expected to be low.

    • D. 

      Concentrations are expected to be high.

  • 61. 
    What item must be field checked but cannot be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Toxic gas monitors.

    • B. 

      Personal sampling pumps.

    • C. 

      Hand-held sampling pump.

    • D. 

      Combustible gas monitors.

  • 62. 
    When should gas and vapor meters be field calibrated?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      After use.

    • C. 

      Before use.

    • D. 

      Before and after use.

  • 63. 
    When performing a detector tube system check, how long should you wait after squeezing the pump to look for the end of stroke indicator?
    • A. 

      Five minutes.

    • B. 

      10 minutes.

    • C. 

      15 minutes.

    • D. 

      40 minutes.

  • 64. 
    When calibrating a Photo Ionization Detector/Flame Ionization Detector (PID/FID), howmany Tedlar sample bags need to be filled?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      One.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Eight.

  • 65. 
    Why is a single “blank” run sufficient as an operational check for the HAPSITE?
    • A. 

      The HAPSITE contains internal gas standards.

    • B. 

      The survey method completes calibration.

    • C. 

      Additional peaks and a high background is indicated.

    • D. 

      Standby mode sufficiently calibrates the instrument.

  • 66. 
    When performing post sampling calibration, use the lowest flow rate for calculating the volume collected because
    • A. 

      It is the most conservative.

    • B. 

      It exploits the device’s capabilities.

    • C. 

      This accounts for atmospheric changes

    • D. 

      It makes DOEHRS data entry the most efficient.

  • 67. 
    Your goal using a direct reading instrument (DRI) to perform air sampling is to obtain
    • A. 

      The quickest air sample possible.

    • B. 

      An air sample from the supervisor.

    • C. 

      An air sample for the entire shift.

    • D. 

      The most representative air sample possible.

  • 68. 
    Blank samples are prepared and shipped along with air samples to
    • A. 

      Measure the effects of temperature and pressure changes during shipping.

    • B. 

      Measure the effects of temperature and pressure changes during the sampling process.

    • C. 

      Determine if any contamination occurred after calibrating the sampling pumps and before sampling began.

    • D. 

      Determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory.

  • 69. 
    How do you prepare a blank?
    • A. 

      Keep an unopened tube with the samples.

    • B. 

      Sample another worker away from the process.

    • C. 

      Open and immediately seal the media in the work area.

    • D. 

      Leave an opened tube in an area throughout sampling.

  • 70. 
    When collecting breathing zone air samples the flow rate changes since you began sampling. As a worst case measure which flow rate observed should be used to determine volume collected?
    • A. 

      First.

    • B. 

      Lowest.

    • C. 

      Average.

    • D. 

      Highest.

  • 71. 
    The scheduled work week has changed to 8 hours per day/6 days a week. Which reduction factor formula should be used to determine the equivalent Occupational and Environmental Exposure Limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA)?
    • A. 

      Hourly.

    • B. 

      Daily.

    • C. 

      Weekly.

    • D. 

      Monthly.

  • 72. 
    After the results from mass/volume concentration air sampling are received you find the results are reported in grams. Before you can use the formula to determine mass/volume concentration, you will have to convert the results reported in gram into what measure?
    • A. 

      Ml.

    • B. 

      Mg.

    • C. 

      M2.

    • D. 

      No conversion required.

  • 73. 
    If you sample for 7 hours of a 10 hour shift and can document that the worker is never exposed during the remaining three hours, you should calculate the time weighted average using which value?
    • A. 

      3 hours.

    • B. 

      7 hours.

    • C. 

      8 hours.

    • D. 

      10 hours.

  • 74. 
    What must you calculate from the sampling and analytical error and your air sampling results to determine whether the time weighted average could be above the occupational exposure limit?
    • A. 

      Accuracy.

    • B. 

      Coefficient of variation.

    • C. 

      Upper confidence limit (UCL).

    • D. 

      Lower confidence limit (LCL).

  • 75. 
    Which would it be prudent to accomplish if the time weighted average (TWA) is already above the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL)?
    • A. 

      Resample and recalculate TWA.

    • B. 

      Compute the compliance factor.

    • C. 

      Calculate the lower confidence limit (LCL).

    • D. 

      Re-calculate the upper confidence limit (UCL).

  • 76. 
    How can the workers be affected if you calculate a compliance factor for multiple chemicals?
    • A. 

      React to each other.

    • B. 

      Attack the same organ in the same way.

    • C. 

      Produce irritation at high concentrations.

    • D. 

      Cause the same illness in different organs.

  • 77. 
    If air sampling showed that a worker is exposed to concentrations of 35 ppm xylene (OEEL, 100 ppm), 20 ppm methyl chloride (OEEL, 50 ppm), and 25 ppm perchloroethylene (OEEL, 50 ppm), if these chemicals have a similar toxicological effect what would be their total atmospheric concentration?
    • A. 

      45 ppm.

    • B. 

      80 ppm.

    • C. 

      200 ppm.

    • D. 

      280 ppm.

  • 78. 
    When considering additive effects of chemicals, the occupational exposure limit (OEL) is exceeded if the compliance factor is which of the following?
    • A. 

      Less than one.

    • B. 

      Greater than one.

    • C. 

      Less than or equal to one.

    • D. 

      Greater than or equal to one.

  • 79. 
    Remediation sampling is conducted to determine
    • A. 

      The extent of contamination before any cleanup is conducted.

    • B. 

      If any contamination exists after a cleanup process.

    • C. 

      The need for personnel protective equipment.

    • D. 

      If there are any hazards to personnel.

  • 80. 
    What are the two types of augers?
    • A. 

      Bucket and screw.

    • B. 

      Trowel and shovel.

    • C. 

      Split spoons and push tube.

    • D. 

      Veihmeyer tube and trier sampler.

  • 81. 
    Which type of sampling strategy should be used when there is minimal site background information available and there are no visible signs of contamination?
    • A. 

      Hot spot.

    • B. 

      Simple random.

    • C. 

      Systematic grid.

    • D. 

      Stratified random.

  • 82. 
    What type of sampling strategy would be used to investigate large sites that encompass a number of soil types, topographical features, or land uses?
    • A. 

      Hot spot.

    • B. 

      Simple random.

    • C. 

      Systematic grid.

    • D. 

      Stratified random.

  • 83. 
    If a soil sample is mixed or blended to create an even distribution of the contamination that is in the soil, what type of sample has been collected?
    • A. 

      Uniform.

    • B. 

      Composite.

    • C. 

      Homogenized.

    • D. 

      Homogeneous.

  • 84. 
    What action should be taken before collecting any surface or subsurface soil samples?
    • A. 

      Separate the area to be sampled into grids.

    • B. 

      Clear the sampling area of any debris.

    • C. 

      Have your sample containers ready.

    • D. 

      Clean your sampling device.

  • 85. 
    It is important to know how a contaminant interacts within the soil because it
    • A. 

      Lets you know how much of the sample to collect.

    • B. 

      Can help you determine the extent of contamination in and around the area.

    • C. 

      Lets you know how deep and how far out from the contamination area to sample.

    • D. 

      Can help you determine the type of direct reading instrument to use to collect samples.

  • 86. 
    What is the major concern when sampling for volatile organic compounds?
    • A. 

      Ensuring the sample is analyzed within 24 hours of collection.

    • B. 

      Properly preserving the sample at the collection site.

    • C. 

      Minimizing air contact with the soil sample.

    • D. 

      Collecting the correct amount of soil.

  • 87. 
    What is a primary benefit of field analysis?
    • A. 

      Completes chain of infection.

    • B. 

      Indicates what equipment should be used.

    • C. 

      Indicates where possible contamination exists.

    • D. 

      Provides pictorial view of sampling area.

  • 88. 
    After sampling results have been obtained, how are they interpreted?
    • A. 

      They are documented in Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS) and sent to MAJCOM.

    • B. 

      They are compared to the selected Occupational and Environmental Exposure Limit (OEEL).

    • C. 

      They are compared against previous results.

    • D. 

      They are interpreted by laboratory.

  • 89. 
    Which of these is not a consideration when comparing analysis results to a standard?
    • A. 

      Ensure the correct laboratory analysis method was conducted.

    • B. 

      Ensure the results are compared to the correct type of standard.

    • C. 

      Ensure all individuals potentially affected are listed in supportive documentation.

    • D. 

      Ensure the correct units of measurement for sample and standard are being used.

  • 90. 
    The goal of a case-control epidemiological study is to
    • A. 

      Estimate the expected death rate for a given disease.

    • B. 

      Evaluate the effectiveness of controls for an agent.

    • C. 

      Understand whether exposures increased the risk of a disease.

    • D. 

      Define the physiological mechanisms between the agent and the body.

  • 91. 
    The reason you need make sure historical data and recent data are obtained and analyzed in the same manner for trend analysis is to
    • A. 

      Identify inaccurate conclusions.

    • B. 

      Increase the standard deviation.

    • C. 

      Assure accurate, comparative results.

    • D. 

      Identify the Occupational and Environmental Exposure Limit (OEEL).

  • 92. 
    At a minimum, the information gathered for trend analysis should include
    • A. 

      Sample location, sample device, worker’s name, analytical result, and SEG.

    • B. 

      Sample location, sample date/time, constituent, analytical result, and selected OEEL.

    • C. 

      Sample method, sample date/time, constituent, calibration information, and worker’s name.

    • D. 

      Sampling device, analytical result, selected Occupational and Environmental Exposure Limit (OEEL), weather conditions, and similar exposure group (SEG).

  • 93. 
    The 95th percentile exposure estimates
    • A. 

      A value above which about 5 percent of exposures occur.

    • B. 

      A range of values that 2.5 percent of exposures are below and 2.5 percent of exposures are above.

    • C. 

      The central tendency of a distribution.

    • D. 

      An exposure value that should not be exceeded.

  • 94. 
    How and why would you develop a time series plot when analyzing environmental health data?
    • A. 

      Plot corresponding data values on a map to identify any obvious trends.

    • B. 

      Plot each data value as a function of time to identify changes or trends over time.

    • C. 

      Plot each data value as a function of time to identify the underlying distribution of data.

    • D. 

      Plot one variable versus another variable from a simple sampling plot to analyze their relationships.

  • 95. 
    Why would you develop a histogram when analyzing environmental health data?
    • A. 

      Provides data values as a function of time to identify changes or trends over time

    • B. 

      Provides data values on a map to identify obvious trends.

    • C. 

      Develop a time series plot.

    • D. 

      Develop a scatter plot.

  • 96. 
    When considering the type of analysis and sampling goal for environment health data, what strategy is used for identifying changes over time?
    • A. 

      Collect multiple samples at a single location over time.

    • B. 

      Collect multiple samples over an area.

    • C. 

      Develop a time series plot.

    • D. 

      Develop a scatter plot.