Z3dx7x Vol. 2
.
- 1.
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning.
- B.
Crisis action planning.
- C.
Mobilization planning.
- D.
Force rotational planning.
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate planning. -
- 2.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1
- B.
Volume 2
- C.
Volume 3
- D.
Volume 4
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1 -
- 3.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- D.
Joint Staff.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. -
- 4.
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
Standard unit type code (UTC).
- B.
Joint force/capability.
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO).
- D.
Ad hoc.
Correct Answer
B. Joint force/capability. -
- 5.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Facility condition.
- D.
Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. Facility condition. -
- 6.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Home station mission.
- D.
Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. Home station mission. -
- 7.
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI...
- A.
10-201
- B.
10-244
- C.
10-401
- D.
10-403
Correct Answer
B. 10-244 -
- 8.
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10-201
- B.
AFI 10-244
- C.
AFI 10-401
- D.
AFI 10-403
Correct Answer
A. AFI 10-201 -
- 9.
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units.
- B.
Joint Planners.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Correct Answer
A. Pilot Units. -
- 10.
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection.
- B.
Airfield operations.
- C.
Force accountability.
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
Correct Answer
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD). -
- 11.
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are...
- A.
Force protection and logistics.
- B.
Intelligence and force protection.
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence.
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability.
Correct Answer
C. Secure communications and intelligence. -
- 12.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the airbase.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Establish the airbase.
- D.
Generate the mission.
Correct Answer
C. Establish the airbase. -
- 13.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days.
- B.
2 days, 14 days
- C.
7 days, 14 days.
- D.
14 days, 30 days.
Correct Answer
B. 2 days, 14 days -
- 14.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission.
- B.
Establish the airbase.
- C.
Operate the airbase.
- D.
Robust the airbase.
Correct Answer
D. Robust the airbase. -
- 15.
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL.
- B.
Travis AFB, CA.
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO.
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Correct Answer
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. -
- 16.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O-4
- B.
O-5
- C.
O-6
- D.
O-7
Correct Answer
C. O-6 -
- 17.
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A.
Command and control.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Robust the airbase.
- D.
Open the airbase.
Correct Answer
A. Command and control. -
- 18.
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (KM).
- B.
4 km.
- C.
8 km.
- D.
16 km.
Correct Answer
D. 16 km. -
- 19.
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy.
- B.
Combat plans.
- C.
Combat support.
- D.
Combat operations.
Correct Answer
C. Combat support. -
- 20.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ–9 Reaper.
- B.
RQ-11B Raven.
- C.
MQ–1B Predator.
- D.
RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Correct Answer
B. RQ-11B Raven. -
- 21.
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. -
- 22.
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
Correct Answer
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). -
- 23.
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
- A.
1942
- B.
1954
- C.
1988
- D.
1998
Correct Answer
D. 1998 -
- 24.
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- C.
MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- D.
MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00–33A–1001. -
- 25.
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control.
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control.
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control.
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support.
Correct Answer
C. Plan, execute, close, and control. -
- 26.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Processes.
- B.
Priorities.
- C.
Requirements.
- D.
Technical solutions.
Correct Answer
C. Requirements. -
- 27.
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost management plan.
- B.
Allied support plan.
- C.
Technical plan.
- D.
Material plan.
Correct Answer
A. Cost management plan. -
- 28.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as...
- A.
The status.
- B.
A milestone.
- C.
A deliverable.
- D.
The final result.
Correct Answer
C. A deliverable. -
- 29.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
Status request.
- B.
Defect repairs.
- C.
Preventive action.
- D.
Corrective action.
Correct Answer
B. Defect repairs. -
- 30.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 745.
- B.
AFTO Form 747.
- C.
AFTO Form 749.
- D.
AF Form 1747.
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 747. -
- 31.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Funding.
- B.
Technical solution.
- C.
Requirements management plan.
- D.
Answers, guidance, and education.
Correct Answer
D. Answers, guidance, and education. -
- 32.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed...
- A.
Major.
- B.
Minor.
- C.
Major and minor.
- D.
Major and critical.
Correct Answer
A. Major. -
- 33.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
- A.
Follow-up.
- B.
Controlling.
- C.
Organization.
- D.
Documenting.
Correct Answer
A. Follow-up. -
- 34.
Changes are requested during a project using an...
- A.
AF Form 1146.
- B.
AF Form 1747.
- C.
AFTO Form 46.
- D.
AFTO Form 47.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1146. -
- 35.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Project manager.
- C.
Communication squadron.
- D.
Implementing organization.
Correct Answer
D. Implementing organization. -
- 36.
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Project manager.
- C.
Program action officer.
- D.
Program action monitor.
Correct Answer
C. Program action officer. -
- 37.
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
- A.
Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
- B.
Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- C.
Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- D.
Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
Correct Answer
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. -
- 38.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service improvement.
- B.
Service transition.
- C.
Service strategy.
- D.
Service design.
Correct Answer
C. Service strategy. -
- 39.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
- A.
Service design.
- B.
Service strategy.
- C.
Service transition.
- D.
Service operation.
Correct Answer
C. Service transition. -
- 40.
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2 -
- 41.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A.
AFI 33–115.
- B.
AFI 33–150.
- C.
TO 00–33D–3001.
- D.
TO 00–33D–3004.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33–150. -
- 42.
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
Work orders.
- B.
Trouble tickets.
- C.
Infrastructure requirements.
- D.
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Correct Answer
A. Work orders. -
- 43.
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
- A.
Organic.
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Inorganic.
- D.
Self-Help.
Correct Answer
D. Self-Help. -
- 44.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
- A.
TO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
TO 00–33A–3003.
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–33A–3003. -
- 45.
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A.
Base Communications Systems Officer.
- B.
Affected Work Center.
- C.
Base Civil Engineer.
- D.
Project Managers.
Correct Answer
C. Base Civil Engineer. -
- 46.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requires services from outside agencies.
- B.
Mobility (deployment) equipment.
- C.
Requires additional manpower.
- D.
Requires additional funding.
Correct Answer
D. Requires additional funding. -
- 47.
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan.
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting Plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
A. Concept Plan. -
- 48.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A.
Concept Plan.
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
C. Supporting plan. -
- 49.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
- A.
Programming Plan (PPLAN).
- B.
Program Action Directive (PAD).
- C.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
- D.
Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. -
- 50.
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
Special Measures.
- B.
Administration.
- C.
Assumptions.
- D.
Logistics.
Correct Answer
D. Logistics. -
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Current Version
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Aug 07, 2017Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jan 17, 2017Quiz Created by
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