CDC Z3dx7x Vol 1 Practice Quiz Questions!

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CDC Z3dx7x Vol 1 Practice Quiz Questions! - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) 

    • A. 

      Remedy

    • B. 

      Situational Report (SITREP)

    • C. 

      Telephone Management System (TMS)

    • D. 

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is specifically designed to manage and track maintenance activities for various equipment and systems. It allows users to record and track maintenance actions, generate reports, and maintain a comprehensive database of maintenance records. Therefore, IMDS is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor? 

    • A. 

      Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.

    • B. 

      Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)

    • C. 

      Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).

    • D. 

      Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
    Explanation
    The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL), and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, ensuring equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR) is not listed as a common duty of the MDC monitor.

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  • 3. 

    Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished? 

    • A. 

      Communications Focal Point

    • B. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • C. 

      Production Controller

    • D. 

      Commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Commander/Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This role is in charge of overseeing all aspects of the flight operations, including scheduling and coordinating inspections. They have the authority to enforce compliance with inspection requirements and ensure that all necessary inspections are completed on time. This ensures the safety and efficiency of the flight operations.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center

    • A. 

      Master Task List

    • B. 

      Job Qualification Standard

    • C. 

      Current Career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • D. 

      Milestone for tasks and career development course (CDC) Completion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Task List
    Explanation
    The Master Task List is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center. This means that the Master Task List is not a mandatory component of the Master Training Plan for all work centers. Instead, it is included based on the specific needs and requirements of each work center.

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  • 5. 

    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance

    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

    Correct Answer
    D. 120
    Explanation
    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after the ARC personnel have received and started using the new equipment or system, they must undergo a special evaluation within 120 days. This evaluation is likely conducted to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the new equipment or system in the hands of the ARC personnel and to ensure that they are properly trained and capable of utilizing it.

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  • 6. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

    • A. 

      Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • B. 

      Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission

    • C. 

      Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.

    • D. 

      Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
  • 7. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) typically consists of six steps. These steps include identifying and assessing risks, developing risk mitigation strategies, implementing controls, monitoring and reviewing risks, and finally, communicating and reporting on risks. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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  • 8. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on ?

    • A. 

      AF Form 55

    • B. 

      AF Form 971

    • C. 

      AF Form 623A

    • D. 

      AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis? 

    • A. 

      Job Safety Training (JST)

    • B. 

      Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)

    • C. 

      Task Hazard Analysis (THA)

    • D. 

      Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Safety Training (JST)
    Explanation
    The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process used to identify and analyze potential hazards and risks associated with specific job tasks. It involves breaking down the job into individual steps, identifying hazards, and determining preventive measures. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their job safely. While both JSA and JST are related to job safety, JST is not specifically a term for Job Safety Analysis.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1? 

    • A. 

      Time Compliance Technical Oder (TCTO) procedures

    • B. 

      Resources required to manage and use TOs

    • C. 

      Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

    • D. 

      Training to manage and use TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Oder (TCTO) procedures
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The question asks for information that is not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1. The other options listed - resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs - are all information that can be found in TO 00-5-1.

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  • 11. 

    Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on 

    • A. 

      AFTO Form 673

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 22

    • C. 

      AF Form 673

    • D. 

      AF Form 22

    Correct Answer
    B. AFTO Form 22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO Form 22 because it is the only option that matches the given technical order (TO) changes required to be submitted. The other options, AFTO Form 673 and AF Form 673, do not match the given TO changes. Therefore, AFTO Form 22 is the correct choice.

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  • 12. 

    Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment? 

    • A. 

      Library Custodian

    • B. 

      Flight commander/chief

    • C. 

      Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

    • D. 

      Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight commander/chief
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the needs of the equipment and the operational requirements of the flight. They ensure that the necessary checklists and work cards are in place to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the equipment.

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  • 13. 

    Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)? 

    • A. 

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • B. 

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • C. 

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D. 

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
    Explanation
    ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including the telecommunications industry. TIA is a trade association that represents the telecommunications industry, and its standards are developed and accredited by ANSI to ensure they meet industry requirements and promote interoperability and compatibility among different telecommunications products and services.

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  • 14. 

    Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards? 

    • A. 

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • B. 

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • C. 

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D. 

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards.

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  • 15. 

    Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official? 

    • A. 

      The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).

    • B. 

      Commander/director responsible for the guidance.

    • C. 

      The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

    • D. 

      Publications Manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
    Explanation
    The authoring OPR's supervisor should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official because they are responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring OPR and ensuring its accuracy and compliance with regulations.

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  • 16. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems? 

    • A. 

      Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

    • B. 

      Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • C. 

      Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

    • D. 

      Military only.

    Correct Answer
    C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are software or hardware products that are readily available in the commercial market. These systems are commonly understood as they are widely used and familiar to users. They are also maintainable as they are supported by the vendors who develop and sell them. COTS systems are defendable as they are designed to meet industry standards and security requirements. They can be implemented in both federal and non-federal systems, making them suitable for creating a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across different systems.

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  • 17. 

    The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 

    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      37

    • D. 

      50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 because United States Code (USC) Title 10 specifically authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government. This title outlines the organization, structure, and responsibilities of the DOD, including the roles and functions of its various military branches and agencies.

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  • 18. 

    Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 15

    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      37

    Correct Answer
    C. 32
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 32. The explanation for this is that procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32. This title specifically deals with the National Guard and its activation. Therefore, it is the appropriate section of the USC that governs the process of ordering units into active Federal duty.

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  • 19. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites

    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Numbered Air Force Commander

    • C. 

      Communications Squadron Commander

    • D. 

      Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for both public and private websites. They have the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these platforms.

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  • 20. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called 

    • A. 

      Misuse of position

    • B. 

      A covered relationships

    • C. 

      Non-public information

    • D. 

      Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is referred to as "Misuse of position". This means that the individual is abusing their authority or power for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their organization or the public.

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  • 21. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities

    • A. 

      Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • B. 

      Military Construction (MILCON)

    • C. 

      Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • D. 

      Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    B. Military Construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated for the construction, expansion, and improvement of military facilities, including the relocation of existing facilities. These funds are specifically designated for infrastructure projects and can be used to cover the costs associated with moving facilities to new locations.

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  • 22. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions? 

    • A. 

      $100,000

    • B. 

      $250,000

    • C. 

      $750,000

    • D. 

      $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    C. $750,000
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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  • 23. 

    In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 

    • A. 

      10-401

    • B. 

      33-360

    • C. 

      38-101

    • D. 

      64-117

    Correct Answer
    D. 64-117
  • 24. 

    At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program? 

    • A. 

      Approval Official (AO).

    • B. 

      Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

    • C. 

      DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).

    • D. 

      Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
    Explanation
    The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They coordinate with various offices and personnel to ensure compliance with program policies and guidelines, provide training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitor card usage to identify any potential misuse or fraud. The A/OPC plays a crucial role in ensuring the effective and efficient management of the GPC Program at the installation level.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders? 

    • A. 

      Making authorized transactions.

    • B. 

      Reconciling transactions.

    • C. 

      Logging transactions.

    • D. 

      Funds accountability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Funds accountability.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for tracking or managing the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. This responsibility typically falls under the purview of the finance or accounting department within the government organization.

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  • 26. 

    Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in 

    • A. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.

    • B. 

      Joint Publication 1–02.

    • C. 

      Joint Publication 1–03.

    • D. 

      AFI 10-401

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 10-401
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 10-401. This is because the question asks for the source where detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request can be found. AFI 10-401 is an Air Force Instruction that specifically deals with the process and procedures for submitting reclamas and shortfall requests. Joint Publication 1-02 and Joint Publication 1-03 are not specific to Air Force instructions and may not provide the detailed instructions required.

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  • 27. 

    Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year? 

    • A. 

      Air Force Chief of Staff

    • B. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • C. 

      Selected major command Command Chiefs

    • D. 

      Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Staff
    Explanation
    After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented? 

    • A. 

      Wing

    • B. 

      Group

    • C. 

      Squadron

    • D. 

      Major Command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    Quarterly awards are typically presented at the highest level within an organization. In this case, the highest level mentioned is "Wing". Therefore, Wing is the correct answer as it represents the highest level where quarterly awards are normally presented.

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  • 29. 

    Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction 

    • A. 

      36-2604

    • B. 

      36-2803

    • C. 

      36-2805

    • D. 

      36-2845

    Correct Answer
    D. 36-2845
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 36-2845. This Air Force instruction provides guidance specifically for awards in the Cyber community. It likely outlines the criteria and procedures for awarding individuals in this field for their achievements and contributions.

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  • 30. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards? 

    • A. 

      1 Oct - 30 Sep

    • B. 

      1 Jan - 31 Dec

    • C. 

      1 Apr - 31 Mar

    • D. 

      1 Jul - 30 Jun

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Oct - 30 Sep
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 Oct to 30 Sep.

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