Z3D153 Vol 1 Unit 2

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

    • A.

      TO 31-20 series.

    • B.

      TO 61-20 series.

    • C.

      TO 31-10 series.

    • D.

      TO 61-10 series.

    Correct Answer
    C. TO 31-10 series.
    Explanation
    The TO 31-10 series covers standard Air Force installation practices. This series of technical order publications provides guidelines and instructions for various installation practices within the Air Force. It is a comprehensive resource that ensures consistent and standardized procedures are followed during installations.

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  • 2. 

    Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

    • A.

      Lower.

    • B.

      Upper.

    • C.

      Right.

    • D.

      Left.

    Correct Answer
    B. Upper.
    Explanation
    The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is specifically designed to accommodate these types of cables, providing a separate space to route and organize them. The lower section of the duct may be used for power cables or other types of cables that require a different type of handling. The right and left sections of the duct are not specifically designated for any particular type of cable.

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  • 3. 

    Why should the number of splices be controlled durning fiber optical installation? 

    • A.

      Minimize transmission loss.

    • B.

      To aid in troubleshooting.

    • C.

      Reduce potential damage.

    • D.

      Prevent eavesdropping

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimize transmission loss.
    Explanation
    The number of splices should be controlled during fiber optic installation to minimize transmission loss. Splices are connections made between two fiber optic cables, and each splice introduces a certain amount of loss in the signal. By controlling the number of splices, the overall transmission loss can be minimized, ensuring a more efficient and reliable communication system.

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  • 4. 

    How are connectorized cables labeled?

    • A.

      The fist label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked "FROM."

    • B.

      The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM."

    • C.

      The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked "FROM."

    • D.

      The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM."

    Correct Answer
    D. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM."
    Explanation
    Connectorized cables are labeled by placing the first label within 12 inches of the connector and marking it "TO". The second label is then placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM". This labeling system helps identify the direction and source of the cable, making it easier to trace and troubleshoot connections.

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  • 5. 

    Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

    • A.

      Adhesive.

    • B.

      Special foil.

    • C.

      Cable sheath.

    • D.

      Heat shrink tubing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Adhesive.
    Explanation
    Adhesive labels are commonly used for marking items with machine-printed markings of indelible ink. These labels have a sticky backing that allows them to be easily attached to various surfaces. The machine-printed markings ensure clarity and precision, while the indelible ink ensures that the markings are permanent and cannot be easily removed or smudged. Adhesive labels are versatile and can be used in various applications, such as labeling products, organizing files, or identifying equipment. Therefore, adhesive labels are the most suitable type for machine-printed markings of indelible ink.

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  • 6. 

    Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Job control.

    • C.

      Commander.

    • D.

      Flight commander/chief.

    Correct Answer
    D. Flight commander/chief.
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining whether local checklists and work cards are necessary for equipment. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the operational procedures and requirements for the flight. As a higher-ranking officer, they have the knowledge and experience to assess the specific needs of the equipment and ensure that all necessary checklists and work cards are in place to maintain safety and efficiency during operations.

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  • 7. 

    What are the three main functions of grounding?

    • A.

      Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

    • B.

      Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.

    • C.

      Equipment protection, signal amplifications, and capacitance reaction.

    • D.

      Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
    Explanation
    Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Personnel safety is achieved by providing a path for electrical current to flow to the ground, preventing electric shock hazards. Equipment protection is ensured by grounding excess electrical currents, preventing damage to sensitive equipment and reducing the risk of electrical fires. Noise reduction is achieved by grounding electrical circuits, which helps to eliminate unwanted electrical interference and improve the performance of electronic devices.

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  • 8. 

    The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

    • A.

      Earth electrode.

    • B.

      Fault protection.

    • C.

      Signal reference.

    • D.

      Lightning protection.

    Correct Answer
    D. Lightning protection.
    Explanation
    The facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors for lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical systems from voltage spikes caused by lightning strikes. By diverting the excess electrical energy to the ground, surge arrestors prevent damage to the facility's electrical equipment and infrastructure. Thus, lightning protection is the main purpose of using surge arrestors in the facility ground subsystem.

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  • 9. 

    What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

    • A.

      Bonding.

    • B.

      Shielding.

    • C.

      Annealing.

    • D.

      Grounding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bonding.
    Explanation
    Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This is typically done by joining the surfaces together using a conductive material such as solder or adhesive. By establishing this low-impedance path, electrical current can flow easily between the surfaces, ensuring effective electrical conductivity and reducing the risk of interference or voltage fluctuations. Shielding, on the other hand, refers to the use of a barrier to protect against electromagnetic interference, while annealing is a heat treatment process and grounding involves connecting an electrical system to the Earth's ground.

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  • 10. 

    The RED designation is used for equipment processing

    • A.

      Unencrypted unclassified information.

    • B.

      Clear-text unclassified information.

    • C.

      Encrypted classified information.

    • D.

      Clear-text classified information.

    Correct Answer
    D. Clear-text classified information.
    Explanation
    The RED designation is used for clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment processing this information is capable of handling unencrypted classified data. It does not involve encryption or unclassified information, but specifically refers to the processing of classified information in its clear-text form.

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  • 11. 

    Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts?

    • A.

      Class I

    • B.

      Class II

    • C.

      Class III

    • D.

      Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I
    Explanation
    Class I is the correct answer because it is the only class among the options that has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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  • 12. 

    Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

    • A.

      Working at a bench.

    • B.

      Walking across carpet.

    • C.

      Walking across a vinyl floor.

    • D.

      Picking up a common plastic bag.

    Correct Answer
    B. Walking across carpet.
    Explanation
    Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because carpet tends to build up a higher amount of static electricity compared to other surfaces. This is due to the friction between the carpet fibers and the soles of the shoes, leading to the transfer of electrons and the accumulation of charge. Therefore, walking across carpet would result in a higher electrostatic voltage compared to working at a bench, walking across a vinyl floor, or picking up a common plastic bag.

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  • 13. 

    Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere?

    • A.

      Secondary.

    • B.

      Radiated.

    • C.

      Plasma.

    • D.

      Source.

    Correct Answer
    D. Source.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "source". In the context of the question, the term "source" refers to the region of the electromagnetic pulse that is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere. This suggests that the source of the electromagnetic pulse is the point or origin from which it is generated. The other options, such as secondary, radiated, and plasma, do not specifically refer to this distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?

    • A.

      Cables should be of unshielded construction.

    • B.

      Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.

    • C.

      Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

    • D.

      All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
    Explanation
    Sensitive equipment needs to be located within a shielded barrier to protect it from electromagnetic interference. Shielding helps to prevent external electromagnetic fields from affecting the performance of sensitive equipment. By placing the equipment within a shielded barrier, it is protected from any electromagnetic interference that may be present in its surroundings. This ensures that the equipment operates accurately and reliably.

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  • 15. 

    Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

    • A.

      Enemy jamming.

    • B.

      Internal interference.

    • C.

      Radio receiver trouble.

    • D.

      Unintentional interference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enemy jamming.
    Explanation
    Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This is because enemy jammers are often stationary and strategically placed to interfere with communication signals. As a result, moving the receiving antenna for a short distance would not significantly change the strength of the interfering signal, indicating intentional interference by an external source.

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  • 16. 

    What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

    • A.

      Slow turning receiver.

    • B.

      Rapid tuning receiver.

    • C.

      Slow tuning transmitter.

    • D.

      Rapid tuning transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    D. Rapid tuning transmitter.
    Explanation
    Rapid tuning transmitters often generate many spurious emissions. This is because rapid tuning transmitters can cause frequency jumps and instability, leading to unwanted emissions at frequencies other than the intended transmission frequency. These spurious emissions can interfere with other communication systems and cause signal distortion or noise. Slow turning receivers and transmitters, on the other hand, do not typically generate as many spurious emissions because their frequency changes are more controlled and stable.

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  • 17. 

    What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?

    • A.

      Relays.

    • B.

      Lighting.

    • C.

      Power line.

    • D.

      Switching equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Power line.
    Explanation
    Voltage surges, arcing, and corona discharges can create disturbances in power lines, resulting in man-made noise. These disturbances can cause fluctuations in the electrical current flowing through the power lines, leading to audible noise. Therefore, the correct answer is power line.

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  • 18. 

    Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?

    • A.

      The operator.

    • B.

      Joint Spectrum Center.

    • C.

      Installation spectrum manager.

    • D.

      Federal Communications Commission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint Spectrum Center.
    Explanation
    The Joint Spectrum Center is tasked with providing interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum by military forces. This includes identifying and resolving any interference issues that may arise during military operations. The Joint Spectrum Center plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and efficient use of the spectrum, which is vital for communication and other electronic activities in the military.

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  • 19. 

    Who is the focal pint for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?

    • A.

      Information security officer (IAO).

    • B.

      Wing information assurance office (WIAO).

    • C.

      Information security program manager (ISPM).

    • D.

      Communications and information system officer (CSO)

    Correct Answer
    B. Wing information assurance office (WIAO).
    Explanation
    The focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation is the Wing information assurance office (WIAO). This office is responsible for managing and overseeing the information assurance program within the wing, which includes ensuring the security and protection of emissions from communication and information systems. They are in charge of implementing EMSEC measures and procedures to prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information through electromagnetic radiation.

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  • 20. 

    What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

    • A.

      Distance and angles.

    • B.

      Distance and separation.

    • C.

      Induction and grounding.

    • D.

      Induction and impedance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance and angles.
    Explanation
    The ability to minimize compromising emanations is influenced by the distance and angles. By increasing the distance between the conductor and potential sources of interference, the conductor can reduce the impact of electromagnetic waves. Additionally, adjusting the angles at which the conductor is positioned can also help in minimizing the interference caused by electromagnetic fields. Therefore, distance and angles play a significant role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations.

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  • 21. 

    What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?

    • A.

      Nickel cadmium.

    • B.

      Carbon zinc.

    • C.

      Lead-acid.

    • D.

      Lithium.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nickel cadmium.
    Explanation
    Nickel cadmium (NiCd) secondary cells are prone to the memory effect. The memory effect occurs when a battery is not fully discharged before being recharged, causing the battery to "remember" the reduced capacity and only provide that amount of power in subsequent discharges. This effect can significantly reduce the overall capacity and performance of the battery over time. Other secondary cells like carbon zinc, lead-acid, and lithium are not prone to the memory effect.

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  • 22. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

    • A.

      Sag.

    • B.

      Spike.

    • C.

      Noise.

    • D.

      Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sag.
    Explanation
    A sag in a power line fault category refers to a short term decrease in voltage levels. This occurs when there is a temporary drop in the voltage due to a fault in the power line. It is different from a blackout, which refers to a complete loss of power, and spikes and noise, which refer to sudden increases and disturbances in voltage levels respectively. Therefore, a sag is the correct answer as it accurately describes a short term decrease in voltage levels.

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  • 23. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • A.

      Sag.

    • B.

      Spike.

    • C.

      Noise.

    • D.

      Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    D. Blackout.
    Explanation
    A blackout refers to a complete loss of utility power, where there is a total absence of electricity supply. This fault category is characterized by a sudden and complete interruption of power, resulting in a complete darkness and loss of electrical appliances and systems. A blackout can be caused by various factors such as severe weather conditions, equipment failure, or system overload. During a blackout, all electrical devices cease to function until power is restored.

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  • 24. 

    What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

    • A.

      Sag.

    • B.

      Spike.

    • C.

      Noise.

    • D.

      Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    C. Noise.
    Explanation
    Noise is the correct answer because electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are both types of electrical disturbances that can cause interference or disruptions in electronic devices. These disturbances are often referred to as noise because they manifest as unwanted signals or fluctuations in the electrical system. Sag refers to a temporary drop in voltage, spike refers to a temporary increase in voltage, and blackout refers to a complete loss of power.

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  • 25. 

    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians?

    • A.

      Passive standby.

    • B.

      Line interactive.

    • C.

      Double conversion.

    • D.

      Ferro resonant standby.

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive standby.
    Explanation
    Passive standby is the correct answer because this type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) operates by allowing the connected equipment to run directly from the main power source. In the event of a power outage or disturbance, the UPS switches to battery power to provide temporary backup power. This type of UPS is considered "offline" because it is not continuously conditioning the power and only activates when needed.

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  • 26. 

    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

    • A.

      Passive standby.

    • B.

      Line interactive.

    • C.

      Double conversion.

    • D.

      Ferro resonant standby.

    Correct Answer
    B. Line interactive.
    Explanation
    A line interactive uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is designed to provide protection against power fluctuations and voltage spikes, ensuring a stable and reliable power supply to the connected devices. It is able to adjust the voltage levels and regulate the power output, making it an efficient solution for maintaining uninterrupted power supply in case of utility power interruptions or fluctuations.

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  • 27. 

    How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

    • A.

      Single.

    • B.

      Double.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    C. Three.
    Explanation
    In industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power provides a more efficient and balanced distribution of electrical power compared to single or double phases. Three-phase power allows for higher power transmission capacity, better voltage regulation, and reduced power loss. It is widely used in industries and commercial settings to meet the high power demands and ensure a stable and reliable power supply.

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