Winnipeg 311 CSR Screening Test

91 Questions

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CSR Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    311 Screening Test
  • 2. 
    The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
    • A. 

      A. base defense operations center (BDOC).

    • B. 

      B. point of insertion.

    • C. 

      C. base perimeter.

    • D. 

      D. resource.

  • 3. 
    The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
    • A. 

      A. defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR)surrounding the air base.

    • B. 

      B. defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • C. 

      Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • D. 

      D. defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

  • 4. 
    At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
    • A. 

      A. S1 and S3

    • B. 

      B. S2 and S4

    • C. 

      C. S2 and S3

    • D. 

      D. S3 and S4

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      A. The operations officer and staff.

    • B. 

      B. Supply noncommissioned officer.

    • C. 

      C. First sergeant or section commander.

    • D. 

      D. Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.

  • 6. 
    In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
    • A. 

      A. By rank and function.

    • B. 

      B. By function and location.

    • C. 

      C. By service component or function.

    • D. 

      D. By service component and location.

  • 7. 
    The primary mission of a joint operation is
    • A. 

      A. lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.

    • B. 

      B. sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.

    • C. 

      C. disaster relief operations.

    • D. 

      D. humanitarian operations.

  • 8. 
    When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
    • A. 

      A. Determine which other countries support their beliefs.

    • B. 

      B. Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.

    • C. 

      C. Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.

    • D. 

      D. Persuate US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

  • 9. 
    A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more government is
    • A. 

      A. non-state supported.

    • B. 

      B. state-supported.

    • C. 

      C. state-directed.

    • D. 

      D. state-organized.

  • 10. 
    A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
    • A. 

      A. group leader, intelligencer officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.

    • B. 

      B. hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.

    • C. 

      C. hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.

    • D. 

      D. intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.

  • 11. 
    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
    • A. 

      A. 16-24

    • B. 

      B. 21-28

    • C. 

      C. 23-30

    • D. 

      D. 25-32

  • 12. 
    11. When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
    • A. 

      A. Before execution of attack.

    • B. 

      B. Just before departing for the target sight.

    • C. 

      C. One week prior to scheduled attack execution.

    • D. 

      D. Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.

  • 13. 
    The tactic most commonly used terrorist groups is
    • A. 

      A. arson.

    • B. 

      B. bombinb.

    • C. 

      C. hijacking.

    • D. 

      D. assassination.

  • 14. 
    The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
    • A. 

      A. State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).

    • B. 

      B. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.

    • C. 

      C. Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONS.

    • D. 

      D. Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      A. Activity.

    • B. 

      B. Intentions.

    • C. 

      C. Operational capability.

    • D. 

      D. Operating environment.

  • 16. 
    Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
    • A. 

      A. communication security (COMSEC).

    • B. 

      B. computer security (COMPUSEC).

    • C. 

      C. information security (INFOSEC).

    • D. 

      D. operations security (OPSEC).

  • 17. 
    The primary pupose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
    • A. 

      A. support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

    • B. 

      Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.

    • C. 

      C. support the commander by ensuring the command or organizations actively practices OPSEC.

    • D. 

      D. prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.

  • 18. 
    When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
    • A. 

      A. At the earliest possible moment.

    • B. 

      B. Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.

    • C. 

      C. Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.

    • D. 

      D. Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      A. I.

    • B. 

      B. II.

    • C. 

      C. III.

    • D. 

      D. IV.

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      A. Partisans

    • B. 

      B. Terrorists

    • C. 

      C. Sympathisizers

    • D. 

      D. Agent activity

  • 21. 
    Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
    • A. 

      A. IV

    • B. 

      B. III

    • C. 

      C. II

    • D. 

      D. I

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      A. I.

    • B. 

      B. II.

    • C. 

      C. III.

    • D. 

      D. IV.

  • 23. 
    Compiling and examining all available informaiton concerning potentioal threat by threat analyst is a/an
    • A. 

      A. annual process.

    • B. 

      B. bi-annual process.

    • C. 

      C. monthly process.

    • D. 

      D. continual process.

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      A. Risk.

    • B. 

      B. Threat.

    • C. 

      C. Vulnerability.

    • D. 

      D. Anti-terrorism

  • 25. 
    The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
    • A. 

      A. the classified protection plan

    • B. 

      B. protecting sensitive information

    • C. 

      C. the offensive force protection plan

    • D. 

      D. the defenseive force protection plan

  • 26. 
    The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
    • A. 

      A. cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).

    • B. 

      B. concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).

    • C. 

      C. deceptive camouflage concelament (DCC).

    • D. 

      D. camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).

  • 27. 
    To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
    • A. 

      A. hide.

    • B. 

      B. blend.

    • C. 

      C. decoy.

    • D. 

      D. disguise

  • 28. 
    The political-military nature of military operatoins other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
    • A. 

      A. through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.

    • B. 

      B. with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense.

    • C. 

      Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.

    • D. 

      D. through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).

  • 29. 
    Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
    • A. 

      A. quarantine

    • B. 

      B. peacekeeping

    • C. 

      C. clandestine infiltration

    • D. 

      D. humanitarian assistance

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      A. Unity of Effort

    • B. 

      B. Objective

    • C. 

      C. Restraint

    • D. 

      D. Security

  • 31. 
    As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
    • A. 

      A. full spectrum of air and space domination

    • B. 

      B. deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously

    • C. 

      C. deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.

    • D. 

      D. supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation commanders.

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      A. 12 hours

    • B. 

      B. 24 hours

    • C. 

      C. 48 hours

    • D. 

      D. 72 hours

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      A. Support

    • B. 

      B. Foundation

    • C. 

      C. Tactical Operation

    • D. 

      D. Retrograde operations

  • 34. 
    Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONCOP), what are all Airmen considered?
    • A. 

      A. Detectors

    • B. 

      B. Monitors

    • C. 

      C. Fighters

    • D. 

      D. Sensors

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      A. Anticipate

    • B. 

      B. Detect

    • C. 

      C. Delay

    • D. 

      D. Deny

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      A. Countermeasures options

    • B. 

      B. If reassessments and follow ups are needed

    • C. 

      C. Whether to introduce risk management process training

    • D. 

      D. If there is need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges

  • 37. 
    An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
    • A. 

      A. within 24 hours of notification in response to a crisis with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

    • B. 

      B. on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

    • C. 

      C. on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives

    • D. 

      D. within 72 hours in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      A. Two bomber group leads (BGL)

    • B. 

      B. Three BGLs

    • C. 

      C. Four BGLs

    • D. 

      D. Five BGLs

  • 39. 
    The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
    • A. 

      A. predictability

    • B. 

      B. flexibility

    • C. 

      C. mobility

    • D. 

      D. stability

  • 40. 
    Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
    • A. 

      A. UT

    • B. 

      B. FP

    • C. 

      C. AT

    • D. 

      D. QF

  • 41. 
    When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
    • A. 

      A. Any level

    • B. 

      B. Unit level

    • C. 

      C. MAJCOM level

    • D. 

      D. Air Staff level only

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD)

    • B. 

      B. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Roster (AFWUR)

    • C. 

      C. Air Expeditionary Unit Tasking Summary Sheet (AUTSS)

    • D. 

      D. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS)

  • 43. 
    Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?
    • A. 

      A. Maneuver

    • B. 

      B. Offensive

    • C. 

      C. Objective

    • D. 

      D. Mass

  • 44. 
    Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
    • A. 

      A. Unity of command

    • B. 

      B. Simplicity

    • C. 

      C. Objective

    • D. 

      D. Offensive

  • 45. 
    Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations
    • A. 

      A. follow the fule of law

    • B. 

      B. meet manning standards

    • C. 

      C. follow national policy goals

    • D. 

      D. follow mission requirements

  • 46. 
    Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of life
    • A. 

      A. United Nations

    • B. 

      B. Geneva Convention

    • C. 

      C. joint force commander's directives

    • D. 

      D. US military's standing rules of engagement

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      A. Prevent unnecessary suffering

    • B. 

      B. Prevent use of political influence

    • C. 

      C. Maintain a well-defined military plan

    • D. 

      D. Provide equal representation of all combatants

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      A. Sustainability

    • B. 

      B. Attainability

    • C. 

      C. Flexibility

    • D. 

      D. Simplicity

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      A. QFDB9

    • B. 

      B. QFEBA

    • C. 

      C. QFEBB

    • D. 

      D. QFEBD

  • 50. 
    What unit type code, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces unit?
    • A. 

      A. QFEBU

    • B. 

      B. QFEPR

    • C. 

      C. QFFPF

    • D. 

      D. QFEBA

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      A. QFEBM

    • B. 

      B. QFEBN

    • C. 

      C. QFEBP

    • D. 

      D. QFEBR

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      A. QFEBU

    • B. 

      B. QFEPR

    • C. 

      C. QFFPF

    • D. 

      D. QFFPG

  • 53. 
    During peacetime operation, what unit type code would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?
    • A. 

      A. QFEB2

    • B. 

      B. QFEB3

    • C. 

      C. QFEB4

    • D. 

      D. QFEB5

  • 54. 
    What unit type code is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?
    • A. 

      A. QFEBK

    • B. 

      B. QFEBR

    • C. 

      C. QFEBJ

    • D. 

      D. QFERT

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      A. Weather

    • B. 

      B. Treaties

    • C. 

      C. Intelligence

    • D. 

      D. Political climate

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      A. 5 days

    • B. 

      B. 7 days

    • C. 

      C. 14 days

    • D. 

      D. 30 days

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      A. Bare Base (BB)

    • B. 

      B. Standby Base (SB)

    • C. 

      C. Main Operating Base (MOB)

    • D. 

      D. Collocated Operating Base (COB)

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      A. Ground defense

    • B. 

      B. Clandestine

    • C. 

      C. Intelligence

    • D. 

      D. Aerial

  • 59. 
    Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited
    • A. 

      A. depth

    • B. 

      B. intelligence

    • C. 

      C. denial capabilities

    • D. 

      D. all-around defense

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      A. Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack

    • B. 

      B. Counter-espionage and counterattack

    • C. 

      C. Counterattack and counter-resistance

    • D. 

      D. Counter-defense and counterattack

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      A. Personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief and rotation

    • B. 

      B. Area of operation (AO) policing for cleanliness

    • C. 

      C. Weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules

    • D. 

      D. Assign sectors of fire

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      A. Estbalish local security

    • B. 

      B. Emplace obstacles and mines

    • C. 

      C. Prepare primary fighting positions

    • D. 

      D. Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP)

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      A. The entire base tactical boundary

    • B. 

      B. The entire air base defense (ABD) plan

    • C. 

      C. The entire tactical area of responsibility (AOR)

    • D. 

      D. The limiting factors to the defense of the air base

  • 64. 
    When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are
    • A. 

      A. located on unidentifiable terrain

    • B. 

      B. split between to sectors

    • C. 

      C. evenly grouped

    • D. 

      D. camouflaged

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      A. When you have made contact with the enemy

    • B. 

      B. When time and materials are not a factor

    • C. 

      C. When there is ample natural cover

    • D. 

      D. When aerial strikes are imminent

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      A. A scrape out

    • B. 

      B. A shell crate

    • C. 

      C. Peak of a roof

    • D. 

      D. Under a parked vehicle

  • 67. 
    When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?
    • A. 

      A. Provide covering fire for the assault element.

    • B. 

      B. It's only function is with the maneuver element

    • C. 

      C. Provide over-head fire for maneuvering fire teams

    • D. 

      D. Lay down covering fire for reconnaissance elements

  • 68. 
    In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?
    • A. 

      A. 400

    • B. 

      B. 600

    • C. 

      C. 800

    • D. 

      D. 1,000

  • 69. 
    Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in
    • A. 

      A. area and mass

    • B. 

      B. width and depth

    • C. 

      C. length and width

    • D. 

      D. length and depth

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      A. To provide a high rate of fire off enemy attacks

    • B. 

      B. To protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions

    • C. 

      C. To protect the wounded and critical resources from further injury or destruction

    • D. 

      D. To provide the most effective firepower again any weapon the enemy can attack with

  • 71. 
    What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
    • A. 

      A. Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) locations and patrol routes, if any.

    • B. 

      B. Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons (LAW)/AT-4s

    • C. 

      C. Mines (claymores), sensors, and obstacles.

    • D. 

      D. Location of home station flight.

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      A. Maps

    • B. 

      B. Signals

    • C. 

      C. Reports

    • D. 

      D. Telegrams

  • 73. 
    What is the engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?
    • A. 

      A. Individual personnel

    • B. 

      B. Light armored vehicles in sector

    • C. 

      C. Crew-served automatic weapons

    • D. 

      D. Groups of three or more in the primary sector

  • 74. 
    When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
    • A. 

      A. ENGAGEMENT ZONE

    • B. 

      B. AMBUSH ZONE

    • C. 

      C. DEATH ZONE

    • D. 

      D. KILL ZONE

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      A. Integrating indirect suppressive fires

    • B. 

      B. Unit protection as rounds impact

    • C. 

      C. Required effect

    • D. 

      D. Timing

  • 76. 
    Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?
    • A. 

      A. On enemy positions away from the breach site

    • B. 

      B. To isolate the objective

    • C. 

      C. For close suppression

    • D. 

      D. To clear a path

  • 77. 
    A "call for fire" is a message
    • A. 

      A. given to an observer

    • B. 

      B. prepared by the unit

    • C. 

      C. prepared by an observer

    • D. 

      D. prepared by the flight leader

  • 78. 
    Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?
    • A. 

      A. III and IV

    • B. 

      B. II and III

    • C. 

      C. II and IV

    • D. 

      D. I and IV

  • 79. 
    Once fully implemented, what will the Integrade Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) greatly enhance in base defensive operations?
    • A. 

      A. Alarms and detection

    • B. 

      B. Detection and security

    • C. 

      C. Security and prevention

    • D. 

      D. Detection and alert notifications

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      A. In a water tower

    • B. 

      B. In a stand-alone position

    • C. 

      C. In a single small gathering of trees

    • D. 

      D. In a position that doesn't draw attention

  • 81. 
    Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to
    • A. 

      A. indicate enemy location using flares

    • B. 

      B. protect themselves

    • C. 

      C. report information

    • D. 

      D. observe the area

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      A. All-around

    • B. 

      B. In-depth

    • C. 

      C. Area

    • D. 

      D. Spot

  • 83. 
    A relatively secure area that allows for  positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
    • A. 

      A. exclusion area

    • B. 

      B. search area

    • C. 

      C. denial area

    • D. 

      D. safe area

  • 84. 
    What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?
    • A. 

      A. Personnel, vehicle and safe

    • B. 

      B. Personnel, vehicle, and denial

    • C. 

      C. Personnel, vehicle, and reaction force

    • D. 

      D. Personnel, vehicle and response force

  • 85. 
    What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?
    • A. 

      A. Existing and reinforcing

    • B. 

      B. Disrupting and turning

    • C. 

      C. Blocking and turning

    • D. 

      D. Turning and fixing

  • 86. 
    Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
    • A. 

      A. Man-made and fabricated

    • B. 

      B. Natural and structural

    • C. 

      C. Hard and soft

    • D. 

      D. Left and right

  • 87. 
    The environment for security forces personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be
    • A. 

      A. protected and guarded

    • B. 

      B. safe and comfortable

    • C. 

      C. well lit and elevated

    • D. 

      D. cool and calm

  • 88. 
    The immediate impression the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is one of
    • A. 

      A. strict and rigid rules

    • B. 

      B. relaxation and friendliness

    • C. 

      C. professionalism and commitment

    • D. 

      D. openness, professionalism and commitment

  • 89. 
    You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the
    • A. 

      A. number of troops required guarding it

    • B. 

      B. amount of time it would take to patrol the area

    • C. 

      C. need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain

    • D. 

      D. necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area

  • 90. 
    The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with
    • A. 

      A. a red line

    • B. 

      B. a temporary sign

    • C. 

      C. rope marking off the area

    • D. 

      D. posted guards every 50 feet

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      A. Force protection (FP) working

    • B. 

      B. Anti-terrorism working

    • C. 

      C. Physical security

    • D. 

      D. Threat working.