A. base defense operations center (BDOC).
B. point of insertion.
C. base perimeter.
A. defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR)surrounding the air base.
B. defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
D. defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
A. S1 and S3
B. S2 and S4
C. S2 and S3
D. S3 and S4
A. The operations officer and staff.
B. Supply noncommissioned officer.
C. First sergeant or section commander.
D. Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
A. By rank and function.
B. By function and location.
C. By service component or function.
D. By service component and location.
A. lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
B. sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
C. disaster relief operations.
D. humanitarian operations.
A. Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
B. Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
C. Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
D. Persuate US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
A. non-state supported.
A. group leader, intelligencer officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
B. hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
C. hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
D. intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
A. Before execution of attack.
B. Just before departing for the target sight.
C. One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
D. Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
A. State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
B. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
C. Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONS.
D. Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
C. Operational capability.
D. Operating environment.
A. communication security (COMSEC).
B. computer security (COMPUSEC).
C. information security (INFOSEC).
D. operations security (OPSEC).
A. support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.
C. support the commander by ensuring the command or organizations actively practices OPSEC.
D. prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.
A. At the earliest possible moment.
B. Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
C. Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
D. Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
D. Agent activity
A. annual process.
B. bi-annual process.
C. monthly process.
D. continual process.
A. the classified protection plan
B. protecting sensitive information
C. the offensive force protection plan
D. the defenseive force protection plan
A. cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
B. concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
C. deceptive camouflage concelament (DCC).
D. camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).
A. through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.
B. with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense.
Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.
D. through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).
C. clandestine infiltration
D. humanitarian assistance
A. Unity of Effort
A. full spectrum of air and space domination
B. deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously
C. deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.
D. supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation commanders.
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
C. Tactical Operation
D. Retrograde operations
A. Countermeasures options
B. If reassessments and follow ups are needed
C. Whether to introduce risk management process training
D. If there is need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges
A. within 24 hours of notification in response to a crisis with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
B. on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
C. on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives
D. within 72 hours in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
A. Two bomber group leads (BGL)
B. Three BGLs
C. Four BGLs
D. Five BGLs
A. Any level
B. Unit level
C. MAJCOM level
D. Air Staff level only
A. Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD)
B. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Roster (AFWUR)
C. Air Expeditionary Unit Tasking Summary Sheet (AUTSS)
D. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS)
A. Unity of command
A. follow the fule of law
B. meet manning standards
C. follow national policy goals
D. follow mission requirements
A. United Nations
B. Geneva Convention
C. joint force commander's directives
D. US military's standing rules of engagement
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering
B. Prevent use of political influence
C. Maintain a well-defined military plan
D. Provide equal representation of all combatants
D. Political climate
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
A. Bare Base (BB)
B. Standby Base (SB)
C. Main Operating Base (MOB)
D. Collocated Operating Base (COB)
A. Ground defense
C. denial capabilities
D. all-around defense
A. Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack
B. Counter-espionage and counterattack
C. Counterattack and counter-resistance
D. Counter-defense and counterattack
A. Personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief and rotation
B. Area of operation (AO) policing for cleanliness
C. Weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules
D. Assign sectors of fire
A. Estbalish local security
B. Emplace obstacles and mines
C. Prepare primary fighting positions
D. Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP)
A. The entire base tactical boundary
B. The entire air base defense (ABD) plan
C. The entire tactical area of responsibility (AOR)
D. The limiting factors to the defense of the air base
A. located on unidentifiable terrain
B. split between to sectors
C. evenly grouped
A. When you have made contact with the enemy
B. When time and materials are not a factor
C. When there is ample natural cover
D. When aerial strikes are imminent
A. A scrape out
B. A shell crate
C. Peak of a roof
D. Under a parked vehicle
A. Provide covering fire for the assault element.
B. It's only function is with the maneuver element
C. Provide over-head fire for maneuvering fire teams
D. Lay down covering fire for reconnaissance elements
A. area and mass
B. width and depth
C. length and width
D. length and depth
A. To provide a high rate of fire off enemy attacks
B. To protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions
C. To protect the wounded and critical resources from further injury or destruction
D. To provide the most effective firepower again any weapon the enemy can attack with
A. Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) locations and patrol routes, if any.
B. Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons (LAW)/AT-4s
C. Mines (claymores), sensors, and obstacles.
D. Location of home station flight.
A. Individual personnel
B. Light armored vehicles in sector
C. Crew-served automatic weapons
D. Groups of three or more in the primary sector
A. ENGAGEMENT ZONE
B. AMBUSH ZONE
C. DEATH ZONE
D. KILL ZONE
A. Integrating indirect suppressive fires
B. Unit protection as rounds impact
C. Required effect
A. On enemy positions away from the breach site
B. To isolate the objective
C. For close suppression
D. To clear a path
A. given to an observer
B. prepared by the unit
C. prepared by an observer
D. prepared by the flight leader
A. III and IV
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I and IV
A. Alarms and detection
B. Detection and security
C. Security and prevention
D. Detection and alert notifications
A. In a water tower
B. In a stand-alone position
C. In a single small gathering of trees
D. In a position that doesn't draw attention
A. indicate enemy location using flares
B. protect themselves
C. report information
D. observe the area
A. exclusion area
B. search area
C. denial area
D. safe area
A. Personnel, vehicle and safe
B. Personnel, vehicle, and denial
C. Personnel, vehicle, and reaction force
D. Personnel, vehicle and response force
A. Existing and reinforcing
B. Disrupting and turning
C. Blocking and turning
D. Turning and fixing
A. Man-made and fabricated
B. Natural and structural
C. Hard and soft
D. Left and right
A. protected and guarded
B. safe and comfortable
C. well lit and elevated
D. cool and calm
A. strict and rigid rules
B. relaxation and friendliness
C. professionalism and commitment
D. openness, professionalism and commitment
A. number of troops required guarding it
B. amount of time it would take to patrol the area
C. need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain
D. necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area
A. a red line
B. a temporary sign
C. rope marking off the area
D. posted guards every 50 feet
A. Force protection (FP) working
B. Anti-terrorism working
C. Physical security
D. Threat working.