Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure Configuration (eng)

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Windows Quizzes & Trivia

(экзамен на английском языке)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The File Services role and other storage-related features included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable system administrators to address many problems on a scale appropriate to a large enterprise entwork.  However, before you implement the role or begin using these tools, what should you spend some time thinking about?
    • A. 

      How quickly you can recover from the failure of a hard drive, a server, or an entire facility

    • B. 

      Your users' needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing practices

    • C. 

      How you control access to network file shares

    • D. 

      How users will find the files that they need

  • 2. 
    The process of deploying and configuring a simple file server using Windows Server 2008 includes many of the most basic server administration task, including all of the following except ___________.
    • A. 

      Installing disks

    • B. 

      Partitioning drives

    • C. 

      Assigning permissions

    • D. 

      Creating shares

  • 3. 
    The system partition contains what types of files?
    • A. 

      Software-related files that the computer uses to boot

    • B. 

      Opeerating system configuration files

    • C. 

      Hardware-related files that the computer uses to boot

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 4. 
    When you work with basic disks in Windows Server 2008, how many primary partitions can you create?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 5. 
    How many active partitions can yo7u have per hard drive
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 6. 
    What volume type consists of space on three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks?
    • A. 

      Simple

    • B. 

      Spanned

    • C. 

      Striped

    • D. 

      RAID-5

  • 7. 
    Windows Server 2008 can support dynamic volumes as large as _______ terabytes
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      32

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 8. 
    What is the first step in designing a file-sharing strategy?
    • A. 

      Deciding how many shares to create and where to create them

    • B. 

      Determining usernames and passwords

    • C. 

      Deciding security measures

    • D. 

      Projecting anticipates storage needs and procuring the correct server hardware and disk arrays to meet your needs.

  • 9. 
    What file system provides the most granular user access control and also provides other advanced storage features, including file encryption and compression?
    • A. 

      NTFS

    • B. 

      FAT

    • C. 

      LTP

    • D. 

      SWAP

  • 10. 
    Windows Server 2008 has several sets of permissions that operate independently of each other.  Which permissions control access to folders over a network?
    • A. 

      Share permissions

    • B. 

      NTFS permissions

    • C. 

      Registry permissions

    • D. 

      Active Directory permissions

  • 11. 
    By default, what topology do replication groups use?
    • A. 

      Hub/spoke

    • B. 

      Full mesh

    • C. 

      Partial mesh

    • D. 

      Mesh/spoke

  • 12. 
    The Distributed File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two technologies DFS Namespaces and _________________.
    • A. 

      DFS Remediation

    • B. 

      DFS Replication

    • C. 

      DNS Replication

    • D. 

      DFS Topology

  • 13. 
    What sever is responsible for maintaining the list of DFS shares folders and responding to user requests for those folders?
    • A. 

      DFS server

    • B. 

      DNS server

    • C. 

      Namespace severs

    • D. 

      Replication server

  • 14. 
    Although any Windows computer can function as a print server, it is not recommended that you use a workstation for this task.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    To stop a job that is currently printing, you must clear the print device's memory (by resetting it or power-cycling the unit), as well as clear the job from the queue.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    To install the Internet Printing role service, you must also install the Web Server (IIS) role.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    What computer (or standalone device) receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network?
    • A. 

      Print device

    • B. 

      Print server

    • C. 

      Printer

    • D. 

      Printer driver

  • 18. 
    What standardized, highly portable print job format is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems?
    • A. 

      XML Paper Specifications (XPS)

    • B. 

      Enhanced Metafile (EMF)

    • C. 

      PCL 6

    • D. 

      PCL 5e

  • 19. 
    To share printers, which Network Sharing and Discovery setting must be turned on?
    • A. 

      Printer Discovery

    • B. 

      Printer Sharing

    • C. 

      Network Sharing

    • D. 

      Networking

  • 20. 
    Which document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again?
    • A. 

      Document > Restart

    • B. 

      Document > Pause

    • C. 

      Printer > Use Printer Offline

    • D. 

      Printer > Pause Printing

  • 21. 
    Which document management menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item again?
    • A. 

      Document > Restart

    • B. 

      Document > Pause

    • C. 

      Printer > Use Printer Offline

    • D. 

      Printer > Pause Printing

  • 22. 
    To set printer priorities, you must do all of the following except _______.
    • A. 

      Create multiple printers

    • B. 

      Create multiple print users

    • C. 

      Modify printer priorities

    • D. 

      Associate printers with the same print device

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not an option with the Print Services Management Console?
    • A. 

      Installing a printer

    • B. 

      Access the print queues and Properties sheets for all of the network printers in the enterprise

    • C. 

      Deploy printers to client computers using Group Policy

    • D. 

      Create custom views

  • 24. 
    Which version of Windows automatically supports automatic policy-based printer deployments by default?
    • A. 

      Windows XP

    • B. 

      Windows Server 2003

    • C. 

      Windows 2000

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 25. 
    The XML Paper Specification format is included with which of the following operating systems by default?
    • A. 

      Windows Vista

    • B. 

      Windows XP

    • C. 

      Windows Server 2003

    • D. 

      Windows NT

  • 26. 
    Just as with folder shares, what must clients have to access a shre printer?
    • A. 

      Drivers

    • B. 

      Security clearance

    • C. 

      Administrative roles

    • D. 

      Proper permissions

  • 27. 
    By default, the Print Management console displays only which of the following in its list of print servers?
    • A. 

      Networked printers

    • B. 

      Local machine

    • C. 

      Networked computers

    • D. 

      Terminal services

  • 28. 
    How many possibilities of filter combinations exist in the Print Management Console?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      Approximately 100

    • C. 

      Approximately 500

    • D. 

      More than 1,000

  • 29. 
    You can create your own custom Data Collector Set.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    The version of Network Monitor that is built into Windows Server 2008 can capture 100 percent of the network traffic available to the network interface.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 31. 
    If multiple servers run WSUS, the administrator controls which clients access particular servers that run WSUS.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is not a tool that can help you proactively troubleshoot network problems?
    • A. 

      Reliability and Performance Monitor

    • B. 

      Performance console

    • C. 

      Windows Server 2008 Event Viewer

    • D. 

      Network Monitor

  • 33. 
    Which of the following is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor
    • A. 

      Performance Monitor

    • B. 

      Reliability Monitor

    • C. 

      Resource

    • D. 

      Network

  • 34. 
    The Reliability and Performance Monitor is a tool located within the Administrative Tools folder that combines features that had previously been spread across a number of tools.  Which of the following is not a feature?
    • A. 

      Performance Logs and Alerts

    • B. 

      Performance Monitor

    • C. 

      Server Performance Advisor

    • D. 

      System Monitor

  • 35. 
    In which view can you view the counter associated with Data Collector Sets?
    • A. 

      Performance Monitor

    • B. 

      System Monitor

    • C. 

      Server Performance Advisor

    • D. 

      Performance Logs and Alerts

  • 36. 
    In which node is Event Viewer located?
    • A. 

      Setup node

    • B. 

      Application node

    • C. 

      Diagnostics node

    • D. 

      Security node

  • 37. 
    When you first launch Network Monitor, what key do you press to begin capturing network traffic?
    • A. 

      F8

    • B. 

      F9

    • C. 

      F10

    • D. 

      F11

  • 38. 
    Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include all of the following except ________.
    • A. 

      Security fixes

    • B. 

      Critical updates

    • C. 

      Additional user experience features

    • D. 

      Critical drivers

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is not a category for the Windows operating system updates?
    • A. 

      Group Policy updates

    • B. 

      Critical updates

    • C. 

      Recommended downloads

    • D. 

      Multilanguage features

  • 40. 
    Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS.  This enhancement adds all of the following features when used in conjunction with a WSUS server except ___________.
    • A. 

      Approved content download from a WSUS server

    • B. 

      Scheduled content download and installation

    • C. 

      The ability to configure all Automatic Updates options by using Group Policy Object Editor or by editing the registry

    • D. 

      Support for Unix-based systems

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is not a main component of WSUS?
    • A. 

      Windows Update Synchronization Service

    • B. 

      Website hosted on an IIS server that services update request from Automatic Updates clients

    • C. 

      Windows Update Communication Service

    • D. 

      WSUS MMC Administration console

  • 42. 
    Server management includes all of the following with the exception of ________________
    • A. 

      Reviewing and changing configuration options

    • B. 

      Controlling download and installation behavior

    • C. 

      Automatically or manually synchronizing the server

    • D. 

      Viewing the update status

  • 43. 
    Initial WSUS server configuration options include all of the following except ________.
    • A. 

      Proxy server information for the server to access the Internet

    • B. 

      Options for handling previously approved content

    • C. 

      The list of client languages you would like to support

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 44. 
    Each TCP/IP packet protected with IPSec contains a cryptographic checksum in the form of a keyed hash.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    The Authentication Header (AH) protocol provides confidentiality and data encryption.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    To identify a specific SA for tracking purposes, a 32-bit number known as the Security Parameters Indes (SPI) is used.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    Where is the checksum located?
    • A. 

      Footer of each packet

    • B. 

      Header of each packet

    • C. 

      Payload of each packet

    • D. 

      Application data of each packet

  • 48. 
    What are the IPSEC default settings for the key lifetime in minutes?
    • A. 

      350

    • B. 

      380

    • C. 

      450

    • D. 

      480

  • 49. 
    Which rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated to pass traffic?
    • A. 

      Tunnel

    • B. 

      Authentication exemption

    • C. 

      Isolation

    • D. 

      Server to server

  • 50. 
    IKE main mode has a default lifetime of _______ hours.
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 51. 
    The command "set config property=ipsecloginterval value-value" can be set to what range of values?
    • A. 

      0 - 7

    • B. 

      0, 1

    • C. 

      60 - 86,400

    • D. 

      0, 1, 2

  • 52. 
    Which "middle-of-the-road" form of NTLM authentication was used to improve upon the security of LM Authentication?
    • A. 

      LMv2 Authentication

    • B. 

      NTLM Authentication

    • C. 

      NTLMv2 Authentication

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 53. 
    Which type of attack is one in which a malicious user masquerades as the legitimate sender or recipient of network traffice?
    • A. 

      Data modification

    • B. 

      Denial of service

    • C. 

      Man in the middle

    • D. 

      Identity spoofing

  • 54. 
    Which process is used to establish trust between communicating systems, after which only trusted systems can communicate with each other?
    • A. 

      Shared cryptography

    • B. 

      Cryptographic checksum

    • C. 

      Mutual authentication

    • D. 

      Filtered methodology

  • 55. 
    What allows traffic that is defined in one direction to also be defined in the opposite direction?
    • A. 

      Manifestation

    • B. 

      Reflection

    • C. 

      Mirroring

    • D. 

      Evidencing

  • 56. 
    Which field does the IPSec driver use to match the correct SA with the correct packet?
    • A. 

      IPSec Driver field

    • B. 

      IKE Authentication field

    • C. 

      IP Filter field

    • D. 

      SPI field

  • 57. 
    What is used to determine encryption key material and security protection for use in protecting susequent main mode orquick mode communications?
    • A. 

      Quick mode negotiations

    • B. 

      Quick mode messages

    • C. 

      Main mode negotiations

    • D. 

      Main mode messages

  • 58. 
    What is the default authentication protocol in an Active Directory network?
    • A. 

      Kerberos v5

    • B. 

      LM Authentication

    • C. 

      NTLM Authentication

    • D. 

      NtLMv2 Authentication

  • 59. 
    DHCP is the only NAP enforcement method that can be deployed in a non-Active Directory enviornment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 60. 
    Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista, and Windows XP with Service Pack 3 all have a built-in NAP client, and third-party vendors can use the NAP API to write additional clients for additional operating systems, such as Macintosh and Linux computers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    DHCP is the only NAP enforcement method that can be deployed in a non-Active Directory environment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista, and Windows XP with Service Pack 3 all have a built-in NAP client, and third-party vendors can use the NAP API to wirte additional clients for additional operating systems, such as Macintosh and Linux computers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    Depending on the configuration item that is vbeing monitored for compliance, automediation may not be possible.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Which digital document contains identifying information about a particular user, computer, service, and so on?
    • A. 

      Digital signature

    • B. 

      Digital certificate

    • C. 

      Certificate revocation list

    • D. 

      Smart card

  • 65. 
    Which service responds to requests from clients concerning the revocation status of a particular certificate, sending back a digitally signed response indicting the certificate's current status?
    • A. 

      Web enrollment

    • B. 

      Network Device Enrollment Service

    • C. 

      Online Responder

    • D. 

      Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

  • 66. 
    Which of the following is not a privilege granted to certificate managers?
    • A. 

      Modify Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL) publication schedules

    • B. 

      Recover archived keys

    • C. 

      Issue, approve, deny revoke, reactivate, and renew certificates

    • D. 

      Read records and configuration information in the CA database

  • 67. 
    Who maintains information about the health of the NAP client computer and transmits information between teh NAP Enforcement Clients and theSystem Health Agents?
    • A. 

      Health Registration Authority

    • B. 

      System GHealth Agent

    • C. 

      NAP Agent

    • D. 

      System Health Validator

  • 68. 
    A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is referred to as a NAP _______________
    • A. 

      Agent

    • B. 

      Enforcement point

    • C. 

      Enforcement server

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 69. 
    Depending on the enforcemetn method in use, a NAP enforcement point can take a number of different forms, such as what?
    • A. 

      802.1X-capable Wireless Access Point for 802.1X enforcement

    • B. 

      Health Registration Authority (HRA) that can obtain health certificates from client computers when the IPSec endorcement method is used

    • C. 

      Windows Server 2008 DHCP server for theDHCP enforcemetn method

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 70. 
    Which enforcement method allows authorized remote uses to connect to resources on an internal corporate or private network from any Internet-connected device?
    • A. 

      Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) enforcement

    • B. 

      VPN enforcement

    • C. 

      802.1X enforcement

    • D. 

      Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) enforcement

  • 71. 
    The IPSec NAP enforcement method relies on which type of PKI certificate to perform its enforcements?
    • A. 

      IPSec certificate

    • B. 

      NAP certificate

    • C. 

      Health certificate

    • D. 

      Recovery certificate

  • 72. 
    The NPS service combines each Statement of Health Response into what?
    • A. 

      System Statement of Health Response

    • B. 

      System Statement of Health Requirement

    • C. 

      Statement of Health Requirement

    • D. 

      System Statement of Health Policy

  • 73. 
    Which feature enables users to request their own PKI certificates, typically through a Web browser?
    • A. 

      Self-enrollment

    • B. 

      Recovery agents

    • C. 

      Autoenrollment

    • D. 

      Web enrollment

  • 74. 
    Which element of Active Directory Certificate Services utilizes the Online Certificate Status Protocol to act in response to client requests?
    • A. 

      NDES

    • B. 

      Subordinate CA

    • C. 

      Certificate Revocation List

    • D. 

      Online Responder

  • 75. 
    In a PKI, each user/computer possesses a piece of information that is known only to the individual user or computer that is called a _______________
    • A. 

      Public key

    • B. 

      Private packet

    • C. 

      Private key

    • D. 

      Shared secret key

  • 76. 
    When users accidentally overwrite or delete files, they can accessthe shadow copies to restore earlie versions.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 77. 
    When the storage limit of your Shadow Copies of Shared Folders is reached, older versions of shadow copies will be deleted without any means of restoring them.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    Windows automatically makes a user the owner of all files that he or she cretes on a server volume.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    Which optional role service is part of the File Server role that allows administrators to configure advanced fiel server functionality such as disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota activities?
    • A. 

      File Server Manager

    • B. 

      File Server Resource Manager

    • C. 

      File Resource Manager

    • D. 

      Server Resource Manager

  • 80. 
    What does the Windows Server Backup feature use to perform file and volume-level backups?
    • A. 

      Server Backup Copies

    • B. 

      Shadow Backup Copies

    • C. 

      Volume Backup Copies

    • D. 

      Volume Shadow Copies

  • 81. 
    Shadow Copies of Shared Folders creates files that are tored on file shares on Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008 file servers by using what type of copies?
    • A. 

      Minute-in-time

    • B. 

      Point-in-time

    • C. 

      Ghost

    • D. 

      Shadow

  • 82. 
    Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled at which level?
    • A. 

      Volume

    • B. 

      File

    • C. 

      User

    • D. 

      Network

  • 83. 
    What is the minimum amount of space you must allocate to store shadow copies?
    • A. 

      200MB

    • B. 

      250MB

    • C. 

      300MB

    • D. 

      350MB

  • 84. 
    Upload your response
  • 85. 
    The File Server Resource Manager console was first introduced in which product?
    • A. 

      Windows NT

    • B. 

      Windows Server 2003

    • C. 

      Windows Server 2003 R2

    • D. 

      Windows Server 2008

  • 86. 
    NFTS quotas are limited to controlling storage on entire volumes on what basis?
    • A. 

      Per user

    • B. 

      Group

    • C. 

      Network

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 87. 
    If you wish to perform backups from the command line, what will you need to install?
    • A. 

      Windows PowerShell

    • B. 

      Windows Server Backup

    • C. 

      Windows Server Core

    • D. 

      Windows Server Manager Console

  • 88. 
    When the restore operation finds files and folders in the recovery location, the restore can do one of these things.  Which of the following is not an option?
    • A. 

      Write

    • B. 

      Create

    • C. 

      Overwrite

    • D. 

      Do not recover

  • 89. 
    What type of backup is supported by Windows Server 2008?
    • A. 

      Dynamic

    • B. 

      Automatic

    • C. 

      Manual

    • D. 

      None of the above