3a051: Knowledge Operations Management Journeyman! Trivia Quiz
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- 1.Commanders and staff agency chiefs take what type of program to protect the rights of the government and persons directly affected by AF actions/
- A.
Strong senior leaders
- B.
Monthly destruction efforts
- C.
Records management program
- D.
Efficient information management procedures
- 2.How often must the command records manager review each base records management program?
- A.
Every 12 months
- B.
Every 18 months
- C.
Every 24 months
- D.
Every 36 months
- 3.Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained withing
- A.
1 month
- B.
3 months
- C.
4 months
- D.
6 months
- 4.Who maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records?
- A.
Records custodian
- B.
Base records manager
- C.
Chief of the office of record
- D.
Functional area records manager
- 5.What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?
- A.
Plan of action
- B.
Memo for record
- C.
Air force instruciton
- D.
HQ operating instruction
- 6.Where should copies of vital records be stored?
- A.
Federal records center that services your area
- B.
At the MAJCOM HQ or parent organization
- C.
Another office in the same facility that is not accessible to the general public
- D.
Facility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible.
- 7.What is specifically responsible for automating the preparation and maintenance of the files maintainance and disposition plan?
- A.
Electronic transaction system
- B.
AF records disposition schedule
- C.
AF records management program
- D.
AF records information management system
- 8.The records information management system's files maintenance and disposition plan lists all of the following except
- A.
The record's cutoff period
- B.
The disposition authorities
- C.
The location of each record series
- D.
All record series for the office of record
- 9.What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?
- A.
Finding the table and rule for each record series
- B.
Getting your office in the records information management system
- C.
Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining
- D.
Organizing the records with the files referenced most towards the front of the cabinet
- 10.What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
- A.
File folders
- B.
Subdivision labels
- C.
Locator guide cards
- D.
Disposition guide cards
- 11.
- A.
The same guide card
- B.
Separate guide cards
- C.
The first record in the file
- D.
The interior of the file folder
- 12.Where are labels placed on the file folders?
- A.
On the left
- B.
On the right
- C.
Consistently
- D.
In the center
- 13.Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
- A.
The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01
- B.
To help retrieve filed documents efficiently
- C.
It's the table of contents for the filing system
- D.
The filing system doesn't identify the file plan
- 14.What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?
- A.
File plan
- B.
Directory
- C.
Memo for record
- D.
Cross reference sheet
- 15.What must you use to control the loan of records?
- A.
AF form 614, charge out record
- B.
AF form 845, cross connection information
- C.
DoD form 2861, cross reference
- D.
AF form 388, communication control record
- 16.What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
- A.
Period of time the record is needed
- B.
Number of copies the individual will make
- C.
Determine how many people will have access to the records
- D.
Frequency of reference to the requested material
- 17.Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except
- A.
Physically stop adding records to a series
- B.
Separating active records to a series
- C.
Transfer of eligible records to the records staging area
- D.
Point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file
- 18.On what is disposition based?
- A.
Time period or event
- B.
Specific action or disposition
- C.
Diposal method or time period
- D.
Retention period or specific action
- 19.How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of AF records?
- A.
Preservation of classified records
- B.
Economic and efficient management
- C.
Enduring value for temporary records
- D.
Reference tools for commander's decision
- 20.Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?
- A.
AF records manager
- B.
Economic and efficient management
- C.
Enduring value for temporary records
- D.
Reference tools for commander's decisions
- 21.
- A.
Sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period
- B.
Cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity
- C.
Cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual
- D.
Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred.
- 22.Who does the OPR submit and AF IMT 525. records disposition recommendation to?
- A.
Records manager
- B.
Records custodian
- C.
Command records manager
- D.
Functional area records manager
- 23.What type of records does the staging area store?
- A.
Perpetual and temporary
- B.
Perpetual and transitory
- C.
Permanent and temp
- D.
Permanent and transitory
- 24.How much remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?
- A.
2 years or more
- B.
3 years or more
- C.
8 years or more
- D.
9 years or more
- 25.What type of records does the SF 135, records transmittal and receipt, identify?
- A.
Records for transfer to another organization only
- B.
Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only
- C.
Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only
- D.
Retirement to a federal center, staging center, or transfer to another org
- 26.What should be done when shipping classified and unclassified records?
- A.
Separate the records before shipping
- B.
Combine the records to save on shipping cost
- C.
Classified records cannot be ship from a deployed location
- D.
Combine the records and annotate the records transmittal and receipt form
- 27.How are electronic records maintained in a deployed location?
- A.
According to each individual computer user
- B.
According to the records disposition schedule
- C.
As described in the vital records operating plan
- D.
In accordance with the DoD electronic records disposition tables
- 28.What does the staging area reviews to determine what records are eleigible for disposal?
- A.
Disposition control label
- B.
Records disposition schedule
- C.
SF form 135, records transmittal and receipt
- D.
AF IMT 310, document receipt and destruction certificate
- 29.How are magnetic medium and tapes disposed of?
- A.
Degauss or overwirite
- B.
Through the base recycling program
- C.
Return tot eh communications squadron for destruction
- D.
Through the DRMO office
- 30.To recycle Privacy Act material, what must recycling contracts include?
- A.
Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction?
- B.
Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials
- C.
Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination
- D.
Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials
- 31.Data in a form that can be read and processed by a computer and satisifies the legal definition of a record is a/an
- A.
Analog record
- B.
Computer record
- C.
Electronic record
- D.
Controlled record
- 32.Who places official records in electronic file areas?
- A.
Users
- B.
Records custodian
- C.
Base records manager
- D.
Functional area records manager
- 33.Who should read only records access rights be given to?
- A.
Only records custodians
- B.
Official electronic records managers
- C.
Personnel who have a need to know
- D.
No one, records cannot be marked as read only in electronic records management
- 34.How must your electronic and paper filing systems function?
- A.
Jointly
- B.
Independent
- C.
Electronic systems must be stand-alone computer systems
- D.
Paper systems may not duplicate any portion of the electronic system
- 35.What is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?
- A.
5,000
- B.
10,000
- C.
15,000
- D.
20,000
- 36.To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collections and reports management programs
- A.
Goal
- B.
Mission
- C.
Purpose
- D.
Objective
- 37.What is the fundamental policy for information collections and reports
- A.
Establish procedures for all collection actions
- B.
Collect information through formal reports
- C.
Assign internal reports control symbol
- D.
Control and minimize the burden
- 38.What do the letters and numbers of a reports control symbol indicate?
- A.
The report has been reviewed end approved
- B.
The validity of the report and expiration date
- C.
The category of the report and its submission timeline
- D.
The frequency of submission and the approval authority
- 39.What is the most effective and economical way to state policies and procedures
- A.
E-mail
- B.
Publications
- C.
Intern messages
- D.
Official memo's
- 40.As technology advances, to what type of publishing system is the AF migrating?
- A.
DoD wide
- B.
AF wide
- C.
Joint publications
- D.
Electronic publications
- 41.Who evaluates and approves request to establish special publication systems
- A.
Local commander
- B.
Publications manager
- C.
Office of primary responsibility
- D.
Functional area records manger
- 42.As a rule, how many days is the maximum a temporary visual aid should be displayed?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
- 43.
- A.
Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications
- B.
Mission-related need only
- C.
Defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications
- D.
Access to an official electronic source of publications
- 44.In which section of Part I of the AF publishing product announcement would you find general information?
- A.
Section A
- B.
Section B
- C.
Section C
- D.
Section D
- 45.Which distribution symbol is for classified publications and stocked and issued by the OPR?
- A.
F
- B.
L
- C.
X
- D.
None, classified publications have no distribution symbol
- 46.What type of distribution will not be placed on the AF publishing web site?
- A.
F and L
- B.
L and X
- C.
F and X
- D.
F, X and L
- 47.Which distribution symbol is the most widely used?
- A.
F
- B.
L
- C.
X
- D.
F;X
- 48.
- A.
Is destroyed
- B.
Is superseded also
- C.
Automatically stays in effect
- D.
Is posted to the new publication
- 49.
- A.
Never; biennial reviews are always required
- B.
If a special review was performed within the last 90 days
- C.
If the publication has been identified to be revised
- D.
If the publication has been identified to be rescinded
- 50.In which section of Part II of the product announcement would you information on salvage, disposal, or replacement?
- A.
Section A
- B.
Section B
- C.
Section C
- D.
Section D
- 51.Who establishes standards and methods for analyzing, categorizing, designing, controlling, producing, and maintaining all departmental forms?
- A.
AF forms manager
- B.
AF departmental publishing office
- C.
AF departmental publishing center
- D.
Director of communications and information
- 52.Who has the responsibility to conduct a forms review every 2 years based on the creation date of a form?
- A.
Major command
- B.
Base forms manager
- C.
Office of primary responsibility
- D.
AF departmental publishing office
- 53.What type of form is used in two or more staff offices of a headquarters?
- A.
Field
- B.
Office
- C.
Headquarters
- D.
Departmental
- 54.Which of the following is not a basis for a form's biennial review?
- A.
Date of creation
- B.
Revision of form
- C.
Date electronically released
- D.
Revision of prescribing directives
- 55.Who initiates special and reprint forms reviews on an "as needed" basic?
- A.
OPR
- B.
Forms manager
- C.
Records manager
- D.
Publishing distribution office
- 56.What type of IMT change affect the visual and physical image?
- A.
Master
- B.
Routine
- C.
Version
- D.
Revision
- 57.How should responses to requests for information from news media representatives be handled?
- A.
Discouraged to eliminate privacy act violations
- B.
Discouraged so they can then follow the proper FOIA channel
- C.
Encouraged to invoke the information collection reports control system
- D.
Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA
- 58.Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a FOIA request?
- A.
Office of primary responsibility
- B.
Disclosure authority
- C.
FOIA manger
- D.
Requestor
- 59.Who is the focal point for the FOIA portion of the installation web site?
- A.
FOIA manager
- B.
System manager
- C.
Installation commander
- D.
Director, communication and information
- 60.
- A.
All assessable costs are $15.00 or less
- B.
A new record is compiled for the requestor
- C.
Only a portion of the requested records are released
- D.
The requestor has applied for a fee waiver/reduction
- 61.
- A.
10 working days
- B.
20 working days
- C.
10 calendar days
- D.
20 calendar days
- 62.Which of the following is not a FOIA exemption?
- A.
Financial institutions
- B.
Investigative records
- C.
Administrative rules and practices
- D.
Internal personnel rules and practices
- 63.Who, on a base, completes the DD form 2564, annual report freedom of information act?
- A.
Records OPR
- B.
Base FOIA manager
- C.
Organizational commanders
- D.
Director, communication and information
- 64.Privacy Act officers are responsible for
- A.
Deciding the need for and content of systems
- B.
Preparing system notices and reports
- C.
Answering the privacy act requests
- D.
Investigating complaints
- 65.
- A.
System manger
- B.
Privacy act officer
- C.
Privacy act monitor
- D.
AF employees
- 66.What type of request allows other AF directives to give individuals access to PA records?
- A.
Official
- B.
Directed
- C.
Functional
- D.
Informational
- 67.Which element of PA statement provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DoD?
- A.
Purpose
- B.
Authority
- C.
Disclosure
- D.
Routine uses
- 68.What penalty can be imposed on an individual for making an unauthorized disclosure of PA information?
- A.
5,000 fine
- B.
10,000 fine
- C.
5,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisionment
- D.
10,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment
- 69.Which type of personal information can be given to third parties without the individual's consent?
- A.
Martial status
- B.
Home of record
- C.
Past duty assignments
- D.
Gross salary of military personnel
- 70.What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosures of PA information?
- A.
Release information only to senior NCOs and officers
- B.
Question all requestors on the purpose of the request
- C.
Use additional security measures, regardless of cost
- D.
Verify the identity of requestors
- 71.What is used to determine the disposal of PA records?
- A.
For official use only register
- B.
Squadron policy
- C.
Records retention schedule
- D.
Privacy act disposition list
- 72.Why is a transfer of large quantities of PA records in buld to the DRMO not considered a release of personal information?
- A.
The contract covers transfer of PA information
- B.
DRMO is a government agency
- C.
Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific individual records
- D.
All DRMO personnel are designated representatives
- 73.
- A.
When they are created
- B.
In review for release
- C.
Only when they are sent off base
- D.
When someone asks to see the markings
- 74.What exemptions must information marked FOUO meets under the FIA or it cannot be withheld?
- A.
1 and 9
- B.
1 through 9
- C.
2 and 9
- D.
2 through 9
- 75.What protection is applied to FOUO documents during normal duty hours?
- A.
Place them in an out of sight location
- B.
Cover them with a classified storage container
- C.
Lock them in a classified storage container
- D.
Personnel should keep them in their possession at all times.
- 76.What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of FOUO records occurs?
- A.
Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization
- B.
Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization
- C.
Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization
- D.
Notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurrrence
- 77.In order to deliver a clear message, you should use sentences that are no longer than
- A.
15 words
- B.
20 words
- C.
30 words
- D.
40 words
- 78.What is the main difference between an official memorandum and a personal letter?
- A.
Audience
- B.
Content
- C.
Format
- D.
Style
- 79.What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
- A.
Brief
- B.
Official
- C.
Explanatory
- D.
Separate page
- 80.Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are
- A.
Briefings
- B.
Position papers
- C.
Background papers
- D.
Memorandums for record
- 81.Who is responsible for safeguarding his or her common access card and their personal identification pin?
- A.
User
- B.
Commander
- C.
Security officer
- D.
System administrator
- 82.Who ensures that action offices package and address communications correctly and that essential mailing elements stand out?
- A.
Base information transfer center
- B.
Activity distribution office
- C.
Official mail manager
- D.
Activity action officer
- 83.What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?
- A.
Place in an opaque container and have the highest ranking individual take it home
- B.
Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly
- C.
Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding
- D.
Seal container and store in a classified storage container
- 84.Which mail class if for use only by authorized publishers and registered newsagents?
- A.
Priority
- B.
First class
- C.
Periodicals
- D.
Standard mail
- 85.What type of security classification involves informaiton that is extrated or paraphased?
- A.
Original
- B.
Compiled
- C.
Derivative
- D.
Consolidated
- 86.Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?
- A.
Processor
- B.
Commander
- C.
Security manager
- D.
Original classifier
- 87.Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times?
- A.
Custodians
- B.
Commanders
- C.
Information managers
- D.
Top secret control officers
- 88.What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?
- A.
Place in a manila folder and keep it with the person with the highest rank
- B.
Notify security forces upon removal of information from the container
- C.
Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with a cover sheet
- D.
Classified information should not be removed from an approved storage container
- 89.The purpose of conducting end of day security checks in units that process classifed information is to ensure
- A.
The facility locked
- B.
Classified accounts are inventoried
- C.
All checklists are properly initialed
- D.
Classified information is stored appropriately
- 90.What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
- A.
Sanction
- B.
Violation
- C.
Infraction
- D.
Compromise
- 91.Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations?
- A.
Give information on the source
- B.
Provide guidance on disposition of records
- C.
Alert holders to the presence of classified information
- D.
Show special access, control, or safeguarding requirements
- 92.Where is the overall classification placed on slides and transparencies?
- A.
Image area of the item only
- B.
Border, holder, or frame only
- C.
Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame
- D.
Image area of the item and on the accompanying documentation
- 93.What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container form the sender through the base information transfer system into the US postal service, and on to the receiver?
- A.
AF form 12, accountable container receipt, and AF form 12, accountable container receipt
- B.
AF form 74, communicaiton status notice/request, and AF form 12, accountable container receipt
- C.
Container numbers and AF form 310, document receipt and destruction certificate
- D.
Container number and AF form 12, accountable container receipt
- 94.The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them
- A.
Insured
- B.
Express
- C.
Certified
- D.
Registered
- 95.
- A.
Unit top secret control officer
- B.
Office that is to take action on it
- C.
Base information security program manager
- D.
Specific person identified as the point of contact
- 96.Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?
- A.
Installation commander
- B.
Central destruction activity
- C.
Support group commander
- D.
Base information management
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