3A051: Knowledge Operations Management Journeyman! Trivia Quiz
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3a051: Knowledge Operations Management, Journeyman Trivia Quiz. In this quiz, a journeyman gets to review what they learned about managing the operation for the soldiers both in the field and awaiting deployment. If you fail to understand, at least half the marks consider it a sign to dig deeper into your course work, then take the quiz again.
- 1.Commanders and staff agency chiefs take what type of program to protect the rights of the government and persons directly affected by AF actions/
- A.
Strong senior leaders
- B.
Monthly destruction efforts
- C.
Records management program
- D.
Efficient information management procedures
- 2.How often must the command records manager review each base records management program?
- A.
Every 12 months
- B.
Every 18 months
- C.
Every 24 months
- D.
Every 36 months
- 3.Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained withing
- A.
1 month
- B.
3 months
- C.
4 months
- D.
6 months
- 4.Who maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records?
- A.
Records custodian
- B.
Base records manager
- C.
Chief of the office of record
- D.
Functional area records manager
- 5.What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?
- A.
Plan of action
- B.
Memo for record
- C.
Air force instruciton
- D.
HQ operating instruction
- 6.Where should copies of vital records be stored?
- A.
Federal records center that services your area
- B.
At the MAJCOM HQ or parent organization
- C.
Another office in the same facility that is not accessible to the general public
- D.
Facility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible.
- 7.What is specifically responsible for automating the preparation and maintenance of the files maintainance and disposition plan?
- A.
Electronic transaction system
- B.
AF records disposition schedule
- C.
AF records management program
- D.
AF records information management system
- 8.The records information management system's files maintenance and disposition plan lists all of the following except
- A.
The record's cutoff period
- B.
The disposition authorities
- C.
The location of each record series
- D.
All record series for the office of record
- 9.What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?
- A.
Finding the table and rule for each record series
- B.
Getting your office in the records information management system
- C.
Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining
- D.
Organizing the records with the files referenced most towards the front of the cabinet
- 10.What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
- A.
File folders
- B.
Subdivision labels
- C.
Locator guide cards
- D.
Disposition guide cards
- 11.
- A.
The same guide card
- B.
Separate guide cards
- C.
The first record in the file
- D.
The interior of the file folder
- 12.Where are labels placed on the file folders?
- A.
On the left
- B.
On the right
- C.
Consistently
- D.
In the center
- 13.Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
- A.
The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01
- B.
To help retrieve filed documents efficiently
- C.
It's the table of contents for the filing system
- D.
The filing system doesn't identify the file plan
- 14.What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?
- A.
File plan
- B.
Directory
- C.
Memo for record
- D.
Cross reference sheet
- 15.What must you use to control the loan of records?
- A.
AF form 614, charge out record
- B.
AF form 845, cross connection information
- C.
DoD form 2861, cross reference
- D.
AF form 388, communication control record
- 16.What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
- A.
Period of time the record is needed
- B.
Number of copies the individual will make
- C.
Determine how many people will have access to the records
- D.
Frequency of reference to the requested material
- 17.Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except
- A.
Physically stop adding records to a series
- B.
Separating active records to a series
- C.
Transfer of eligible records to the records staging area
- D.
Point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file
- 18.On what is disposition based?
- A.
Time period or event
- B.
Specific action or disposition
- C.
Diposal method or time period
- D.
Retention period or specific action
- 19.How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of AF records?
- A.
Preservation of classified records
- B.
Economic and efficient management
- C.
Enduring value for temporary records
- D.
Reference tools for commander's decision
- 20.Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?
- A.
AF records manager
- B.
Economic and efficient management
- C.
Enduring value for temporary records
- D.
Reference tools for commander's decisions
- 21.
- A.
Sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period
- B.
Cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity
- C.
Cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual
- D.
Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred.
- 22.Who does the OPR submit and AF IMT 525. records disposition recommendation to?
- A.
Records manager
- B.
Records custodian
- C.
Command records manager
- D.
Functional area records manager
- 23.What type of records does the staging area store?
- A.
Perpetual and temporary
- B.
Perpetual and transitory
- C.
Permanent and temp
- D.
Permanent and transitory
- 24.How much remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?
- A.
2 years or more
- B.
3 years or more
- C.
8 years or more
- D.
9 years or more
- 25.What type of records does the SF 135, records transmittal and receipt, identify?
- A.
Records for transfer to another organization only
- B.
Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only
- C.
Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only
- D.
Retirement to a federal center, staging center, or transfer to another org
- 26.What should be done when shipping classified and unclassified records?
- A.
Separate the records before shipping
- B.
Combine the records to save on shipping cost
- C.
Classified records cannot be ship from a deployed location
- D.
Combine the records and annotate the records transmittal and receipt form
- 27.How are electronic records maintained in a deployed location?
- A.
According to each individual computer user
- B.
According to the records disposition schedule
- C.
As described in the vital records operating plan
- D.
In accordance with the DoD electronic records disposition tables
- 28.What does the staging area reviews to determine what records are eleigible for disposal?
- A.
Disposition control label
- B.
Records disposition schedule
- C.
SF form 135, records transmittal and receipt
- D.
AF IMT 310, document receipt and destruction certificate
- 29.How are magnetic medium and tapes disposed of?
- A.
Degauss or overwirite
- B.
Through the base recycling program
- C.
Return tot eh communications squadron for destruction
- D.
Through the DRMO office
- 30.To recycle Privacy Act material, what must recycling contracts include?
- A.
Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction?
- B.
Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials
- C.
Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination
- D.
Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials
- 31.Data in a form that can be read and processed by a computer and satisifies the legal definition of a record is a/an
- A.
Analog record
- B.
Computer record
- C.
Electronic record
- D.
Controlled record
- 32.Who places official records in electronic file areas?
- A.
Users
- B.
Records custodian
- C.
Base records manager
- D.
Functional area records manager
- 33.Who should read only records access rights be given to?
- A.
Only records custodians
- B.
Official electronic records managers
- C.
Personnel who have a need to know
- D.
No one, records cannot be marked as read only in electronic records management
- 34.How must your electronic and paper filing systems function?
- A.
Jointly
- B.
Independent
- C.
Electronic systems must be stand-alone computer systems
- D.
Paper systems may not duplicate any portion of the electronic system
- 35.What is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?
- A.
5,000
- B.
10,000
- C.
15,000
- D.
20,000
- 36.To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collections and reports management programs
- A.
Goal
- B.
Mission
- C.
Purpose
- D.
Objective
- 37.What is the fundamental policy for information collections and reports
- A.
Establish procedures for all collection actions
- B.
Collect information through formal reports
- C.
Assign internal reports control symbol
- D.
Control and minimize the burden
- 38.What do the letters and numbers of a reports control symbol indicate?
- A.
The report has been reviewed end approved
- B.
The validity of the report and expiration date
- C.
The category of the report and its submission timeline
- D.
The frequency of submission and the approval authority
- 39.What is the most effective and economical way to state policies and procedures
- A.
E-mail
- B.
Publications
- C.
Intern messages
- D.
Official memo's
- 40.As technology advances, to what type of publishing system is the AF migrating?
- A.
DoD wide
- B.
AF wide
- C.
Joint publications
- D.
Electronic publications
- 41.Who evaluates and approves request to establish special publication systems
- A.
Local commander
- B.
Publications manager
- C.
Office of primary responsibility
- D.
Functional area records manger
- 42.As a rule, how many days is the maximum a temporary visual aid should be displayed?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
- 43.
- A.
Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications
- B.
Mission-related need only
- C.
Defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications
- D.
Access to an official electronic source of publications
- 44.In which section of Part I of the AF publishing product announcement would you find general information?
- A.
Section A
- B.
Section B
- C.
Section C
- D.
Section D
- 45.Which distribution symbol is for classified publications and stocked and issued by the OPR?
- A.
F
- B.
L
- C.
X
- D.
None, classified publications have no distribution symbol
- 46.What type of distribution will not be placed on the AF publishing web site?
- A.
F and L
- B.
L and X
- C.
F and X
- D.
F, X and L
- 47.Which distribution symbol is the most widely used?
- A.
F
- B.
L
- C.
X
- D.
F;X
- 48.
- A.
Is destroyed
- B.
Is superseded also
- C.
Automatically stays in effect
- D.
Is posted to the new publication
- 49.
- A.
Never; biennial reviews are always required
- B.
If a special review was performed within the last 90 days
- C.
If the publication has been identified to be revised
- D.
If the publication has been identified to be rescinded
- 50.In which section of Part II of the product announcement would you information on salvage, disposal, or replacement?
- A.
Section A
- B.
Section B
- C.
Section C
- D.
Section D
- 51.Who establishes standards and methods for analyzing, categorizing, designing, controlling, producing, and maintaining all departmental forms?
- A.
AF forms manager
- B.
AF departmental publishing office
- C.
AF departmental publishing center
- D.
Director of communications and information
- 52.Who has the responsibility to conduct a forms review every 2 years based on the creation date of a form?
- A.
Major command
- B.
Base forms manager
- C.
Office of primary responsibility
- D.
AF departmental publishing office
- 53.What type of form is used in two or more staff offices of a headquarters?
- A.
Field
- B.
Office
- C.
Headquarters
- D.
Departmental
- 54.Which of the following is not a basis for a form's biennial review?
- A.
Date of creation
- B.
Revision of form
- C.
Date electronically released
- D.
Revision of prescribing directives
- 55.Who initiates special and reprint forms reviews on an "as needed" basic?
- A.
OPR
- B.
Forms manager
- C.
Records manager
- D.
Publishing distribution office
- 56.What type of IMT change affect the visual and physical image?
- A.
Master
- B.
Routine
- C.
Version
- D.
Revision
- 57.How should responses to requests for information from news media representatives be handled?
- A.
Discouraged to eliminate privacy act violations
- B.
Discouraged so they can then follow the proper FOIA channel
- C.
Encouraged to invoke the information collection reports control system
- D.
Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA
- 58.Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a FOIA request?
- A.
Office of primary responsibility
- B.
Disclosure authority
- C.
FOIA manger
- D.
Requestor
- 59.Who is the focal point for the FOIA portion of the installation web site?
- A.
FOIA manager
- B.
System manager
- C.
Installation commander
- D.
Director, communication and information
- 60.
- A.
All assessable costs are $15.00 or less
- B.
A new record is compiled for the requestor
- C.
Only a portion of the requested records are released
- D.
The requestor has applied for a fee waiver/reduction
- 61.
- A.
10 working days
- B.
20 working days
- C.
10 calendar days
- D.
20 calendar days
- 62.Which of the following is not a FOIA exemption?
- A.
Financial institutions
- B.
Investigative records
- C.
Administrative rules and practices
- D.
Internal personnel rules and practices
- 63.Who, on a base, completes the DD form 2564, annual report freedom of information act?
- A.
Records OPR
- B.
Base FOIA manager
- C.
Organizational commanders
- D.
Director, communication and information
- 64.Privacy Act officers are responsible for
- A.
Deciding the need for and content of systems
- B.
Preparing system notices and reports
- C.
Answering the privacy act requests
- D.
Investigating complaints
- 65.
- A.
System manger
- B.
Privacy act officer
- C.
Privacy act monitor
- D.
AF employees
- 66.What type of request allows other AF directives to give individuals access to PA records?
- A.
Official
- B.
Directed
- C.
Functional
- D.
Informational
- 67.Which element of PA statement provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DoD?
- A.
Purpose
- B.
Authority
- C.
Disclosure
- D.
Routine uses
- 68.What penalty can be imposed on an individual for making an unauthorized disclosure of PA information?
- A.
5,000 fine
- B.
10,000 fine
- C.
5,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisionment
- D.
10,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment
- 69.Which type of personal information can be given to third parties without the individual's consent?
- A.
Martial status
- B.
Home of record
- C.
Past duty assignments
- D.
Gross salary of military personnel
- 70.What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosures of PA information?
- A.
Release information only to senior NCOs and officers
- B.
Question all requestors on the purpose of the request
- C.
Use additional security measures, regardless of cost
- D.
Verify the identity of requestors
- 71.What is used to determine the disposal of PA records?
- A.
For official use only register
- B.
Squadron policy
- C.
Records retention schedule
- D.
Privacy act disposition list
- 72.Why is a transfer of large quantities of PA records in buld to the DRMO not considered a release of personal information?
- A.
The contract covers transfer of PA information
- B.
DRMO is a government agency
- C.
Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific individual records
- D.
All DRMO personnel are designated representatives
- 73.
- A.
When they are created
- B.
In review for release
- C.
Only when they are sent off base
- D.
When someone asks to see the markings
- 74.What exemptions must information marked FOUO meets under the FIA or it cannot be withheld?
- A.
1 and 9
- B.
1 through 9
- C.
2 and 9
- D.
2 through 9
- 75.What protection is applied to FOUO documents during normal duty hours?
- A.
Place them in an out of sight location
- B.
Cover them with a classified storage container
- C.
Lock them in a classified storage container
- D.
Personnel should keep them in their possession at all times.
- 76.What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of FOUO records occurs?
- A.
Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization
- B.
Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization
- C.
Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization
- D.
Notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurrrence
- 77.In order to deliver a clear message, you should use sentences that are no longer than
- A.
15 words
- B.
20 words
- C.
30 words
- D.
40 words
- 78.What is the main difference between an official memorandum and a personal letter?
- A.
Audience
- B.
Content
- C.
Format
- D.
Style
- 79.What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
- A.
Brief
- B.
Official
- C.
Explanatory
- D.
Separate page
- 80.Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are
- A.
Briefings
- B.
Position papers
- C.
Background papers
- D.
Memorandums for record
- 81.Who is responsible for safeguarding his or her common access card and their personal identification pin?
- A.
User
- B.
Commander
- C.
Security officer
- D.
System administrator
- 82.Who ensures that action offices package and address communications correctly and that essential mailing elements stand out?
- A.
Base information transfer center
- B.
Activity distribution office
- C.
Official mail manager
- D.
Activity action officer
- 83.What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?
- A.
Place in an opaque container and have the highest ranking individual take it home
- B.
Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly
- C.
Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding
- D.
Seal container and store in a classified storage container
- 84.Which mail class if for use only by authorized publishers and registered newsagents?
- A.
Priority
- B.
First class
- C.
Periodicals
- D.
Standard mail
- 85.What type of security classification involves informaiton that is extrated or paraphased?
- A.
Original
- B.
Compiled
- C.
Derivative
- D.
Consolidated
- 86.Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?
- A.
Processor
- B.
Commander
- C.
Security manager
- D.
Original classifier
- 87.Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times?
- A.
Custodians
- B.
Commanders
- C.
Information managers
- D.
Top secret control officers
- 88.What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?
- A.
Place in a manila folder and keep it with the person with the highest rank
- B.
Notify security forces upon removal of information from the container
- C.
Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with a cover sheet
- D.
Classified information should not be removed from an approved storage container
- 89.The purpose of conducting end of day security checks in units that process classifed information is to ensure
- A.
The facility locked
- B.
Classified accounts are inventoried
- C.
All checklists are properly initialed
- D.
Classified information is stored appropriately
- 90.What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
- A.
Sanction
- B.
Violation
- C.
Infraction
- D.
Compromise
- 91.Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations?
- A.
Give information on the source
- B.
Provide guidance on disposition of records
- C.
Alert holders to the presence of classified information
- D.
Show special access, control, or safeguarding requirements
- 92.Where is the overall classification placed on slides and transparencies?
- A.
Image area of the item only
- B.
Border, holder, or frame only
- C.
Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame
- D.
Image area of the item and on the accompanying documentation
- 93.What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container form the sender through the base information transfer system into the US postal service, and on to the receiver?
- A.
AF form 12, accountable container receipt, and AF form 12, accountable container receipt
- B.
AF form 74, communicaiton status notice/request, and AF form 12, accountable container receipt
- C.
Container numbers and AF form 310, document receipt and destruction certificate
- D.
Container number and AF form 12, accountable container receipt
- 94.The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them
- A.
Insured
- B.
Express
- C.
Certified
- D.
Registered
- 95.
- A.
Unit top secret control officer
- B.
Office that is to take action on it
- C.
Base information security program manager
- D.
Specific person identified as the point of contact
- 96.Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?
- A.
Installation commander
- B.
Central destruction activity
- C.
Support group commander
- D.
Base information management
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