3a051: Knowledge Operations Management Journeyman! Trivia Quiz

96 Questions

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3a051: Knowledge Operations Management Journeyman! Trivia Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Commanders and staff agency chiefs take what type of program to protect the rights of the government and persons directly affected by AF actions/
    • A. 

      Strong senior leaders

    • B. 

      Monthly destruction efforts

    • C. 

      Records management program

    • D. 

      Efficient information management procedures

  • 2. 
    How often must the command records manager review each base records management program?
    • A. 

      Every 12 months

    • B. 

      Every 18 months

    • C. 

      Every 24 months

    • D. 

      Every 36 months

  • 3. 
    Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained withing
    • A. 

      1 month

    • B. 

      3 months

    • C. 

      4 months

    • D. 

      6 months

  • 4. 
    Who maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records?
    • A. 

      Records custodian

    • B. 

      Base records manager

    • C. 

      Chief of the office of record

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager

  • 5. 
    What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?
    • A. 

      Plan of action

    • B. 

      Memo for record

    • C. 

      Air force instruciton

    • D. 

      HQ operating instruction

  • 6. 
    Where should copies of vital records be stored?
    • A. 

      Federal records center that services your area

    • B. 

      At the MAJCOM HQ or parent organization

    • C. 

      Another office in the same facility that is not accessible to the general public

    • D. 

      Facility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible.

  • 7. 
    What is specifically responsible for automating the preparation and maintenance of the files maintainance and disposition plan?
    • A. 

      Electronic transaction system

    • B. 

      AF records disposition schedule

    • C. 

      AF records management program

    • D. 

      AF records information management system

  • 8. 
    The records information management system's files maintenance and disposition plan lists all of the following except
    • A. 

      The record's cutoff period

    • B. 

      The disposition authorities

    • C. 

      The location of each record series

    • D. 

      All record series for the office of record

  • 9. 
    What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?
    • A. 

      Finding the table and rule for each record series

    • B. 

      Getting your office in the records information management system

    • C. 

      Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining

    • D. 

      Organizing the records with the files referenced most towards the front of the cabinet

  • 10. 
    What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
    • A. 

      File folders

    • B. 

      Subdivision labels

    • C. 

      Locator guide cards

    • D. 

      Disposition guide cards

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      The same guide card

    • B. 

      Separate guide cards

    • C. 

      The first record in the file

    • D. 

      The interior of the file folder

  • 12. 
    Where are labels placed on the file folders?
    • A. 

      On the left

    • B. 

      On the right

    • C. 

      Consistently

    • D. 

      In the center

  • 13. 
    Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
    • A. 

      The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01

    • B. 

      To help retrieve filed documents efficiently

    • C. 

      It's the table of contents for the filing system

    • D. 

      The filing system doesn't identify the file plan

  • 14. 
    What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?
    • A. 

      File plan

    • B. 

      Directory

    • C. 

      Memo for record

    • D. 

      Cross reference sheet

  • 15. 
    What must you use to control the loan of records?
    • A. 

      AF form 614, charge out record

    • B. 

      AF form 845, cross connection information

    • C. 

      DoD form 2861, cross reference

    • D. 

      AF form 388, communication control record

  • 16. 
    What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
    • A. 

      Period of time the record is needed

    • B. 

      Number of copies the individual will make

    • C. 

      Determine how many people will have access to the records

    • D. 

      Frequency of reference to the requested material

  • 17. 
    Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except
    • A. 

      Physically stop adding records to a series

    • B. 

      Separating active records to a series

    • C. 

      Transfer of eligible records to the records staging area

    • D. 

      Point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file

  • 18. 
    On what is disposition based?
    • A. 

      Time period or event

    • B. 

      Specific action or disposition

    • C. 

      Diposal method or time period

    • D. 

      Retention period or specific action

  • 19. 
    How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of AF records?
    • A. 

      Preservation of classified records

    • B. 

      Economic and efficient management

    • C. 

      Enduring value for temporary records

    • D. 

      Reference tools for commander's decision

  • 20. 
    Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?
    • A. 

      AF records manager

    • B. 

      Economic and efficient management

    • C. 

      Enduring value for temporary records

    • D. 

      Reference tools for commander's decisions

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period

    • B. 

      Cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity

    • C. 

      Cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual

    • D. 

      Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred.

  • 22. 
    Who does the OPR submit and AF IMT 525. records disposition recommendation to?
    • A. 

      Records manager

    • B. 

      Records custodian

    • C. 

      Command records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager

  • 23. 
    What type of records does the staging area store?
    • A. 

      Perpetual and temporary

    • B. 

      Perpetual and transitory

    • C. 

      Permanent and temp

    • D. 

      Permanent and transitory

  • 24. 
    How much remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?
    • A. 

      2 years or more

    • B. 

      3 years or more

    • C. 

      8 years or more

    • D. 

      9 years or more

  • 25. 
    What type of records does the SF 135, records transmittal and receipt, identify?
    • A. 

      Records for transfer to another organization only

    • B. 

      Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only

    • C. 

      Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only

    • D. 

      Retirement to a federal center, staging center, or transfer to another org

  • 26. 
    What should be done when shipping classified and unclassified records?
    • A. 

      Separate the records before shipping

    • B. 

      Combine the records to save on shipping cost

    • C. 

      Classified records cannot be ship from a deployed location

    • D. 

      Combine the records and annotate the records transmittal and receipt form

  • 27. 
    How are electronic records maintained in a deployed location?
    • A. 

      According to each individual computer user

    • B. 

      According to the records disposition schedule

    • C. 

      As described in the vital records operating plan

    • D. 

      In accordance with the DoD electronic records disposition tables

  • 28. 
    What does the staging area reviews to determine what records are eleigible for disposal?
    • A. 

      Disposition control label

    • B. 

      Records disposition schedule

    • C. 

      SF form 135, records transmittal and receipt

    • D. 

      AF IMT 310, document receipt and destruction certificate

  • 29. 
    How are magnetic medium and tapes disposed of?
    • A. 

      Degauss or overwirite

    • B. 

      Through the base recycling program

    • C. 

      Return tot eh communications squadron for destruction

    • D. 

      Through the DRMO office

  • 30. 
    To recycle Privacy Act material, what must recycling contracts include?
    • A. 

      Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction?

    • B. 

      Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials

    • C. 

      Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination

    • D. 

      Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials

  • 31. 
    Data in a form that can be read and processed by a computer and satisifies the legal definition of a record is a/an
    • A. 

      Analog record

    • B. 

      Computer record

    • C. 

      Electronic record

    • D. 

      Controlled record

  • 32. 
    Who places official records in electronic file areas?
    • A. 

      Users

    • B. 

      Records custodian

    • C. 

      Base records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager

  • 33. 
    Who should read only records access rights be given to?
    • A. 

      Only records custodians

    • B. 

      Official electronic records managers

    • C. 

      Personnel who have a need to know

    • D. 

      No one, records cannot be marked as read only in electronic records management

  • 34. 
    How must your electronic and paper filing systems function?
    • A. 

      Jointly

    • B. 

      Independent

    • C. 

      Electronic systems must be stand-alone computer systems

    • D. 

      Paper systems may not duplicate any portion of the electronic system

  • 35. 
    What is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?
    • A. 

      5,000

    • B. 

      10,000

    • C. 

      15,000

    • D. 

      20,000

  • 36. 
    To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collections and reports management programs
    • A. 

      Goal

    • B. 

      Mission

    • C. 

      Purpose

    • D. 

      Objective

  • 37. 
    What is the fundamental policy for information collections and reports
    • A. 

      Establish procedures for all collection actions

    • B. 

      Collect information through formal reports

    • C. 

      Assign internal reports control symbol

    • D. 

      Control and minimize the burden

  • 38. 
    What do the letters and numbers of a reports control symbol indicate?
    • A. 

      The report has been reviewed end approved

    • B. 

      The validity of the report and expiration date

    • C. 

      The category of the report and its submission timeline

    • D. 

      The frequency of submission and the approval authority

  • 39. 
    What is the most effective and economical way to state policies and procedures
    • A. 

      E-mail

    • B. 

      Publications

    • C. 

      Intern messages

    • D. 

      Official memo's

  • 40. 
    As technology advances, to what type of publishing system is the AF migrating?
    • A. 

      DoD wide

    • B. 

      AF wide

    • C. 

      Joint publications

    • D. 

      Electronic publications

  • 41. 
    Who evaluates and approves request to establish special publication systems
    • A. 

      Local commander

    • B. 

      Publications manager

    • C. 

      Office of primary responsibility

    • D. 

      Functional area records manger

  • 42. 
    As a rule, how many days is the maximum a temporary visual aid should be displayed?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications

    • B. 

      Mission-related need only

    • C. 

      Defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications

    • D. 

      Access to an official electronic source of publications

  • 44. 
    In which section of Part I of the AF publishing product announcement would you find general information?
    • A. 

      Section A

    • B. 

      Section B

    • C. 

      Section C

    • D. 

      Section D

  • 45. 
    Which distribution symbol is for classified publications and stocked and issued by the OPR?
    • A. 

      F

    • B. 

      L

    • C. 

      X

    • D. 

      None, classified publications have no distribution symbol

  • 46. 
    What type of distribution will not be placed on the AF publishing web site?
    • A. 

      F and L

    • B. 

      L and X

    • C. 

      F and X

    • D. 

      F, X and L

  • 47. 
    Which distribution symbol is the most widely used?
    • A. 

      F

    • B. 

      L

    • C. 

      X

    • D. 

      F;X

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Is destroyed

    • B. 

      Is superseded also

    • C. 

      Automatically stays in effect

    • D. 

      Is posted to the new publication

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Never; biennial reviews are always required

    • B. 

      If a special review was performed within the last 90 days

    • C. 

      If the publication has been identified to be revised

    • D. 

      If the publication has been identified to be rescinded

  • 50. 
    In which section of Part II of the product announcement would you information on salvage, disposal, or replacement?
    • A. 

      Section A

    • B. 

      Section B

    • C. 

      Section C

    • D. 

      Section D

  • 51. 
    Who establishes standards and methods for analyzing, categorizing, designing, controlling, producing, and maintaining all departmental forms?
    • A. 

      AF forms manager

    • B. 

      AF departmental publishing office

    • C. 

      AF departmental publishing center

    • D. 

      Director of communications and information

  • 52. 
    Who has the responsibility to conduct a forms review every 2 years based on the creation date of a form?
    • A. 

      Major command

    • B. 

      Base forms manager

    • C. 

      Office of primary responsibility

    • D. 

      AF departmental publishing office

  • 53. 
    What type of form is used in two or more staff offices of a headquarters?
    • A. 

      Field

    • B. 

      Office

    • C. 

      Headquarters

    • D. 

      Departmental

  • 54. 
    Which of the following is not a basis for a form's biennial review?
    • A. 

      Date of creation

    • B. 

      Revision of form

    • C. 

      Date electronically released

    • D. 

      Revision of prescribing directives

  • 55. 
    Who initiates special and reprint forms reviews on an "as needed" basic?
    • A. 

      OPR

    • B. 

      Forms manager

    • C. 

      Records manager

    • D. 

      Publishing distribution office

  • 56. 
    What type of IMT change affect the visual and physical image?
    • A. 

      Master

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Version

    • D. 

      Revision

  • 57. 
    How should responses to requests for information from news media representatives be handled?
    • A. 

      Discouraged to eliminate privacy act violations

    • B. 

      Discouraged so they can then follow the proper FOIA channel

    • C. 

      Encouraged to invoke the information collection reports control system

    • D. 

      Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA

  • 58. 
    Who makes initial determinations on the type of request  and processing provided a FOIA request?
    • A. 

      Office of primary responsibility

    • B. 

      Disclosure authority

    • C. 

      FOIA manger

    • D. 

      Requestor

  • 59. 
    Who is the focal point for the FOIA portion of the installation web site?
    • A. 

      FOIA manager

    • B. 

      System manager

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      Director, communication and information

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      All assessable costs are $15.00 or less

    • B. 

      A new record is compiled for the requestor

    • C. 

      Only a portion of the requested records are released

    • D. 

      The requestor has applied for a fee waiver/reduction

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      10 working days

    • B. 

      20 working days

    • C. 

      10 calendar days

    • D. 

      20 calendar days

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is not a FOIA exemption?
    • A. 

      Financial institutions

    • B. 

      Investigative records

    • C. 

      Administrative rules and practices

    • D. 

      Internal personnel rules and practices

  • 63. 
    Who, on a base, completes the DD form 2564, annual report freedom of information act?
    • A. 

      Records OPR

    • B. 

      Base FOIA manager

    • C. 

      Organizational commanders

    • D. 

      Director, communication and information

  • 64. 
    Privacy Act officers are responsible for
    • A. 

      Deciding the need for and content of systems

    • B. 

      Preparing system notices and reports

    • C. 

      Answering the privacy act requests

    • D. 

      Investigating complaints

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      System manger

    • B. 

      Privacy act officer

    • C. 

      Privacy act monitor

    • D. 

      AF employees

  • 66. 
    What type of request allows other AF directives to give individuals access to PA records?
    • A. 

      Official

    • B. 

      Directed

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Informational

  • 67. 
    Which element of PA statement provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DoD?
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Authority

    • C. 

      Disclosure

    • D. 

      Routine uses

  • 68. 
    What penalty can be imposed on an individual for making an unauthorized disclosure of PA information?
    • A. 

      5,000 fine

    • B. 

      10,000 fine

    • C. 

      5,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisionment

    • D. 

      10,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment

  • 69. 
    Which type of personal information can be given to third parties without the individual's consent?
    • A. 

      Martial status

    • B. 

      Home of record

    • C. 

      Past duty assignments

    • D. 

      Gross salary of military personnel

  • 70. 
    What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosures of PA information?
    • A. 

      Release information only to senior NCOs and officers

    • B. 

      Question all requestors on the purpose of the request

    • C. 

      Use additional security measures, regardless of cost

    • D. 

      Verify the identity of requestors

  • 71. 
    What is used to determine the disposal of PA records?
    • A. 

      For official use only register

    • B. 

      Squadron policy

    • C. 

      Records retention schedule

    • D. 

      Privacy act disposition list

  • 72. 
    Why is a transfer of large quantities of PA records in buld to the DRMO not considered a release of personal information?
    • A. 

      The contract covers transfer of PA information

    • B. 

      DRMO is a government agency

    • C. 

      Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific individual records

    • D. 

      All DRMO personnel are designated representatives

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      When they are created

    • B. 

      In review for release

    • C. 

      Only when they are sent off base

    • D. 

      When someone asks to see the markings

  • 74. 
    What exemptions must information marked FOUO meets under the FIA or it cannot be withheld?
    • A. 

      1 and 9

    • B. 

      1 through 9

    • C. 

      2 and 9

    • D. 

      2 through 9

  • 75. 
    What protection is applied to FOUO documents during normal duty hours?
    • A. 

      Place them in an out of sight location

    • B. 

      Cover them with a classified storage container

    • C. 

      Lock them in a classified storage container

    • D. 

      Personnel should keep them in their possession at all times.

  • 76. 
    What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of FOUO records occurs?
    • A. 

      Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization

    • B. 

      Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization

    • C. 

      Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization

    • D. 

      Notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurrrence

  • 77. 
    In order to deliver a clear message, you should use sentences that are no longer than
    • A. 

      15 words

    • B. 

      20 words

    • C. 

      30 words

    • D. 

      40 words

  • 78. 
    What is the main difference between an official memorandum and a personal letter?
    • A. 

      Audience

    • B. 

      Content

    • C. 

      Format

    • D. 

      Style

  • 79. 
    What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
    • A. 

      Brief

    • B. 

      Official

    • C. 

      Explanatory

    • D. 

      Separate page

  • 80. 
    Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are
    • A. 

      Briefings

    • B. 

      Position papers

    • C. 

      Background papers

    • D. 

      Memorandums for record

  • 81. 
    Who is responsible for safeguarding his or her common access card and their personal identification pin?
    • A. 

      User

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Security officer

    • D. 

      System administrator

  • 82. 
    Who ensures that action offices package and address communications correctly and that essential mailing elements stand out?
    • A. 

      Base information transfer center

    • B. 

      Activity distribution office

    • C. 

      Official mail manager

    • D. 

      Activity action officer

  • 83. 
    What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?
    • A. 

      Place in an opaque container and have the highest ranking individual take it home

    • B. 

      Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly

    • C. 

      Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding

    • D. 

      Seal container and store in a classified storage container

  • 84. 
    Which mail class if for use only by authorized publishers and registered newsagents?
    • A. 

      Priority

    • B. 

      First class

    • C. 

      Periodicals

    • D. 

      Standard mail

  • 85. 
    What type of security classification involves informaiton that is extrated or paraphased?
    • A. 

      Original

    • B. 

      Compiled

    • C. 

      Derivative

    • D. 

      Consolidated

  • 86. 
    Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?
    • A. 

      Processor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Security manager

    • D. 

      Original classifier

  • 87. 
    Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times?
    • A. 

      Custodians

    • B. 

      Commanders

    • C. 

      Information managers

    • D. 

      Top secret control officers

  • 88. 
    What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?
    • A. 

      Place in a manila folder and keep it with the person with the highest rank

    • B. 

      Notify security forces upon removal of information from the container

    • C. 

      Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with a cover sheet

    • D. 

      Classified information should not be removed from an approved storage container

  • 89. 
    The purpose of conducting end of day security checks in units that process classifed information is to ensure
    • A. 

      The facility locked

    • B. 

      Classified accounts are inventoried

    • C. 

      All checklists are properly initialed

    • D. 

      Classified information is stored appropriately

  • 90. 
    What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
    • A. 

      Sanction

    • B. 

      Violation

    • C. 

      Infraction

    • D. 

      Compromise

  • 91. 
    Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations?
    • A. 

      Give information on the source

    • B. 

      Provide guidance on disposition of records

    • C. 

      Alert holders to the presence of classified information

    • D. 

      Show special access, control, or safeguarding requirements

  • 92. 
    Where is the overall classification placed on slides and transparencies?
    • A. 

      Image area of the item only

    • B. 

      Border, holder, or frame only

    • C. 

      Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame

    • D. 

      Image area of the item and on the accompanying documentation

  • 93. 
    What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container form the sender through the base information transfer system into the US postal service, and on to the receiver?
    • A. 

      AF form 12, accountable container receipt, and AF form 12, accountable container receipt

    • B. 

      AF form 74, communicaiton status notice/request, and AF form 12, accountable container receipt

    • C. 

      Container numbers and AF form 310, document receipt and destruction certificate

    • D. 

      Container number and AF form 12, accountable container receipt

  • 94. 
    The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them
    • A. 

      Insured

    • B. 

      Express

    • C. 

      Certified

    • D. 

      Registered

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      Unit top secret control officer

    • B. 

      Office that is to take action on it

    • C. 

      Base information security program manager

    • D. 

      Specific person identified as the point of contact

  • 96. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Central destruction activity

    • C. 

      Support group commander

    • D. 

      Base information management