Volume 2 For 3CX5X CDCs

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 1,078

Questions: 76 | Attempts: 510 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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URE questions from Volume 2 of the 3CX5X CDCs

Questions and Answers

1.

(224) Which frequency range is used for UHF band designation?
- A.
  
  3 to 30 GHz
- B.
  
  30 to 300 MHz
- C.
  
  30 to 300 GHz
- D.
  
  300 to 3,000 MHz
Correct Answer
D. 300 to 3,000 MHz

Explanation
The UHF (Ultra High Frequency) band designation uses the frequency range of 300 to 3,000 MHz. This range is commonly used for various communication purposes, including television broadcasting, mobile phones, and wireless internet. It is higher in frequency than VHF (Very High Frequency) but lower than SHF (Super High Frequency).

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2.

(224) Which frequency range is used for SHF band designation?
- A.
  
  3 to 30 GHz
- B.
  
  30 to 300 MHz
- C.
  
  30 to 300 GHz
- D.
  
  300 to 3,000 MHz
Correct Answer
A. 3 to 30 GHz

Explanation
The SHF band designation refers to the Super High Frequency range. This frequency range is used for various applications such as satellite communication, radar systems, and wireless local area networks. The correct answer, 3 to 30 GHz, falls within this range and is commonly used for high-speed data transmission and long-distance communication.

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3.

(224) Which frequency range is used for EHF band designation?
- A.
  
  3 to 30 GHz
- B.
  
  30 to 300 MHz
- C.
  
  30 to 300 GHz
- D.
  
  300 to 3,000 MHz
Correct Answer
C. 30 to 300 GHz

Explanation
The EHF band designation is used for extremely high frequency signals. The correct answer is 30 to 300 GHz, which falls within the range of frequencies typically used for EHF.

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4.

(221) Name two forces relating to spectrum concepts.
- A.
  
  Radiation and electrical
- B.
  
  Atmospheric and magnetic
- C.
  
  Gravitational and atmospheric
- D.
  
  Gravitational and electromagnetic
Correct Answer
D. Gravitational and electromagnetic

Explanation
Gravitational and electromagnetic forces are two forces relating to spectrum concepts. Gravitational force is the force of attraction between objects with mass, while electromagnetic force is the force between charged particles. In the context of the electromagnetic spectrum, these forces play a crucial role in the behavior and interactions of electromagnetic waves, such as light. Gravitational force affects the trajectory and bending of light, while electromagnetic force governs the generation, propagation, and absorption of electromagnetic waves. Together, these forces contribute to our understanding of the spectrum and its various phenomena.

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5.

(222) Radio waves travel through free space at the speed of light and can be
- A.
  
  Reflected, rejected, or deflected.
- B.
  
  Reflected, refracted, or deflected.
- C.
  
  Rejected, refracted, or diffracted.
- D.
  
  Reflected, refracted, or diffracted.
Correct Answer
D. Reflected, refracted, or diffracted.

Explanation
Radio waves, like other forms of electromagnetic radiation, can undergo reflection, refraction, and diffraction. Reflection occurs when the waves bounce off a surface, changing their direction. Refraction happens when the waves pass through a medium and change speed and direction. Diffraction occurs when the waves encounter an obstacle or aperture and bend around it. Therefore, the correct answer is that radio waves can be reflected, refracted, or diffracted.

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6.

(222) Waves that travel through the air in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna are known as
- A.
  
  Sky waves.
- B.
  
  Direct waves.
- C.
  
  Ground waves.
- D.
  
  Atmospheric waves.
Correct Answer
B. Direct waves.

Explanation
Direct waves are waves that travel through the air in a straight line from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna. This means that there are no obstacles or obstructions in the path of the waves, allowing them to travel directly from the transmitter to the receiver. Sky waves, on the other hand, are waves that are reflected off the ionosphere and can travel long distances. Ground waves are waves that travel along the surface of the Earth and atmospheric waves are waves that are affected by the Earth's atmosphere. Therefore, the correct answer is direct waves.

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7.

(222) Which wave transmission is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz)?
- A.
  
  Sky waves.
- B.
  
  Direct waves.
- C.
  
  Ground waves.
- D.
  
  Atmospheric waves.
Correct Answer
A. Sky waves.

Explanation
Sky waves are a type of wave transmission that is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz). These waves are able to travel long distances by reflecting off the ionosphere, which is a layer of the Earth's atmosphere. This reflection allows the waves to be received at great distances from the transmitter, making sky waves ideal for long-distance communications. Direct waves, ground waves, and atmospheric waves are not as effective for long-distance communications in this frequency range.

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8.

(223) Which are used as the main propagation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves?
- A.
  
  EHF/UHF.
- B.
  
  EHF/SHF.
- C.
  
  VHF/UHF.
- D.
  
  VHF/SHF.
Correct Answer
C. VHF/UHF.

Explanation
VHF (Very High Frequency) and UHF (Ultra High Frequency) are used as the main propagation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves. These frequency bands are commonly used for radio and television broadcasting, as well as for communication systems such as cell phones and wireless internet. VHF and UHF waves have the ability to travel long distances and penetrate obstacles, making them ideal for communication over large areas.

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9.

(223) One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is that relay stations are required
- A.
  
  Every 10 miles.
- B.
  
  Every 20 miles.
- C.
  
  When distances exceeds 20 to 40 miles.
- D.
  
  When distances do not extend beyond 30 miles.
Correct Answer
C. When distances exceeds 20 to 40 miles.

Explanation
The correct answer is "when distances exceeds 20 to 40 miles." This means that when the distance between the transmitter and receiver exceeds 20 to 40 miles, relay stations are required. This disadvantage of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is due to the limitation of the signal being able to travel only in a straight line and not being able to bend or follow the curvature of the Earth. Therefore, relay stations are needed to extend the range of the transmission beyond the line-of-sight distance.

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10.

(216) Which AOC area support team provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems?
- A.
  
  AOC network support.
- B.
  
  AOC weapon system help desk.
- C.
  
  Communications focal point.
- D.
  
  Command and control systems.
Correct Answer
C. Communications focal point.

Explanation
The Communications focal point is the AOC area support team that provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems. This team is responsible for managing and coordinating all communication activities within the AOC, ensuring that the Chief has access to the necessary communication resources and systems to carry out their duties effectively. They also provide technical support and troubleshooting assistance for any communication issues that may arise.

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11.

(216) Which area support team makes sure servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are on-line and available to network users?
- A.
  
  AOC network support
- B.
  
  AOC weapon system help desk.
- C.
  
  Communications focal point.
- D.
  
  Command and control systems.
Correct Answer
D. Command and control systems.

Explanation
The correct answer is Command and control systems. This area support team is responsible for ensuring that servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are online and accessible to network users. They play a crucial role in maintaining the functionality and availability of these systems, which are essential for effective command and control operations.

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12.

(217) What DOD agencies refine tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for infusion into current and next generation operational systems?
- A.
  
  Future combat systems.
- B.
  
  Battlefield control systems.
- C.
  
  Air Support operations center.
- D.
  
  Air Support operations squadrons.
Correct Answer
B. Battlefield control systems.

Explanation
Battlefield control systems are DOD agencies that refine tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for infusion into current and next generation operational systems. These systems are responsible for coordinating and controlling military operations on the battlefield, ensuring effective communication and coordination between different units and enabling the integration of new technologies and strategies into the operational systems.

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13.

(218) Which of the following has the primary function of coordinating and directing immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces?
- A.
  
  Future combat systems.
- B.
  
  Battlefield control systems.
- C.
  
  Air Support operations center.
- D.
  
  Air Support operations squadrons.
Correct Answer
D. Air Support operations squadrons.

Explanation
Air Support operations squadrons have the primary function of coordinating and directing immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces. These squadrons are responsible for managing and executing air support operations, ensuring that the right aircraft and resources are deployed in a timely manner to support ground forces. They work closely with land forces to understand their tactical needs and provide real-time support during combat operations. Battlefield control systems and Air Support operations centers may also play a role in coordinating air support, but the primary responsibility lies with Air Support operations squadrons. Future combat systems may involve advanced technology and capabilities, but they are not specifically focused on coordinating and directing immediate requests for close air support.

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14.

(218) Who has the mission to provide fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces for close air support?
- A.
  
  Future combat systems.
- B.
  
  Battlefield control systems.
- C.
  
  Air support operations center.
- D.
  
  Air support operations squadrons.
Correct Answer
C. Air support operations center.

Explanation
The Air Support Operations Center (ASOC) is responsible for providing fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces for close air support. This center serves as the command and control hub for coordinating and directing air support operations in real-time. It ensures effective communication and coordination between ground forces and air assets, enabling quick response to support ground troops during combat operations. The ASOC plays a critical role in facilitating the integration of air power into ground operations, enhancing the effectiveness and efficiency of close air support.

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15.

(219) Which airborne platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR?
- A.
  
  E-3 Sentry.
- B.
  
  RC-135V/W Rivet Joint
- C.
  
  Global positioning system
- D.
  
  Ground data processing stations.
Correct Answer
A. E-3 Sentry.

Explanation
The E-3 Sentry is an airborne platform that is specifically designed to collect real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the Area of Responsibility (AOR). It is equipped with advanced radar systems and communication capabilities, allowing it to monitor and track targets in the air and at sea. The RC-135V/W Rivet Joint, on the other hand, is primarily used for electronic surveillance and intelligence gathering. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system that provides positioning and timing information, but it does not collect real-time data on the location of aircraft and naval vessels. Ground data processing stations are facilities where collected data is analyzed and processed, but they are not airborne platforms.

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16.

(219) Which is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data of rapid post-mission?
- A.
  
  E-3 Sentry
- B.
  
  Joint STARS/JSTARS
- C.
  
  Global positioning system
- D.
  
  Ground data processing stations
Correct Answer
D. Ground data processing stations

Explanation
Ground data processing stations are the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data of rapid post-mission. These stations are responsible for receiving, processing, and analyzing the data collected from various sources such as sensors, satellites, and aircraft. They play a crucial role in extracting actionable intelligence from the collected data, enabling decision-makers to make informed decisions in a timely manner. The other options, E-3 Sentry, Joint STARS/JSTARS, and the Global Positioning System, are not specifically designed for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data.

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17.

(220) Which is a development program focused on providing exploitable surveillance and reconnaissance digital imagery to the war fighter in near real-time?
- A.
  
  Joint STARS/JSTARS
- B.
  
  Future combat systems
- C.
  
  High altitude endurance
- D.
  
  Global positioning system
Correct Answer
A. Joint STARS/JSTARS

Explanation
Joint STARS/JSTARS is a development program that focuses on providing exploitable surveillance and reconnaissance digital imagery to the war fighter in near real-time. This program aims to enhance the military's ability to gather and analyze valuable intelligence through advanced surveillance and reconnaissance technologies. By providing real-time imagery, Joint STARS/JSTARS enables the war fighter to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions based on the current situation on the battlefield.

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18.

(215) Which is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communication networks?
- A.
  
  ICAP
- B.
  
  NCC-D
- C.
  
  DCAPES
- D.
  
  MEFPACK
Correct Answer
A. ICAP

Explanation
ICAP is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communication networks. This means that ICAP provides the necessary components and tools to establish and maintain communication networks in a deployed environment. It is likely that ICAP includes various modules and kits that are specifically designed for communication purposes, ensuring reliable and efficient network connectivity.

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19.

(212) How does the Air Force organize, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by
- A.
  
  Using the AEF concept
- B.
  
  Gathering information on our enemies
- C.
  
  Making lots of bombs to drop over other countries
- D.
  
  Asking congress to provide the necessary funding to win wars
Correct Answer
A. Using the AEF concept

Explanation
The Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains the best air and space force by using the AEF concept. This concept refers to the Air Expeditionary Force, which is a rotational deployment model that allows the Air Force to provide forces for combatant commanders around the world. It ensures that the Air Force maintains a high state of readiness and can rapidly respond to any global contingency. By utilizing the AEF concept, the Air Force can effectively deploy and employ its forces, maintain operational capabilities, and support joint and coalition partners.

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20.

(212) Which of the following is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?
- A.
  
  Control
- B.
  
  Command
- C.
  
  Dictation
- D.
  
  Jurisdiction
Correct Answer
B. Command

Explanation
Command is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment. This means that individuals in positions of higher rank or authority have the power to give orders and expect them to be followed by those in lower positions. Command is an essential aspect of military and organizational structures, as it ensures that tasks and responsibilities are delegated and carried out effectively. It allows for a clear chain of command and establishes a hierarchical structure within an organization.

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21.

(213) Which best describes the definition of a unit type code (UTC)?
- A.
  
  A COTS product similar to the bar coding system used on commercial products
- B.
  
  A database used to store data of force capabilities and crisis action planning.
- C.
  
  It is a subsystem used to establish initial force communications with commanders.
- D.
  
  It is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs
Correct Answer
D. It is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs

Explanation
A unit type code (UTC) is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs. This means that UTCs are fundamental components that are used to organize and plan the deployment of joint forces in the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) structure. They help determine the composition and capabilities of the forces being deployed and are essential for effective coordination and communication among commanders and units involved in military operations.

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22.

(213) Deployment execution and unit personnel preparation are responsibilities most often delegated to the
- A.
  
  DAA
- B.
  
  ART
- C.
  
  UTC
- D.
  
  UDM
Correct Answer
D. UDM

Explanation
The correct answer is UDM. The UDM, or Unit Deployment Manager, is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the execution of deployments and preparing unit personnel for deployment. This includes tasks such as ensuring all necessary paperwork and documentation is completed, coordinating transportation and logistics, and providing training and support to personnel. The UDM plays a crucial role in ensuring a smooth and successful deployment process.

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23.

(213) Which of the following do commanders use to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its mission capability (MISCAP) statement worldwide and to identify its capability through the next AEF bucket?
- A.
  
  ART
- B.
  
  DAA
- C.
  
  TDC
- D.
  
  UDM
Correct Answer
A. ART

Explanation
Commanders use the ART (Availability, Reliability, and Maintainability) to report the ability of a standard UTC (Unit Type Code) to perform its mission capability statement worldwide and to identify its capability through the next AEF (Air Expeditionary Force) bucket. The ART factors in the availability of the UTC, its reliability in performing its mission, and its maintainability in terms of how easily it can be repaired or serviced. This information helps commanders assess the overall capability of the UTC and plan for future deployments.

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24.

(214) Which of the following is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package management?
- A.
  
  JOPES
- B.
  
  TPFDD
- C.
  
  TUCHA
- D.
  
  MEFPAK
Correct Answer
D. MEFPAK

Explanation
MEFPAK is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package management.

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25.

(214) Which of the following is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system use for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution?
- A.
  
  JOPES
- B.
  
  TPFDD
- C.
  
  TUCHA
- D.
  
  MEFPAK
Correct Answer
A. JOPES

Explanation
JOPES is the correct answer because it is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution. The other options, TPFDD, TUCHA, and MEFPAK, are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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26.

(214) Which database is used for the purpose of coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations?
- A.
  
  JOPES
- B.
  
  TPFDD
- C.
  
  LOGFOR
- D.
  
  MEFPAK
Correct Answer
B. TPFDD

Explanation
TPFDD stands for Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data. It is a database that is used for coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations. This database contains information about the personnel, equipment, and supplies that are needed for a deployment, and it helps to ensure that the right resources are in the right place at the right time. By using TPFDD, military planners can effectively plan and execute deployments, ensuring that joint forces are able to coordinate their movements and operate efficiently in their operational locations.

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27.

(214) Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs?
- A.
  
  TUCHA
- B.
  
  LOGFOR
- C.
  
  MANFOR
- D.
  
  MEFPAK
Correct Answer
B. LOGFOR

Explanation
LOGFOR is the correct answer because it is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs.

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28.

(215) Which characteristics should proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment strive to have?
- A.
  
  Survivability, demoility, and security
- B.
  
  Interoperability, security, and demobility
- C.
  
  Open system standards, capability, and reliability
- D.
  
  Open system standards, interoperability, and survivability
Correct Answer
D. Open system standards, interoperability, and survivability

Explanation
The proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment should strive to have open system standards, interoperability, and survivability. Open system standards ensure that the equipment can work with other systems and technologies, promoting compatibility and integration. Interoperability allows the equipment to communicate and exchange data with different systems and platforms, enhancing collaboration and efficiency. Survivability ensures that the equipment can withstand and continue to function in challenging and hostile environments, ensuring reliable communication capabilities even in adverse conditions.

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29.

(215) TDC is composed of which three major components?
- A.
  
  ICAP, NCC-D, and DCAPES
- B.
  
  Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, NCC-D
- C.
  
  Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, and MEFPAK
- D.
  
  Ground satellite terminals, MEFPAK, and DCAPES
Correct Answer
B. Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, NCC-D

Explanation
TDC, or Theater Deployable Communications, is composed of three major components: ground satellite terminals, ICAP (Integrated Communications Access Package), and NCC-D (Network Control Center - Deployable). These components work together to provide communication capabilities in a theater of operations. The other options listed do not include all three of these components.

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30.

(210) At which NETOPS level are networks managed at the local level?
- A.
  
  Tier 1
- B.
  
  Tier 2
- C.
  
  Tier 3
- D.
  
  Tier 4
Correct Answer
C. Tier 3

Explanation
At Tier 3, networks are managed at the local level. This means that the management and administration of the network primarily occurs at the local level, such as within a specific organization or geographical location. Tier 3 typically involves the day-to-day operations and maintenance of the network, including troubleshooting, monitoring, and ensuring the network's functionality and performance.

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31.

(210) An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as
- A.
  
  A full accreditation
- B.
  
  A type accreditation
- C.
  
  A major accreditation
- D.
  
  An interim accreditation
Correct Answer
A. A full accreditation

Explanation
A full accreditation refers to the decision that allows a system to operate in the environment it was originally intended for. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and securely in its intended environment. It signifies that the system has undergone thorough evaluation and has been deemed capable of meeting the desired objectives and ensuring the necessary level of security and performance.

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32.

(210) An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as
- A.
  
  A full accreditation
- B.
  
  A type accreditation
- C.
  
  A minor accreditation
- D.
  
  An interim accreditation
Correct Answer
D. An interim accreditation

Explanation
An interim accreditation is an accreditation decision that allows an information system to continue operating until certain specific steps can be completed. This means that the system is temporarily accredited and can continue functioning while the necessary actions are taken to achieve full accreditation. It indicates that there are identified steps that need to be completed before the system can be fully accredited.

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33.

(211) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts?
- A.
  
  "A"
- B.
  
  "B"
- C.
  
  "C"
- D.
  
  "D"
Correct Answer
A. "A"

Explanation
Resource "A" is designated as the priority resource when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts. This means that resource "A" is given the highest level of protection and attention in order to prevent any hostile acts or threats. The other resources (B, C, and D) may also have security measures in place, but they are not designated as the highest priority.

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34.

(211) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
- A.
  
  "A"
- B.
  
  "B"
- C.
  
  "C"
- D.
  
  "D"
Correct Answer
B. "B"

Explanation
The correct answer is "B" because when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts, priority is given to the resources designated as "B." This means that these resources are considered to be of higher importance and are given more protection and security measures to deter any potential hostile acts.

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35.

(201) Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
- A.
  
  OPSEC
- B.
  
  EMSEC
- C.
  
  COMSEC
- D.
  
  COMPUSEC
Correct Answer
A. OPSEC

Explanation
OPSEC, or Operations Security, is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions related to military operations and other activities. It focuses on protecting sensitive information from potential adversaries by preventing the disclosure of information that could be used against the organization. OPSEC helps to ensure the success of military operations by maintaining confidentiality and minimizing vulnerabilities. EMSEC, COMSEC, and COMPUSEC are also security programs, but they focus on different aspects of security such as electronic security, communication security, and computer security respectively.

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36.

(201) When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?
- A.
  
  1955
- B.
  
  1956
- C.
  
  1966
- D.
  
  1967
Correct Answer
C. 1966

Explanation
In 1966, the first Air Force OPSEC program was introduced. This program was implemented to ensure the protection of sensitive information and to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of classified data. It aimed to enhance the security and operational effectiveness of the Air Force by educating personnel on the importance of safeguarding information and implementing proper security measures.

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37.

(201) In what year was the present OPSEC program we use today established?
- A.
  
  1960
- B.
  
  1967
- C.
  
  1970
- D.
  
  1976
Correct Answer
C. 1970

Explanation
The correct answer is 1970. This means that the present OPSEC program we use today was established in 1970.

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38.

(201) In which of the following OPSEC steps would you inform the AFOSI of petential advesaries and their associated capabilities, limitations, and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information?
- A.
  
  Risk assessment
- B.
  
  Threat assessment
- C.
  
  Vulnerability analysis
- D.
  
  Identification of critical information
Correct Answer
B. Threat assessment

Explanation
In the context of OPSEC (Operations Security), threat assessment involves identifying potential adversaries and their capabilities, limitations, and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information. This step helps in understanding the level of threat posed by different actors and allows for the development of appropriate countermeasures to protect critical information. By informing the AFOSI (Air Force Office of Special Investigations) about potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations, and intentions, they can assist in gathering intelligence and implementing measures to mitigate the identified threats.

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39.

(201) In which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders?
- A.
  
  Risk assessment
- B.
  
  Threat assessment
- C.
  
  Apply OPSEC measures
- D.
  
  Vulnerability analysis
Correct Answer
A. Risk assessment

Explanation
Program managers and coordinators would recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders during the risk assessment step of OPSEC. Risk assessment involves identifying and evaluating potential risks and vulnerabilities to determine the level of threat they pose to the organization. Based on this assessment, program managers and coordinators can provide recommendations to senior decision-makers and commanders on the necessary actions to mitigate these risks and protect sensitive information.

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40.

(201) Which of the following OPSEC steps would dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions?
- A.
  
  Risk assessment
- B.
  
  Threat assessment
- C.
  
  Apply OPSEC measures
- D.
  
  Vulnerability analysis
Correct Answer
C. Apply OPSEC measures

Explanation
Dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions in order to adapt to the changing environment and address new threats and vulnerabilities. Applying OPSEC measures is a crucial step in protecting sensitive information and mitigating risks. By continuously applying OPSEC measures, such as controlling information, practicing good communication security, and implementing physical security measures, you can ensure that your information remains secure even in dynamic situations. This helps to prevent unauthorized access, exploitation, and compromise of sensitive information.

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41.

(202) Specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to gaurantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe
- A.
  
  Vulnerabilities
- B.
  
  Critical information
- C.
  
  Operational indicators
- D.
  
  Operational information
Correct Answer
B. Critical information

Explanation
Critical information refers to specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations that are crucial for adversaries to know in order to plan and act effectively against friendly forces. This information, if obtained by adversaries, can lead to failure or unacceptable consequences for the accomplishment of friendly missions. By understanding critical information, adversaries can exploit vulnerabilities and gain an advantage over friendly forces. Therefore, protecting critical information is essential for maintaining operational security and mission success.

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42.

(202) In which OPSEC indicator would abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules fall under?
- A.
  
  Operational
- B.
  
  Administrative
- C.
  
  Communications
- D.
  
  Logistic and maintenance support
Correct Answer
A. Operational

Explanation
Abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules would fall under the Operational OPSEC indicator. This indicator focuses on protecting sensitive information related to military operations and activities. Abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules could potentially reveal important details about ongoing operations, making them vulnerable to potential threats. Therefore, it is crucial to keep such information confidential to maintain operational security.

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43.

(202) Special briefings, meetings, or religious services would fall under which OPSEC indicator?
- A.
  
  Operational
- B.
  
  Administrative
- C.
  
  Communications
- D.
  
  Logistic and maintenance support
Correct Answer
B. Administrative

Explanation
Special briefings, meetings, or religious services would fall under the Administrative OPSEC indicator because they involve the internal administrative activities and functions of an organization. These activities are not directly related to operational, communications, or logistic and maintenance support aspects of the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is Administrative.

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44.

(202) Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator?
- A.
  
  Operational
- B.
  
  Administrative
- C.
  
  Communications
- D.
  
  Logistic and maintenance support
Correct Answer
D. Logistic and maintenance support

Explanation
Deviation from normal procedures in logistic and maintenance support can be considered an OPSEC indicator. This means that any changes or deviations from the usual processes and protocols in logistic and maintenance support operations can potentially compromise the security and confidentiality of sensitive information. By identifying and addressing these deviations, organizations can enhance their OPSEC measures and protect their critical assets and operations.

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45.

(202) What are among the most problematic OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today?
- A.
  
  Copiers and fax machines
- B.
  
  Telephones and cell phones
- C.
  
  Radio and broadband internet
- D.
  
  Networks and computer systems
Correct Answer
B. Telephones and cell phones

Explanation
Telephones and cell phones are among the most problematic OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today. This is because these devices can easily be intercepted or hacked, leading to the compromise of sensitive information. Additionally, phone conversations can be overheard or recorded, posing a risk to operational security. Therefore, it is crucial for the Air Force to implement strong security measures and protocols to protect against these vulnerabilities.

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46.

(203) The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
- A.
  
  Purpose
- B.
  
  Authority
- C.
  
  Disclosure
- D.
  
  Routine use
Correct Answer
A. Purpose

Explanation
The reason information is collected is the purpose of a Privacy Act Statement. This statement informs individuals why their personal information is being collected and how it will be used. It is mandatory to include the purpose in a Privacy Act Statement to ensure transparency and accountability in the handling of personal information.

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47.

(203) What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
- A.
  
  AF Form 2327
- B.
  
  AF Form 3217
- C.
  
  AF Form 3227
- D.
  
  AF Form 3327
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 3227

Explanation
AF Form 3227 is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material.

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48.

(203) Guidance for posting information on AF web sites is outlined in
- A.
  
  AFI 33-119
- B.
  
  AFI 33-129
- C.
  
  AFI 33-219
- D.
  
  AFI 33-329
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33-129

Explanation
AFI 33-129 provides guidance for posting information on AF web sites. This means that it contains the rules and regulations that individuals should follow when posting information on Air Force websites. It likely outlines the proper procedures for posting, the types of information that can be posted, and any restrictions or guidelines that must be followed. By referring to AFI 33-129, individuals can ensure that they are posting information in accordance with Air Force regulations and guidelines.

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49.

(203) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in
- A.
  
  AFI 31-301
- B.
  
  AFI 31-401
- C.
  
  AFI 31-501
- D.
  
  AFI 31-601
Correct Answer
C. AFI 31-501

Explanation
AFI 31-501 is the correct answer because it provides official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information. AFI 31-301, AFI 31-401, and AFI 31-601 may also contain information related to security clearances, but they do not specifically address individual security clearances and access to classified information.

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50.

(203) Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, unathorized access, or modification that might adversely affect national security would best be described as
- A.
  
  Secret
- B.
  
  Confidential
- C.
  
  For official use only
- D.
  
  Sensitive but unclassified
Correct Answer
D. Sensitive but unclassified

Explanation
The correct answer is "sensitive but unclassified". This is because the disclosure of information that could result in the loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect national security is considered sensitive. However, it is not classified as secret or confidential. Instead, it falls under the category of "sensitive but unclassified" information.

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Volume 2 For 3CX5X CDCs

(224) Which frequency range is used for UHF band designation?

(224) Which frequency range is used for SHF band designation?

(224) Which frequency range is used for EHF band designation?

(221) Name two forces relating to spectrum concepts.

(222) Radio waves travel through free space at the speed of light and can be

(222) Waves that travel through the air in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna are known as

(222) Which wave transmission is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz)?

(223) Which are used as the main propagation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves?

(223) One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is that relay stations are required

(216) Which AOC area support team provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems?

(216) Which area support team makes sure servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are on-line and available to network users?

(217) What DOD agencies refine tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for infusion into current and next generation operational systems?

(218) Which of the following has the primary function of coordinating and directing immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces?

(218) Who has the mission to provide fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces for close air support?

(219) Which airborne platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR?

(219) Which is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data of rapid post-mission?

(220) Which is a development program focused on providing exploitable surveillance and reconnaissance digital imagery to the war fighter in near real-time?

(215) Which is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communication networks?

(212) How does the Air Force organize, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by

(212) Which of the following is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?

(213) Which best describes the definition of a unit type code (UTC)?

(213) Deployment execution and unit personnel preparation are responsibilities most often delegated to the

(213) Which of the following do commanders use to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its mission capability (MISCAP) statement worldwide and to identify its capability through the next AEF bucket?

(214) Which of the following is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package management?

(214) Which of the following is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system use for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution?

(214) Which database is used for the purpose of coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations?

(214) Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs?

(215) Which characteristics should proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment strive to have?

(215) TDC is composed of which three major components?

(210) At which NETOPS level are networks managed at the local level?

(210) An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

(210) An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as

(211) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts?

(211) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

(201) Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

(201) When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?

(201) In what year was the present OPSEC program we use today established?

(201) In which of the following OPSEC steps would you inform the AFOSI of petential advesaries and their associated capabilities, limitations, and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information?

(201) In which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders?

(201) Which of the following OPSEC steps would dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions?

(202) Specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to gaurantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe

(202) In which OPSEC indicator would abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules fall under?

(202) Special briefings, meetings, or religious services would fall under which OPSEC indicator?

(202) Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator?

(202) What are among the most problematic OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today?

(203) The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

(203) What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

(203) Guidance for posting information on AF web sites is outlined in

(203) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

(203) Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, unathorized access, or modification that might adversely affect national security would best be described as