V 3

124 Questions

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Navigation Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The localizer equipment shelter is generally painted what colors?
    • A. 

      International orange and white.

    • B. 

      Olive drab and black.

    • C. 

      Brown and tan.

    • D. 

      Red and white.

  • 2. 
    Approximately how many feet is the localizer equipment shelter offset from the center of the localizer array?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      250.

    • C. 

      350.

    • D. 

      500.

  • 3. 
    How many assemblies support each localizer antenna?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 4. 
    The localizer station is designed for what type of operation?
    • A. 

      Local control.

    • B. 

      Remote control.

    • C. 

      Continuous unmanned.

    • D. 

      Intermittent unmanned.

  • 5. 
    How can the localizer station be controlled?
    • A. 

      Local only.

    • B. 

      Remote only.

    • C. 

      Locally from the site or remotely from control tower or radar approach control (RAPCON).

    • D. 

      Remotely from the site or locally from the control tower or RAPCON.

  • 6. 
    What is the maximum miles per hour (mph) wind speed the localizer equipment station is designed to withstand?
    • A. 

      50.

    • B. 

      70.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      110.

  • 7. 
    How many channels do the radios in the localizer equipment station have?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 8. 
    In the localizer, the frequency output of the transmitters is controlled by
    • A. 

      Thumbwheels.

    • B. 

      Remote computers.

    • C. 

      Local computers.

    • D. 

      Manual tumblers.

  • 9. 
    How many RF outputs are connected to the localizer antenna system for the course transmitter?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 10. 
    What are the modulation frequencies in the localizer course transmitter?
    • A. 

      90, 150, and 2250 Hz.

    • B. 

      150 and 2259 Hz.

    • C. 

      90 and 2259 Hz.

    • D. 

      90, 150, and 1020 Hz.

  • 11. 
    What is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt (W) output power of the course transmitter in the localizer?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      15.

    • C. 

      20.

    • D. 

      25.

  • 12. 
    What is the first basic operation of the localizer station?
    • A. 

      Monitor the radiated pattern.

    • B. 

      Radiating the pattern.

    • C. 

      Control transmitter.

    • D. 

      Update status.

  • 13. 
    Which navigational aid radiates an electronic pattern representing an extension of runway centerline?
    • A. 

      Very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR).

    • B. 

      Tactical air navigation system (TACAN).

    • C. 

      Glide slope.

    • D. 

      Localizer.

  • 14. 
    In the localizer, what frequency, in kilohertz (kHz), is the course (CRS) carrier transmitted?
    • A. 

      Station assigned frequency (SAF) + 4.00.

    • B. 

      SAF +4.75.

    • C. 

      SAF –4.75.

    • D. 

      SAF –4.00.

  • 15. 
    The hertz (Hz) frequency of the coded tone to provide the station identification (ID) is
    • A. 

      770.

    • B. 

      1020.

    • C. 

      1410.

    • D. 

      2,250.

  • 16. 
    How many log-periodic dipole antennas (LPD) are there in the localizer antenna array?
    • A. 

      7.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      14.

    • D. 

      16.

  • 17. 
    The radiation pattern of the course carrier is
    • A. 

      Wider than clearance pattern.

    • B. 

      Parallel to the clearance pattern.

    • C. 

      The same as the clearance pattern.

    • D. 

      Narrower than the clearance pattern.

  • 18. 
    Which assembly monitors the integrity of the antenna cables?
    • A. 

      Antenna monitor.

    • B. 

      Far field monitor.

    • C. 

      Course (CRS) monitor.

    • D. 

      Clearance (CLS) monitor.

  • 19. 
    Which parameter is checked by the localizer course monitors?
    • A. 

      Course width.

    • B. 

      Frequency difference.

    • C. 

      Radio frequency (RF) level.

    • D. 

      Identification (ID) percent modulation.

  • 20. 
    How many monitors must detect a fault to cause an equipment transfer in the localizer?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 21. 
    What controls the localizer clearance (CLR) transmitters?
    • A. 

      Control unit.

    • B. 

      Changeover unit.

    • C. 

      Clearance monitors.

    • D. 

      Course transmitters.

  • 22. 
    Where is the detected signal from the localizer antenna distribution unit sent?
    • A. 

      Changeover unit.

    • B. 

      Far-field monitor.

    • C. 

      Control unit and transmitters.

    • D. 

      Course and clearance monitors.

  • 23. 
    Which unit is not tied into the control unit in the localizer?
    • A. 

      Distribution unit.

    • B. 

      Changeover unit.

    • C. 

      Power supply unit.

    • D. 

      Battery backup unit.

  • 24. 
    What is a function of the dual power supply in the localizer?
    • A. 

      Regulate line frequency.

    • B. 

      Display various voltages.

    • C. 

      Keep backup batteries charged.

    • D. 

      Regulate alternating current (AC) power.

  • 25. 
    In watts (W) and milliwatts (mW) respectively, what is the nominal localizer course transmitter carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO) power?
    • A. 

      15; 360.

    • B. 

      10; 300.

    • C. 

      5; 190.

    • D. 

      3; 190.

  • 26. 
    What is the output frequency of the synthesized frequency source (SFS) in the localizer course transmitter?
    • A. 

      Station assigned frequency (SAF).

    • B. 

      55 kilohertz (kHz).

    • C. 

      SAF +4.75 kHz.

    • D. 

      SAF –4.75 kHz.

  • 27. 
    The modulation required to produce the localizer signals originates from what assembly in the course transmitter?
    • A. 

      Exciter.

    • B. 

      Modulator.

    • C. 

      Diode switching network.

    • D. 

      90/150 hertz (Hz) generator.

  • 28. 
    What is the nominal clearance sideband only (SBO) milliwatt (mW) power in the localizer?
    • A. 

      180.

    • B. 

      300.

    • C. 

      360.

    • D. 

      450.

  • 29. 
    How does the kilohertz (kHz) output frequency of the localizer clearance transmitter compare to the assigned localizer station frequency?
    • A. 

      4.0 above.

    • B. 

      4.0 below.

    • C. 

      4.75 above.

    • D. 

      4.75 below.

  • 30. 
    From where does the 90/150 hertz (Hz) control assembly in the clearance transmitter receive its 90- and 150-Hz signals?
    • A. 

      Changeover unit.

    • B. 

      Local control unit.

    • C. 

      Course transmitter.

    • D. 

      Clearance monitor.

  • 31. 
    A basic function of the localizer radio frequency (RF) changeover unit is
    • A. 

      Identification (ID) generation.

    • B. 

      RF generation.

    • C. 

      ID measurement.

    • D. 

      RF measurement.

  • 32. 
    In the localizer, when one carrier signal is routed to the antenna, the other carrier signal is routed to the
    • A. 

      Control unit.

    • B. 

      Dummy loads.

    • C. 

      Changeover unit.

    • D. 

      Distribution unit.

  • 33. 
    The left antennas at the localizer are fed a sideband only (SBO) signal that is at what degrees out of phase compared to the SBO signal fed to the right antennas?
    • A. 

      0.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      180.

    • D. 

      270.

  • 34. 
    Localizer clearance carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO) signals are fed to which antennas?
    • A. 

      Pairs 1–5.

    • B. 

      Pairs 3–6.

    • C. 

      Inner four pairs.

    • D. 

      All antennas.

  • 35. 
    What provides samples of the localizer radiated signals to the radio frequency (RF) combining network?
    • A. 

      Sampling loops in each log periodic dipole (LPD).

    • B. 

      Clearance frequency distribution unit.

    • C. 

      Course frequency distribution unit.

    • D. 

      Integral detectors.

  • 36. 
    When might a single frequency localizer be installed?
    • A. 

      When the localizer is installed on a category I airfield.

    • B. 

      When the localizer is installed on a category III airfield.

    • C. 

      When a dual-frequency localizer would cause interference.

    • D. 

      When forward terrain is free of major obstructions and terrain problems.

  • 37. 
    In a single-frequency localizer using 8 antennas, what is the sideband only (SBO) and carrier-plus sideband (CSB) phase relationship between the two antennas of each pair?
    • A. 

      SBO in phase; CSB in phase.

    • B. 

      SBO in phase; CSB 180º out of phase.

    • C. 

      SBO 180º out of phase; CSB in phase.

    • D. 

      SBO 180º out of phase; CSB 180º out of phase.

  • 38. 
    In a single-frequency localizer, using 8 or 14 antennas, the course width is maintained at 5.0º by
    • A. 

      Increasing the transmitter sideband only (SBO) power output to the antennas.

    • B. 

      Increasing the transmitter carrier-plus sideband (CSB) power output to the antennas.

    • C. 

      De-phasing the SBO and increasing the CSB modulation percentage.

    • D. 

      Tailoring the antenna power levels, a-spacing, and pair-to-pair phasing.

  • 39. 
    What is the minimum difference in depth of modulation (DDM) value that will be indicated outside the course width points in a single-frequency localizer using 14 antennas?
    • A. 

      0.155.

    • B. 

      0.175.

    • C. 

      0.200.

    • D. 

      0.240.

  • 40. 
    What will most likely happen if an antenna cable is broken or shorted, it will cause
    • A. 

      An abnormal indication.

    • B. 

      A transmitter changeover.

    • C. 

      A cable fault alarm.

    • D. 

      A station shutdown.

  • 41. 
    Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?
    • A. 

      Frequency separation.

    • B. 

      Radio frequency (RF) level.

    • C. 

      Identification (ID) percent modulation.

    • D. 

      Width difference in depth of modulation (DDM).

  • 42. 
    Which monitor assembly displays the measured parameters?
    • A. 

      Signal processor.

    • B. 

      Digital readout.

    • C. 

      Measurement.

    • D. 

      Timing.

  • 43. 
    What is the major difference in the localizer clearance (CLR) monitor and course (CRS) monitor?
    • A. 

      Measurement of the CLR frequency.

    • B. 

      Frequency of the radio frequency (RF) signals.

    • C. 

      Digital readout assembly.

    • D. 

      Timing pulse generated.

  • 44. 
    What is the major difference in the localizer clearance (CLR) monitor and course (CRS) monitor?
    • A. 

      Measurement of the CLR frequency.

    • B. 

      Frequency of the radio frequency (RF) signals.

    • C. 

      Digital readout assembly.

    • D. 

      Timing pulse generated.

  • 45. 
    In kilohertz (kHz), what is the frequency difference between the localizer course (CRS) and clearance (CLR) radio frequency (RF) signals?
    • A. 

      Station assigned frequency (SAF) +4.75.

    • B. 

      SAF –4.75.

    • C. 

      4.75.

    • D. 

      9.5.

  • 46. 
    A 17.2 percent modulation difference converted to difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is
    • A. 

      .017.

    • B. 

      .172.

    • C. 

      .1.72.

    • D. 

      172.

  • 47. 
    An 18.5 percent modulation difference converted to difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is
    • A. 

      .018.

    • B. 

      .185.

    • C. 

      .1.85.

    • D. 

      185.

  • 48. 
    If during a ground check you are taking a measurement from the 35º survey checkpoint, where on the airfield are you located?
    • A. 

      Runway centerline.

    • B. 

      Runway threshold.

    • C. 

      Near field arc.

    • D. 

      Far field arc.

  • 49. 
    Why are the localizer course and clearance transmitter’s output frequencies separated by 9.5 kilohertz (kHz)?
    • A. 

      Accommodate the bandwidth of the combined signals.

    • B. 

      Prevent incidental signal jamming.

    • C. 

      Match aircraft receiver design.

    • D. 

      Prevent signal combining.

  • 50. 
    Which localizer output would result in a change in the capture points from facility reference?
    • A. 

      12 watt (W) course (CRS) carrier plus sideband (CSB).

    • B. 

      200 milliwatt (mW) CRS sideband only (SBO).

    • C. 

      Match aircraft receiver design.Prevent signal combining.

    • D. 

      10 W clearance (CLR) CSB.

  • 51. 
    In the glide slope, which situation causes a fault condition and initiates equipment transfer?
    • A. 

      Abnormal shelter temperature.

    • B. 

      Abnormal primary power.

    • C. 

      Single monitor alarms.

    • D. 

      Dual monitor alarms.

  • 52. 
    Which reference is not a monitored parameter in the null-reference glide slope?
    • A. 

      Path difference in depth of modulation (DDM).

    • B. 

      Path radio frequency (RF) level.

    • C. 

      Ident percent of modulation.

    • D. 

      Width DDM.

  • 53. 
    Which hertz (Hz) signal is not an output status tone of the control unit?
    • A. 

      705.

    • B. 

      1,410.

    • C. 

      2,350.

    • D. 

      2,820.

  • 54. 
    What two radio frequency (RF) signals are generated by the null-reference glide slope transmitter?
    • A. 

      Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO).

    • B. 

      CSB and sideband control (SBC).

    • C. 

      SBC and operational sideband (OSB).

    • D. 

      SBO and SBC.

  • 55. 
    In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the upper antenna?
    • A. 

      Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and clearance (CLR).

    • B. 

      Clearance (CLR) and sideband only (SBO).

    • C. 

      Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) only.

    • D. 

      Sideband only (SBO) only.

  • 56. 
    In the glide slope, what happens if the main transmitter is on and both monitors detect a radiated fault?
    • A. 

      Main transmitter is turned off and standby transmitter is turned on.

    • B. 

      Main transmitter and standby transmitter are turned off.

    • C. 

      Main transmitter is turned off and back on.

    • D. 

      Main transmitter is turned off only.

  • 57. 
    In the glide slope, an alarm indication from the standby transmitter results in the
    • A. 

      Main transmitter being turned on.

    • B. 

      Standby transmitter being reset.

    • C. 

      Transfer from standby to main.

    • D. 

      Station being turned off.

  • 58. 
    When the aircraft is on the glide path, the airborne indicator shows what deflection?
    • A. 

      Nominal 5 microamps.

    • B. 

      Nominal 1 microamp.

    • C. 

      Minimum.

    • D. 

      None.

  • 59. 
    Which glide slope unit provides manual and automatic control for the station?
    • A. 

      Monitor.

    • B. 

      Transmitter.

    • C. 

      Control unit.

    • D. 

      Changeover unit.

  • 60. 
    Which tactical air navigation (TACAN) unit will absorb the transmitter output power if the antenna has an open or short circuit?
    • A. 

      The 4-port circulator.

    • B. 

      The directional coupler.

    • C. 

      A high power RF termination load.

    • D. 

      A low power radio frequency (RF) termination load.

  • 61. 
    In case of primary power loss, how many hours will the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) battery assembly provide backup power?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 62. 
    What is connected to the local personal computer (PC) to interface it with the remote PC?
    • A. 

      Modem.

    • B. 

      Optical interface.

    • C. 

      Control indicator.

    • D. 

      Radio frequency monitor.

  • 63. 
    How many monitor antenna probes does the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) ground check kit contain?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      8.

    • C. 

      12.

    • D. 

      16.

  • 64. 
    What is the primary method of operator control and monitoring of the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) navigational set?
    • A. 

      Monitors.

    • B. 

      Transmitter Assembly.

    • C. 

      Local or remote personal computer (PC).

    • D. 

      Radio frequency (RF) transmission switch.

  • 65. 
    When utilizing either of the personal computers (PC), which of the following operations can the operator perform?
    • A. 

      Turn the transmitter on or off.

    • B. 

      Turn on the control indicator.

    • C. 

      Power-up the system.

    • D. 

      Bypass monitors.

  • 66. 
    The personal computer (PC) in the navigational system displays data from how many monitors?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 67. 
    The output of the transmit section of the coder and decoder (CODEC) is controlled by the
    • A. 

      ON/OFF switch.

    • B. 

      START/STOP switch.

    • C. 

      Analog/digital (A/D) converter.

    • D. 

      Digital/analog (D/A) converter.

  • 68. 
    What signal does the oscillator in the coder and decoder (CODEC) transmit section provide?
    • A. 

      4 kilohertz (kHz) clock.

    • B. 

      400 kHz clock.

    • C. 

      1 kHz alarm tone.

    • D. 

      100 kHz alarm tone.

  • 69. 
    What hertz (Hz) frequency corresponds to a transmitter ON signal sent to the control indicator?
    • A. 

      39.

    • B. 

      47.

    • C. 

      66.

    • D. 

      74.

  • 70. 
    What is the kilohertz (kHz) frequency of the alarm oscillator circuit in the coder and decoder (CODEC)?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      2.

    • D. 

      1.

  • 71. 
    The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) watt output power range of the carrier signal is
    • A. 

      5 to 10.

    • B. 

      10 to 25.

    • C. 

      25 to 100.

    • D. 

      50 to 150.

  • 72. 
    What is the operating megahertz (MHz) frequency range of the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) antenna?
    • A. 

      100 to 120.

    • B. 

      108 to 118.

    • C. 

      110 to 116.

    • D. 

      112 to 114.

  • 73. 
    The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) transmitter receives ON/OFF control signals from the
    • A. 

      Control indicator.

    • B. 

      Monitor front panel.

    • C. 

      Digital computer front panel.

    • D. 

      Remote maintenance work center.

  • 74. 
    How many antennas sample the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) radiated signal and route the signals to the monitor?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      14.

    • D. 

      16.

  • 75. 
    The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) batteries are "trickle charged" at what volts direct current (VDC)?
    • A. 

      35.5.

    • B. 

      39.5.

    • C. 

      40.5.

    • D. 

      45.5.

  • 76. 
    Each of the 18 battery cells in the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) battery assembly provides what volts direct current (VDC)?
    • A. 

      2.0.

    • B. 

      2.2.

    • C. 

      2.5.

    • D. 

      3.2.

  • 77. 
    In the receive section of the coder and decoder (CODEC), what circuits are responsible for dividing the incoming audio and carrier signals?
    • A. 

      Digital/analog (D/A) converters.

    • B. 

      Analog/digital (A/D) converters.

    • C. 

      Two-way splitters.

    • D. 

      Bandpass filters.

  • 78. 
    The tactical air navigation (TACAN) system can provide bearing and distance information for up to how many aircraft at any given time?
    • A. 

      50.

    • B. 

      100.

    • C. 

      150.

    • D. 

      200.

  • 79. 
    On how many channels can the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system operate in X mode?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      116.

    • C. 

      126.

    • D. 

      156.

  • 80. 
    What parameter is not continuously monitored by the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system monitors?
    • A. 

      Efficiency.

    • B. 

      Reply delay.

    • C. 

      Input pulse rate.

    • D. 

      Antenna scan rate.

  • 81. 
    What is the definition of reply delay parameter?
    • A. 

      The time from aircraft interrogation to monitor reply.

    • B. 

      The time from monitor interrogation to transponder reply.

    • C. 

      The spacing from monitor interrogation to transponder reply.

    • D. 

      The spacing from transponder interrogation to monitor reply.

  • 82. 
    Which tactical air navigation (TACAN) system power supply output, in volts direct current, is over current and over voltage protected?
    • A. 

      +10.

    • B. 

      +17.5.

    • C. 

      −17.5.

    • D. 

      +65.

  • 83. 
    The tactical air navigation (TACAN) system radio frequency amplifier (RFA) produces a peak output of how many kilowatts (kW)?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 84. 
    What controls the overall system reply delay of the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system?
    • A. 

      Local personal computer (PC).

    • B. 

      Modulation generator.

    • C. 

      Encoder circuit card.

    • D. 

      Monitor.

  • 85. 
    How many monitors must fail or detect a fault for the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system to shutdown?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 86. 
    What type failure is not provided by the TACAN SOLID STATE ANTENNA STATUS lines?
    • A. 

      Soft.

    • B. 

      Hard.

    • C. 

      Clock.

    • D. 

      Modulator.

  • 87. 
    The microsecond (μs) spacing between the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system pulses in the X mode is
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      24.

    • C. 

      36.

    • D. 

      48.

  • 88. 
    How many pulse pairs make up an auxiliary reference burst?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      12.

    • D. 

      24.

  • 89. 
    How do aircraft recognize their own replies?
    • A. 

      Interrogation signal strength.

    • B. 

      Time delay from transmission.

    • C. 

      Pulse spacing between pair groups.

    • D. 

      Spacing from the north reference burst (NRB) pulses.

  • 90. 
    If an aircraft receives signals from two ground beacons operating on the same frequency
    • A. 

      The weaker signal is almost totally rejected.

    • B. 

      Co-channel interference will block the airborne receiver.

    • C. 

      The distance and the azimuth to the farther station will be displayed to the pilot.

    • D. 

      The two signals will saturate the receiver and cause the bearing indicator to hunt.

  • 91. 
    At what rate in revolutions per minute (rpm) and direction does the tactical air navigation (TACAN) antenna pattern appear to rotate?
    • A. 

      900, clockwise.

    • B. 

      900, counter-clockwise.

    • C. 

      1,350, clockwise.

    • D. 

      1,350, counter-clockwise.

  • 92. 
    How many stationary columns does the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system antenna use to produce the radiation pattern?
    • A. 

      16.

    • B. 

      24.

    • C. 

      36.

    • D. 

      40.

  • 93. 
    What assembly in the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system antenna modulation generator contains the system clock and trigger circuits?
    • A. 

      Motherboard.

    • B. 

      Column driver.

    • C. 

      Microprocessor.

    • D. 

      Operator interface.

  • 94. 
    Instrument landing system (ILS) points A, B, C, D, and E are used to define the limits of
    • A. 

      Coverage.

    • B. 

      Approach zone.

    • C. 

      Touchdown areas.

    • D. 

      Category I, II, and III systems.

  • 95. 
    Instrument landing system (ILS) point A is located where in reference to the runway threshold?
    • A. 

      Above.

    • B. 

      2 nautical miles.

    • C. 

      4 nautical miles.

    • D. 

      5 to 7 nautical miles.

  • 96. 
    Instrument landing system (ILS) point B is located where in reference to the runway threshold?
    • A. 

      4 nautical miles.

    • B. 

      5,000 feet.

    • C. 

      3,500 feet.

    • D. 

      2,000 feet.

  • 97. 
    The localizer clearance sectors are identified as
    • A. 

      90, 90 + 150, and 150.

    • B. 

      Front and back.

    • C. 

      A, B, and C.

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3.

  • 98. 
    Which type of flight check is designed to obtain complete information as to facility performance and to establish that the facility can support its operational requirements?
    • A. 

      Commissioning.

    • B. 

      Site evaluation.

    • C. 

      Periodic.

    • D. 

      Special.

  • 99. 
    Which of flight inspection is generally unscheduled?
    • A. 

      Commissioning

    • B. 

      Site evaluation.

    • C. 

      Surveillance.

    • D. 

      Periodic.

  • 100. 
    A facility which meets all tolerances and is fully usable within its service area is classified as
    • A. 

      Unusable.

    • B. 

      Reliable.

    • C. 

      Restricted.

    • D. 

      Unrestricted.

  • 101. 
    If a facility does not meet established tolerances within some specific locations of the service area, how does an inspector classify it?
    • A. 

      Unusable.

    • B. 

      Restricted.

    • C. 

      Unreliable.

    • D. 

      Unrestricted.

  • 102. 
    A facility which is not safe, unreliable, or poses a hazard to navigation is classified as
    • A. 

      Unusable.

    • B. 

      Restricted.

    • C. 

      Unreliable

    • D. 

      Unrestricted.

  • 103. 
    Which Air Force manual (AFMAN) contains tolerances and definitions used during a flight inspection?
    • A. 

      11–222.

    • B. 

      11–225.

    • C. 

      11–252.

    • D. 

      11–558.

  • 104. 
    The responsibility of providing two-way communication from the navigational aid (NAVAID) site to the aircraft belongs to the
    • A. 

      Work center supervisor.

    • B. 

      Flight check crew.

    • C. 

      Flight inspector.

    • D. 

      Commander.

  • 105. 
    In reference to flight inspection, the supervisor makes sure all possible ground calibration and checking are done
    • A. 

      During flight check.

    • B. 

      Before flight check arrival.

    • C. 

      After flight check departure.

    • D. 

      As directed by flight check personnel.

  • 106. 
    Of the flight check personnel, who is often referred to as the panel operator?
    • A. 

      Pilot.

    • B. 

      Theodolite operator.

    • C. 

      Flight inspection pilot.

    • D. 

      Flight inspection technician.

  • 107. 
    The angular or linear displacement of a positional or directional element from its normal reference describes
    • A. 

      Course scalloping.

    • B. 

      An alignment error.

    • C. 

      The course width.

    • D. 

      Roughness.

  • 108. 
    In flight check terminology, rhythmic excursions of the electromagnetic course or path are called
    • A. 

      Course scalloping.

    • B. 

      Alignment error.

    • C. 

      Roughness.

    • D. 

      Bends.

  • 109. 
    The angular deviation required to produce a full-scale course deflection of the indicator on the airborne navigational instrument describes
    • A. 

      Course error.

    • B. 

      Polarization error.

    • C. 

      Course width.  

    • D. 

      Structure.

  • 110. 
    During a localizer normal width run flight check, what level is not measured?
    • A. 

      Course Width.

    • B. 

      Identification

    • C. 

      Clearances.

    • D. 

      Symmetry.

  • 111. 
    To check for a wide alarm during a glide slope flight inspection, what power adjustment must be made?
    • A. 

      Increase the carrier-plus sideband.

    • B. 

      Decrease the carrier-plus sideband.

    • C. 

      Increase the sideband only.

    • D. 

      Decrease the sideband only.

  • 112. 
    Which glide slope flight inspection procedure checks phasing of the sideband only (SBO) signal in relationship to the carrier-plus sideband (CSB) signal?
    • A. 

      Structure.

    • B. 

      Modulation level.

    • C. 

      Advance and retard.

    • D. 

      Normal width/angle/symmetry.

  • 113. 
    What Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) flight check inspection report form is used for the localizer?
    • A. 

      8240–2.

    • B. 

      8240–3.

    • C. 

      8240–6.

    • D. 

      8240–8.

  • 114. 
    On the glide slope report, what field must be completed by the flight check crew in order for the graph to be plotted automatically?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      11.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 115. 
    Tactical air navigation (TACAN) coverage is considered satisfactory when a facility maintains continuous tracking, and course and distance information is in tolerance for how many miles?
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      35.

    • D. 

      40.

  • 116. 
    Which meter indicates reverse sensing from the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR)?
    • A. 

      9,960.

    • B. 

      To-from.

    • C. 

      Crosspointer.

    • D. 

      Automatic gain control (AGC).

  • 117. 
    Which meter indicates whether or not sufficient radio frequency (RF) signal is being received from the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) facility to make the readings on the aircraft indicators reliable?
    • A. 

      Flag alarm.

    • B. 

      Crosspointer.

    • C. 

      Automatic gain control (AGC).

    • D. 

      30 hertz (Hz) amplitude modulation (AM).

  • 118. 
    The terminal very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (TVOR) must cover how many miles?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      25.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 119. 
    The two categories that adjustments normally encountered during a flight inspection are divided into are signal level and
    • A. 

      Waveform.

    • B. 

      Azimuth.

    • C. 

      Voltage.

    • D. 

      Power.

  • 120. 
    The maximum degree deviation of the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) course caused by polarization shall not exceed
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      3.5

  • 121. 
    What is the maximum degree course shift that may occur before the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) monitor alarms?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      1.5

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      2.5

  • 122. 
    The publication containing detailed historical record guidance is
    • A. 

      Technical Order (TO) 00–33A–1001.

    • B. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 21–2116.

    • C. 

      TO 00–20–1.

    • D. 

      TO 00–5–1.

  • 123. 
    Where in a typical Airfield Systems work center are historical records kept?
    • A. 

      Work center centralized records, each equipment facility or equipment shelter, and the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    • B. 

      Work center centralized records, each equipment facility or equipment shelter, and affixed to each end item.

    • C. 

      Each equipment facility or equipment shelter and IMDS only.

    • D. 

      Work center centralized records only.

  • 124. 
    What is a transitory portion of the equipment historical file?
    • A. 

      File record.

    • B. 

      Facility record.

    • C. 

      Federal facility file.

    • D. 

      Certification.