Halon 1211 (Bromochlorodifluoromethane) Quiz Questions
MQF for the B52
- 1.
Prior to opening or closing the main entry door
- A.
One of the pilots’ sliding windows will be opened approximately two inches.
- B.
The No. 1 pin will be installed in both the navigator and radar navigator seats.
- C.
The pressure bulkhead door will be closed and locked.
- D.
Ensure the outside operating handle is flush with the skin of the aircraft.
Correct Answer
A. One of the pilots’ sliding windows will be opened approximately two inches. -
- 2.
When using the CRU-73/A type oxygen regulator
- A.
The test position will not be used when preflighting the oxygen mask.
- B.
Do not select NORMAL position when supply shutoff lever is positioned ON.
- C.
100% oxygen is automatically supplied when smoke and fumes are present.
- D.
Do not force regulator diluter lever to NORMAL when the supply shutoff lever is positioned OFF.
Correct Answer
D. Do not force regulator diluter lever to NORMAL when the supply shutoff lever is positioned OFF. -
- 3.
The Instructor Navigator, designated to combat a pressurized compartment fire, is using the portable fire extinguisher. Crewmembers using an aircraft regulator will go on 100% OXYGEN immediately with the emergency toggle switch in the _________ position.
- A.
NORMAL
- B.
EMERGENCY
- C.
30M
- D.
25M
Correct Answer
A. NORMAL -
- 4.
Halon 1211 has a _____________ level of toxicity.
- A.
Weak
- B.
High
- C.
Hazardous
- D.
Low
Correct Answer
D. Low -
- 5.
On decomposition, Halon 1211 has a characteristic ____________.
- A.
Sharp, acrid odor
- B.
Pungent odor
- C.
Toxic odor
- D.
Inert odor
Correct Answer
A. Sharp, acrid odor -
- 6.
Removing an escape hatch without first disconnecting the _________ will fire the catapult safety pin pull initiator and leave the ejection seat catapult in an armed condition.
- A.
Arming lanyard
- B.
Hatch release handle
- C.
Rotary latch hook
- D.
Arming link
Correct Answer
D. Arming link -
- 7.
The battery will be depleted if the ______________ circuit breakers remain IN for an extended period without aircraft or external power.
- A.
Airbrake
- B.
Ground egress
- C.
Interphone
- D.
Fuel pump
Correct Answer
B. Ground egress -
- 8.
The crew bunk is not stressed for high G loads and should ______________.
- A.
Be stowed during ejection.
- B.
Not be occupied during crash landing or ditching.
- C.
Not be occupied during combat
- D.
Removed before flight
Correct Answer
B. Not be occupied during crash landing or ditching. -
- 9.
Utilizing a shock absorbing device and/or extra seat cushions in an ejection seat
- A.
Creates a definite possibility of serious injury during ejection.
- B.
Provides comfort to the occupant during all hard landings.
- C.
Decreases the possibility of injury during flight in turbulence
- D.
Is permitted on long flights when parachute wear is mandatory.
Correct Answer
A. Creates a definite possibility of serious injury during ejection. -
- 10.
In the event either or both arming lever(s) have been rotated, the seat can be considered completely safe only after the
- A.
Safety pin-pull pin has been reinserted into the arming initiator.
- B.
No. 1 safety pins have been inserted, arming lever(s) stowed and armrests lowered (in this sequence).
- C.
No. 1 safety pins have been inserted with the armrests lowered.
- D.
Arming lever(s) have been stowed, No. 1 safety pins inserted, and the armrests lowered (in this sequence).
Correct Answer
D. Arming lever(s) have been stowed, No. 1 safety pins inserted, and the armrests lowered (in this sequence). -
- 11.
The catapult safety pin-pull pin cannot be reinserted into the ______________ initiator inflight.
- A.
Catapult
- B.
Safety
- C.
Arming
- D.
Pin-pull
Correct Answer
A. Catapult -
- 12.
Installation of the flight safety pins with the arming levers rotated to the UP position will
- A.
Prevent the seat from firing if either trigger is squeezed.
- B.
Not prevent the seat from firing if either trigger is squeezed.
- C.
Deactivate the firing trigger.
- D.
Completely safe the seat.
Correct Answer
B. Not prevent the seat from firing if either trigger is squeezed. -
- 13.
If the arming lever is rotated on a stowed armrest, the
- A.
Arming initiator will not fire.
- B.
Arming initiator will fire.
- C.
Seat will be in an armed condition.
- D.
Seat will fire the hatch and eject.
Correct Answer
A. Arming initiator will not fire. -
- 14.
(Seat Movement) A full actuation in one direction should be followed by at least a 30-second rest. If another full actuation of that positioning motor is required after the 30-second delay, a _______ rest must follow before another actuation of any degree.
- A.
20 seconds
- B.
1 minute
- C.
5 minutes
- D.
10 minutes
Correct Answer
C. 5 minutes -
- 15.
To assure complete release of the integrated harness for manual bailout,
- A.
Lock the inertia reel assembly before pulling the survival kit release handle.
- B.
Pull the integrated harness release handle prior to actuating the survival kit release.
- C.
Lock the inertia reel before actuating the integrated harness release handle.
- D.
Maintain a constant pressure on the release handle until all fittings are clear.
Correct Answer
C. Lock the inertia reel before actuating the integrated harness release handle. -
- 16.
Should a downward ejection hatch be inadvertently dropped, the ejection seat at that station will be _______________.
- A.
Fired
- B.
Armed and can be fired
- C.
Deactivated
- D.
Safe
Correct Answer
B. Armed and can be fired -
- 17.
Pulling the survival kit release handle with the kit not installed in the seat will cause the lid to open. In an emergency, this could cause a ___________ delay in escaping from the aircraft.
- A.
Serious
- B.
Prolong
- C.
Critical
- D.
Fatal
Correct Answer
D. Fatal -
- 18.
Pilots will be alert to inadvertent life raft inflation and be prepared to _______________ the life raft.
- A.
Immediately puncture
- B.
Deflate
- C.
Stow
- D.
Install
Correct Answer
A. Immediately puncture -
- 19.
Severe injury may be incurred if ejection is performed with
- A.
Helmet chin strap fastened too tightly.
- B.
Any integrated harness attachment fitting disconnected.
- C.
The landing gear extended when airspeed is above 250 KIAS.
- D.
The landing gear retracted when airspeed is above 270 KIAS.
Correct Answer
B. Any integrated harness attachment fitting disconnected. -
- 20.
On the ground with the aircraft in a level attitude, the mid body tank is considered empty when the tank gauge is at or less than __________ pounds.
- A.
300
- B.
400
- C.
1000
- D.
1200
Correct Answer
C. 1000 -
- 21.
During ground operations, do not operate the _____ tank boost pumps when these tanks are empty.
- A.
Body or external
- B.
Body or outboard
- C.
Main or external
- D.
Main or body
Correct Answer
A. Body or external -
- 22.
With the aircraft in a level attitude, the aft body tank is considered empty when the tank gauge reading is at or less than ______ pounds.
- A.
400
- B.
800
- C.
1000
- D.
1200
Correct Answer
D. 1200 -
- 23.
During flight, the ______ tanks fuel control switches will be turned OFF when the gauge reads empty or the fuel flow indicator light indicates no flow condition.
- A.
Mains and body
- B.
Auxiliary
- C.
Mains and external
- D.
External and outboard
Correct Answer
B. Auxiliary -
- 24.
Failure to accomplish prescribed fuel panel settings with the fuel level in main tanks 1 or 4 in the green band area or when any main tank is down to 5,000 pounds can
- A.
Cause a lateral fuel imbalance that will make aircraft control difficult.
- B.
Provide a potential for engine flameout during a critical phase of flight.
- C.
Cause severe damage to the aircraft fuel supply system including fuel cells.
- D.
Provide a potential for catastrophic engine damage due to fuel starvation.
Correct Answer
B. Provide a potential for engine flameout during a critical phase of flight. -
- 25.
Do not use SIOP/Positive Control Launch fuel sequence for other than SIOP operations because _________________ has not been considered in the fuel sequence.
- A.
Maximum CG
- B.
Abnormal CG
- C.
Aircraft structural life
- D.
Empty pylons
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft structural life -
- 26.
During ____________ fuel panel operations, the master refuel switch will not be used by itself to control auxiliary tank fuel transfer operations.
- A.
High level
- B.
Low level or traffic pattern
- C.
Air refueling
- D.
Initial buffet
Correct Answer
B. Low level or traffic pattern -
- 27.
The main refuel valve emergency control lever should be in the _______ position before the main refuel valve is actuated electrically.
- A.
CENTER
- B.
OPEN
- C.
CLOSED
- D.
ON
Correct Answer
A. CENTER -
- 28.
If the master refuel switch is turned OFF before the slipway doors CLOSED-AND-LOCKED light illuminates,
- A.
The READY-FOR-CONTACT light will remain illuminated.
- B.
Damage to the doors will occur with possible hydraulic failure.
- C.
The doors will move to the full open position.
- D.
The doors will remain in an unlocked or intermediate position.
Correct Answer
D. The doors will remain in an unlocked or intermediate position. -
- 29.
To prevent pump overheating, the ground service pumps are limited to _________ minutes continuous operation.
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
B. 5 -
- 30.
Maximum time that rudder/elevator hydraulic system can be operated without ground blower in operation is __________ minutes.
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
8
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 4 -
- 31.
During retraction or extension of the landing gear by one system, do not actuate the other system while the gear is in motion since this procedure may ____________________.
- A.
Interrupt electrical signals
- B.
Render any or all gear inoperable
- C.
Overtax hydraulic system
- D.
Rupture a hydraulic line
Correct Answer
D. Rupture a hydraulic line -
- 32.
Do not attempt to free a bomb door control (four-way) valve by _______ as this procedure may damage the bomb door system.
- A.
Opening the bomb doors
- B.
Reducing hydraulic pressure
- C.
Pulling the affected circuit breaker
- D.
Using the Emergency Bomb Release System
Correct Answer
A. Opening the bomb doors -
- 33.
The _________ Switch should not be used with the Bombing System Switch in AUTO and the OAS in the bomb mode.
- A.
Pilot's Missile Select
- B.
Master Bomb Control
- C.
FWD-RACK Select
- D.
Pilot's Bomb Door
Correct Answer
D. Pilot's Bomb Door -
- 34.
When the control column has been reengaged after ejection sequence has been initiated, the column will ______________ for subsequent ejection.
- A.
Be manually stowed
- B.
Automatically stow
- C.
Disconnect
- D.
Disengage
Correct Answer
A. Be manually stowed -
- 35.
Whenever either control column is disengaged and subsequently reengaged in flight, ___________ will be confirmed.
- A.
Disconnect lever position
- B.
Autopilot disengagement
- C.
Positive engagement
- D.
Control column position
Correct Answer
C. Positive engagement -
- 36.
The autopilot will be used with caution during _____________.
- A.
Instrument approaches
- B.
Low level
- C.
Air refueling
- D.
Any critical phase of flight
Correct Answer
D. Any critical phase of flight -
- 37.
During the preflight of the autopilot checks, do not allow the stabilizer trim to drive more than ___________ unit(s) at a time when operating on standby pumps.
- A.
1/2
- B.
1
- C.
2
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1/2 -
- 38.
The pilot should be prepared to immediately _____________ in the event of a hardover indication following engagement of the autopilot.
- A.
Turn off the autopilot
- B.
Disengage the autopilot
- C.
Command ejection
- D.
Roll wings level
Correct Answer
B. Disengage the autopilot -
- 39.
The B-52 autopilot hold function does not have a G-limiting capability. Therefore, the pilots will engage the autopilot altitude hold on when the aircraft is ______________ .
- A.
In a dive
- B.
In straight and level flight
- C.
In a turn
- D.
In a climb
Correct Answer
B. In straight and level flight -
- 40.
If a constant large displacement of the control column indicates failure of the autopilot automatic trim system, ________ after autopilot disengagement and retrim.
- A.
Maintain forward yoke pressure
- B.
Lower raised airbrakes
- C.
Maintain column position manually
- D.
Perform unusual attitude recovery
Correct Answer
C. Maintain column position manually -
- 41.
Explosive danger in the air bleed system no longer exists above ____________.
- A.
23,000 feet
- B.
25,000 feet
- C.
30,000 feet
- D.
40,000 feet
Correct Answer
B. 25,000 feet -
- 42.
Periodically during flight each crewmembers should check ducts, outlets, electrical wiring, and electronic equipment in his immediate area to see they are
- A.
Free from combustible materials.
- B.
Operating in the correct manner.
- C.
Not producing noises or vibrations
- D.
Correctly installed and stay that way
Correct Answer
A. Free from combustible materials. -
- 43.
Do not run the air conditioning pack (ACP) with the
- A.
Air bleed select switch in EMERG RH INBD.
- B.
Heat exchanger ram air duct plugs in place.
- C.
Cabin pressure release switch in OPEN.
- D.
Engine manifold value switch OPEN
Correct Answer
B. Heat exchanger ram air duct plugs in place. -
- 44.
For the cabin to be pressurized, the emergency cabin pressure release handle will be set positively to ______.
- A.
Open
- B.
Intermediate
- C.
Closed
- D.
Inactivate
Correct Answer
C. Closed -
- 45.
The EVS window washing lines and pump will remain full of water until _____________.
- A.
RAM is selected
- B.
Above 12,000 feet
- C.
Cabin is pressurized
- D.
Cabin pressure is dumped
Correct Answer
C. Cabin is pressurized -
- 46.
If ice is inadvertently allowed to build up on the engine inlet, _____ should be reduced (if flight conditions permit) before anti-ice is activated to prevent or reduce engine damage.
- A.
Altitude
- B.
Throttle setting
- C.
Airspeed
- D.
OAT
Correct Answer
B. Throttle setting -
- 47.
Indiscriminate or prolonged use of engine and nacelle anti-icing may cause cracking of ____________.
- A.
Inlet guide vanes
- B.
Scoops
- C.
Nose domes
- D.
Nacelle ducts
Correct Answer
A. Inlet guide vanes -
- 48.
To prevent damage to the heated windows, operate on NORMAL _____ minutes before turning switch to HIGH position.
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
C. 15 -
- 49.
If it is determined that the altitude computer (CPU-66) has failed or is delivering erroneous data, place the MODE C enabling switch to the OUT position and
- A.
Advise the ARTC center.
- B.
Continue the mission
- C.
IDENT the ARTC center.
- D.
Land as soon as practical.
Correct Answer
A. Advise the ARTC center. -
- 50.
If the altimeter's internal vibrator is inoperative, the 100 foot pointer may momentarily hang up. Pilots should be especially watchful for this failure when their minimum approach altitude lies within the ________ foot part of the scale.
- A.
0 to 300
- B.
300 to 500
- C.
500 to 700
- D.
800 to 1000
Correct Answer
D. 800 to 1000 -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2022Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 31, 2011Quiz Created by
Redfox321
Back to top