Unit 3/ Section 2

74 Questions

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Abdomen Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of these is not a reason for routinely inserting a foley catheter into the bladder during general surgery?
    • A. 

      Keep the bladder full

    • B. 

      Reduce the risk of injuring the bladder

    • C. 

      Give the surgeon more room to operate

    • D. 

      Monitor urine output and renal function

  • 2. 
    What does the surgeon use to isolate the operative area of the inner abdomen to prevent contamination of other structures and areas in the peritoneal cavity?
    • A. 

      Laparotomy sponges

    • B. 

      4x8 raytex sponges

    • C. 

      A 36" penrose drain

    • D. 

      A disposable drape sheet

  • 3. 
    Which incision is a vertical incision approximately two inches to the right or left of the midline in the upper or lower abdomen?
    • A. 

      Subcostal

    • B. 

      Paramedian

    • C. 

      Mcburneys

    • D. 

      Pfannestiels

  • 4. 
    Which incision is almost exclusively used for an appendectomy?
    • A. 

      Subcostal

    • B. 

      Paramedian

    • C. 

      Mcburneys

    • D. 

      Pfannenstiels

  • 5. 
    During a cholangiogram, why is it very important to remove all of the air bubbles from the syringe and catheter containing the contrast media?
    • A. 

      Air prevents the stones from dissolving

    • B. 

      Air is contaminated and may cause an infection

    • C. 

      Air bubbles may appear to be stones on the x-ray

    • D. 

      Air may enter the common bile duct and cause an air embolism

  • 6. 
    The surgical removal of the entire breast without lymph node dissection is called a
    • A. 

      Partial mastectomy

    • B. 

      Radical mastectomy

    • C. 

      Simple mastectomy

    • D. 

      Modified radical mastectomy

  • 7. 
    What type of hernia most frequently occurs in females?
    • A. 

      Femoral

    • B. 

      Inguinal

    • C. 

      Umbilical

    • D. 

      Incisional

  • 8. 
    Which layer of tissue is reinforced with marlex or mersilene mesh during a hernia repair?
    • A. 

      Fascia

    • B. 

      Muscle

    • C. 

      Peritoneum

    • D. 

      Subcutaneous

  • 9. 
    What type of biopsy is the removal of the entire breast mass?
    • A. 

      Needle

    • B. 

      Silverman

    • C. 

      Incisional

    • D. 

      Excisional

  • 10. 
    Distended vessels of the rectum are known surgically as
    • A. 

      Polyps

    • B. 

      Fistulas

    • C. 

      Hemorrhoids

    • D. 

      Anorectal tumors

  • 11. 
    Which clamp is used to grasp the hemorrhoids for excision?
    • A. 

      Pean

    • B. 

      Lahey

    • C. 

      Heaney

    • D. 

      Pennington

  • 12. 
    What surgical procedure allows endoscopic visualization of the anal canal, rectum, and sigmoid colon?
    • A. 

      Colposcopy

    • B. 

      Cystoscopy

    • C. 

      Laparoscopy

    • D. 

      Sigmoidoscopy

  • 13. 
    During laparoscopy, pneumoperitoneum is established by
    • A. 

      Insufflation with oxygen

    • B. 

      Insufflation with carbon dioxide

    • C. 

      Infiltration with sodium chloride

    • D. 

      Infiltration with lactated ringers

  • 14. 
    What is the correct number of trocars typically used during a laparoscopic nissen fundoplication?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 15. 
    Instead of a foley, which type of device may be inserted to provide urinary drainage of the bladder after a radical GYN procedure?
    • A. 

      Stille cannula

    • B. 

      Cutdown catheter

    • C. 

      Insufflation cannula

    • D. 

      Suprapubic catheter

  • 16. 
    Pressure against soft tissue of the leg in the lithotomy position predisposes the patient to develop
    • A. 

      Muscle strain

    • B. 

      Venous thrombus

    • C. 

      Radial nerve damage

    • D. 

      Capillary hemorrhage

  • 17. 
    To prevent hip strain when the patient is in the lithotomy position
    • A. 

      Lower legs and feet should be allowed to dangle over the end of the table

    • B. 

      The legs must be moved simultaneously, as a unit

    • C. 

      A pillow should be placed under the sacral area

    • D. 

      The feet and legs should be well padded

  • 18. 
    When nonliving products of conception are retained in the uterus for over 2 months, the condtion is called
    • A. 

      A missed abortion

    • B. 

      A complete abortion

    • C. 

      An imminent abortion

    • D. 

      An incomplete abortion

  • 19. 
    A complication of childbirth caused by the placenta prematurely separating from the uterine wall is known as
    • A. 

      Metrorrhagia

    • B. 

      Placenta previa

    • C. 

      Dystmenorrhea

    • D. 

      Abruptio placentae

  • 20. 
    A total hysterectomy combined with a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is a
    • A. 

      Salpingectomy

    • B. 

      Panhysterectomy

    • C. 

      Hysterocolpectomy

    • D. 

      Hysteromyomectomy

  • 21. 
    Besides obstetric and surgical staff, what other hospital personnel should be in attendance during a cesarean section?
    • A. 

      Laboratory

    • B. 

      Nursery

    • C. 

      X-ray

    • D. 

      Ward

  • 22. 
    Which incision is used for a cesarean section?
    • A. 

      Subcostal

    • B. 

      Mcburneys

    • C. 

      Pfannenstiels

    • D. 

      Infraumbilical

  • 23. 
    What is the correct placement of ligature sutures on a cervical specimen?
    • A. 

      2 o'clock and 6 o'clock

    • B. 

      2 o'clock and 9 o'clock

    • C. 

      3 o'clock and 6 o'clock

    • D. 

      3 o'clock and 9 o'clock

  • 24. 
    During a laparoscopy, methylene blue is used to determine patency of the
    • A. 

      Fallopian tubes

    • B. 

      Urethra

    • C. 

      Cervix

    • D. 

      Uterus

  • 25. 
    Laparoscopic assisted vaginal hysterectomy provides surgeons with better
    • A. 

      Dressing applications

    • B. 

      Skin closure techniques

    • C. 

      Hemostasis or bladder repairs

    • D. 

      Visualization of internal structures

  • 26. 
    Surgeons may use a laparoscope towards the end of a LAVH procudre to
    • A. 

      Verify hemostasis

    • B. 

      Assist with initial counts

    • C. 

      Verify removal of the uterus

    • D. 

      Assist with skin closure counts

  • 27. 
    Endometrial ablation is performed to treat
    • A. 

      Missed abortion

    • B. 

      Spontaneous abortion

    • C. 

      Abnormal uterine bleeding

    • D. 

      Cephalopelvic disproportion

  • 28. 
    Which laser technique requires the tip of the laser to be held away from the tissue to treat endometrium?
    • A. 

      Dissecting technique

    • B. 

      Blanching technique

    • C. 

      Cragging technique

    • D. 

      Dassing technique

  • 29. 
    When transporting a patient in skeletal traction to surgery, the weights should be removed
    • A. 

      Only if a life-threatening situation occurs

    • B. 

      Only if the patient complains about the tension

    • C. 

      Immediately before entering the surgical suite

    • D. 

      Immediately before leaving the patients room

  • 30. 
    If casts must be removed before an operation, they should be bivalved
    • A. 

      Only by the circulating nurse

    • B. 

      Only by the operating surgeon

    • C. 

      Before the patient is brought to the operating room

    • D. 

      After the patient is brought into the operating room

  • 31. 
    When screws, plates, and other metal implant devices are used, they should be
    • A. 

      Made of the same type of metal to increase absortion rate

    • B. 

      Made of the same type of metal to prevent metal break-down

    • C. 

      Rinsed with sterile water immediately after implant to prevent tissue reaction

    • D. 

      Rinsed with sterile water immediately before implant to precent tissue reaction

  • 32. 
    Corecting a fractureby manipulatinf the extremity until the bones are re-aligned without incising the skin is known as
    • A. 

      Open reduction

    • B. 

      Closed reduction

    • C. 

      External fixation

    • D. 

      Internal fixation

  • 33. 
    Which procedure repairs a recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder?
    • A. 

      Mcbride

    • B. 

      Puttie-platt

    • C. 

      Mckee-farr

    • D. 

      Austin-moore

  • 34. 
    When a bone plate is useed for internal fixation of the forearm, it should be approximately
    • A. 

      Five times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of 2 transfixion screws on each side of the fracture

    • B. 

      2 times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of 2 transfixion screws on each side of the fracture

    • C. 

      5 times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of 5 transfixion screws on each side of the fracture

    • D. 

      5 times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of 5 transfixion screws on each side of the fracture

  • 35. 
    ?which instrument is used to smooth the bone edges of the stump of an amputated extremity?
    • A. 

      Periosteal elevator

    • B. 

      Steinman pin

    • C. 

      Reamer

    • D. 

      Rasp

  • 36. 
    What procedure corrects a condition that is primarily thought to be caused by long-term repetitious motions of the hand, fingers, and wrist?
    • A. 

      Arthroplasty

    • B. 

      Palmar fasciectomy

    • C. 

      Carpal tunnel release

    • D. 

      Anterior shoulder repair

  • 37. 
    Which surgical procedure is used to correct hallux  valgus (bunions)?
    • A. 

      Keller

    • B. 

      Cloward

    • C. 

      Schwartz

    • D. 

      Torkildsen

  • 38. 
    During a nunionectomy, after removal of the exostosis, the toe and metatarsal head are held in alignment with a
    • A. 

      Staple

    • B. 

      Lag screw

    • C. 

      Kirschner wire

    • D. 

      Malleolus screw

  • 39. 
    During an arthroscopy, if an irrigation pump is not used, at what minimum height above the skee should the irrigation solution be suspended?
    • A. 

      2 feet

    • B. 

      3 feet

    • C. 

      4 feet

    • D. 

      5 feet

  • 40. 
    Other than normal saline, which solution distends the knee joint during an arthroscopy?
    • A. 

      Heprin

    • B. 

      Dextran

    • C. 

      Distilled water

    • D. 

      Lactated ringers

  • 41. 
    Which of the following instruments would not be used during an arthroscopy of the knee joint?
    • A. 

      Hooks

    • B. 

      Probes

    • C. 

      Scissors

    • D. 

      Tennaculum

  • 42. 
    Which statement is not correct regarding cystoscopic procedures?
    • A. 

      The circulator should warm the prep solutions before doing the cleansing skin prep

    • B. 

      They are never performed using only topical or local infiltration for anesthesia; regional or general anesthesia is required

    • C. 

      The scrub technician generally sets up the instrument table and equipment, then removes gown and gloves and helps the circulating nurse throughout the procedure

    • D. 

      A continuous flow of sterile irrigating fluid is used to distend the bladder to provide effective visualization.

  • 43. 
    What is the purpose of the screen on a cysto table irrigation drainage pan?
    • A. 

      Filters irrigation fluid before administration

    • B. 

      Traps a stone or specimen before it is washed away

    • C. 

      Provides ventilation to facilitate gravity flow of irrigation fluid

    • D. 

      Breaks stones into smaller pieces to prevent blockage of suction

  • 44. 
    The irrigating solution most widely used during transurethral surgery is
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Saline

    • C. 

      Glycine

    • D. 

      Mannitol

  • 45. 
    During a simple nephrectomy, three-inch tape is used to
    • A. 

      Secure intubation tubes

    • B. 

      Secure intravenous catheters

    • C. 

      Stabilize the patient on the table

    • D. 

      Stabilize the patient on the gurney

  • 46. 
    After traction suters are placed in the bladder during suprapubic prostatectomy the dome of the bladder is opened with a
    • A. 

      Deep knife

    • B. 

      Tonsil knife

    • C. 

      Amputation knife

    • D. 

      Emulsification knife

  • 47. 
    Removal of a stone from the ureter is called a
    • A. 

      Ureterolithotomy

    • B. 

      Utereerolithiasis

    • C. 

      Ureteroplasty

    • D. 

      Ureterolysis

  • 48. 
    Circumcision refers to
    • A. 

      Removal of the glands

    • B. 

      Removal of the foreskin

    • C. 

      Lengthening of the foreskin

    • D. 

      Widening of the urethral opening

  • 49. 
    Which of these is generally used as a dressing after circumsision?
    • A. 

      Webril

    • B. 

      Elastoplast

    • C. 

      Plaster bandage

    • D. 

      Petrolatum gauze

  • 50. 
    Orchiopexy can be defined as
    • A. 

      Testicle removal

    • B. 

      Uterine suspension

    • C. 

      Fixation of an ovary

    • D. 

      Fixation of a testicle

  • 51. 
    A diagnostic endoscopic examination of the lower urinary tract is called a
    • A. 

      Cystoscopy

    • B. 

      Laparoscopy

    • C. 

      Hysteroscopy

    • D. 

      Mediastinoscopy

  • 52. 
    What type of x-ray procedure is often done in conjunction with a cystoscopy?
    • A. 

      Cholangiogram

    • B. 

      Electromyogram

    • C. 

      Cystometrogram

    • D. 

      Retrograde pyelogram

  • 53. 
    Removal of prostatic tissue through a resectoscope is known surgically as a
    • A. 

      Retropubic resection

    • B. 

      Suprapubic resection

    • C. 

      Transurethral resection

    • D. 

      Suprapubic cystostomy

  • 54. 
    When does lasering begin during a transurethral resection of the bladder procedure?
    • A. 

      After the surgeon locates the uretral orifice

    • B. 

      After the obturator is removed from its sheath

    • C. 

      Before the surgeon locates the ureteral orifice

    • D. 

      Before the obturator is removed from its sheath

  • 55. 
    Prior to the cleansing skin prep, a patients eyelashes are clipped using small scissors with the blades coated with
    • A. 

      Vaseline

    • B. 

      Collodion

    • C. 

      Xylocaine

    • D. 

      Xeroform

  • 56. 
    Which of these may be used as a dye or stain to diagnose retinal pathology or corneal abrasions?
    • A. 

      Fluorescein sodium

    • B. 

      Neomycin sulfate

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine

    • D. 

      Pilocarpine

  • 57. 
    Removal of an opaque lens (in the eye) is known as cataract
    • A. 

      Resection

    • B. 

      Recession

    • C. 

      Extraction

    • D. 

      Enucleation

  • 58. 
    What is used to drape and outline the operative eye during a catract extraction procedure?
    • A. 

      Plastic u-drape

    • B. 

      Extremity sheet

    • C. 

      Transverse sheet

    • D. 

      Plastic fenestrated sheet

  • 59. 
    Removal of a portion of an ocular muscle and suturing the remaining muscle ends together is called
    • A. 

      Recession

    • B. 

      Resection

    • C. 

      Strabismus

    • D. 

      Myomectomy

  • 60. 
    What is used to remove and debride surface cells and epithelium during photorefractive keratectomy procedures?
    • A. 

      Calibri forceps

    • B. 

      Van ness sissors

    • C. 

      #11 scalpel blade

    • D. 

      Amoils epithelial scrubber

  • 61. 
    The surgical restoration of an injured "ear drum" is known as
    • A. 

      Stapedectomy

    • B. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • C. 

      Tympanomastoidectomy

    • D. 

      Myringotomy with insertion of drainage tubes

  • 62. 
    A tympanic graft is held in place with
    • A. 

      Clips

    • B. 

      Sutures

    • C. 

      Gelfoam

    • D. 

      Steri-strips

  • 63. 
    Which gland is removed if the patient suffers from a diffuse goiter?
    • A. 

      Adrenal

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Thyroid

    • D. 

      Pituitary

  • 64. 
    Which surgical procedure may be done to provide long-term respiratory support?
    • A. 

      Tracheostomy

    • B. 

      Trachelopexy

    • C. 

      Tracheorrhaphy

    • D. 

      Trachelorrhaphy

  • 65. 
    Initially, acute otitis media is surgically treated by
    • A. 

      Stapedectomy

    • B. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • C. 

      Tympanomastoidectomy

    • D. 

      Myringotomy with insertion of drainage tubes

  • 66. 
    A hurd dissector is routinely used in which surgical procedure?
    • A. 

      Mastoidectomy

    • B. 

      Eppendectomy

    • C. 

      Tonsillectomy

    • D. 

      Craniectomy

  • 67. 
    Functional endoscopic surgery is the primary surgical treatment for
    • A. 

      Cholesteatoma

    • B. 

      Chronic sinusitis

    • C. 

      Damaged ossicles

    • D. 

      Chronic otitis media

  • 68. 
    During functional endoscopic surgery, what instrument is used to enlarge each sinus?
    • A. 

      Nasal elevator

    • B. 

      Antrum punch

    • C. 

      Coakley curettes

    • D. 

      Takahashi forceps

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is not an indication for performing an uvulopalatopharyngoplasty procedure?
    • A. 

      O2 saturation below 80

    • B. 

      Apnea index worse than 20

    • C. 

      Significant daytime sleepiness

    • D. 

      Damaged tympanic membrane

  • 70. 
    Following uvulopalatopharyngoplasty procedures, mucosal edges  are closed with a
    • A. 

      Running sutures

    • B. 

      Vertical mattress sutures

    • C. 

      Simple interrupted sutures

    • D. 

      Horizontal mattress sutures

  • 71. 
    What occurs when the bitting surfaces of the teeth do not meet properly?
    • A. 

      Malocclusion

    • B. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • C. 

      Hypermobility

    • D. 

      Atrophic epithelium

  • 72. 
    What specific postoperative precaution should be taken for patients who have had a mandinular fracture surgically reduced?
    • A. 

      Apply cricoid pressure

    • B. 

      Avoid exposure to x-rays

    • C. 

      Send wire cutters with the patient

    • D. 

      Tape a cricothyrotomy kit to the chart

  • 73. 
    Epinepherine is injecteed around a diseased tooth before extraction to
    • A. 

      Aid in hemostasis

    • B. 

      Loosen the tooth

    • C. 

      Prevent nausea

    • D. 

      Prevent edema

  • 74. 
    What joint is incised during a TMJ arthroscopy?
    • A. 

      Knee joint

    • B. 

      Synovial joint

    • C. 

      Fibrous joints

    • D. 

      Temprormandibular joint