Utah Quiz

108 Questions

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Utah Quiz

Utah Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Overman is from Doucheaine
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    Under the Utah governmental immunity act the intentional doing of a wrongful act or the wrongful failure to act without just cause or excuse whether the actor is aware that the misconduct will probably result in injuries is known as:
    • A. 

      Willful misconduct

    • B. 

      Negligence

    • C. 

      Wrong doing

    • D. 

      Wrongfulness

  • 3. 
    No employee may be joined or held personally liable under Utah law for acts of omissions occurring during the performance of the employees duties or within the scope of the employees employment or under the color of authority unless
    • A. 

      The injury or damage to the vehicle occurred while driving under the influence

    • B. 

      The injury or damage to the vehicle occurred while the employee was mentally or physically impaired

    • C. 

      Intentionally or knowingly gave false testimony

    • D. 

      All of the Above

  • 4. 
    A claim against a governmental entity or against employee is barred unless a notice of claim is filed within one year after the claim arises
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    Before Salt Lake City Corporation may defend an employee the employee shall:
    • A. 

      File a written request asking the city to defend

    • B. 

      Find a good Lawyer

  • 6. 
    The employee shall cooperate in the defense of the action or the city can decline to defend or discontinue defending the employee.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    The burden of proof in a civil case is
    • A. 

      Preponderance of Evidence

    • B. 

      Reasonable Doubt

    • C. 

      Reasonable suspicion

    • D. 

      Preponderance of Doubt

  • 8. 
    An action brought against a police officer in federal court is a violation of a persons constitutional right is brought pursuant to what law or statute
    • A. 

      42 US-B 1983

    • B. 

      42 US-B 1984

    • C. 

      42 US-B 1985

    • D. 

      42 US-B 1986

  • 9. 
    A Municipality and police officers are both deemed to be persons for purposes of  a federal civil rights lawsuits
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    To state a claim for violation of constitutional rights the plaintiff must show that the defendant acted under color of federal law and as a result deprived the plaintiff of some right or immunity secured by the law of the United States and the Constitution
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    A Law enforcement Officer does not have a duty to intercede on the behalf of a citizen whose constitution rights are being violated in his presence by other officers
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    When encountering a civil dispute a peace officers responsibility includes:
    • A. 

      Attempting to find solutions without giving legal advice

    • B. 

      Providing safety for persons and property

    • C. 

      Determining if a crime has been committed

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 13. 
    Officer smith arrests notorious gangster Ima Baddude he has been on a rampant crime spree, Smith transports him to jail, while in custody smith specifically owes baddude a duty of care as a result of the special relationship between Officer smith and his arrestee
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    The public duty doctrine insures that every Police officer owes a duty to combat crime and keep everyone safe every day
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    Punitive damages are not awardable against a municipality but can be awarded against specific officers, supervisors, and decision makers
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    Inadequate training may be the basis for the 1983 liability against a municipality where the failure to train constitutes deliberate indifference
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    :Choose all that applyAccording to the Utah Liquor control act it is illegal for:
    • A. 

      The owner occupant or tenant of a premises to permit a person to become intoxicated on the premises

    • B. 

      Permit an intoxicated person to consume alcoholic beverage on the premises

    • C. 

      Permit Wilson to eat Vanilla Puddin' on the premisis.

    • D. 

      Permit Kobs to pray to Obama and weenie whack to pictures of Michelle Obama on the premises.

  • 18. 
    A person may purchase an alcoholic beverage when the person is intoxicated so long as the person does not operate a vehicle
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Under the Alcoholic beverages control act The terms beer and liquor are used interchangeably
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    It is unlawful to disguise that person’s proof of age or aid and permit admission to a place where alcoholic beverages are sold.  (Basically you can’t loan someone who is under aged your Id so that they can purchase alcohol.)
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    A person may bring an alcoholic beverage on the premises of an airport lounge for on presence consumption so long as they have cleared the security check in
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    The Trier of fact may infer that the defendant intended to engage in a clandestine laboratory operation if the defendant is in illegal possession of controlled substance precursor
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Choose all that apply:Under the clandestine drug lab act there are enhanced penalties in addition to violating specific provisions of the act if the defendant also                          
    • A. 

      Possessed a firearm

    • B. 

      Used a booby trap

    • C. 

      Placed a laboratory within 1000 feet of a school, business or church.----non true

  • 24. 
    Any storehouse, vehicle, boat or other place where users or possessors of controlled substances resort shall be deemed a common nuisance
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    Anabolic steroids are not considered a controlled substance under Utah Law.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    Heroin is a:
    • A. 

      Schedule II controlled substance

    • B. 

      Schedule I controlled substance

    • C. 

      Schedule III controlled substance

    • D. 

      Schedule IV controlled substance

    • E. 

      Schedule VI controlled substance

  • 27. 
    Under Utah Law, there are how many scheduled drugs
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

    • E. 

      7

  • 28. 
    Oxycodone is found in which schedule of controlled substances?
    • A. 

      II

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      V

  • 29. 
    Peyote is :
    • A. 

      Schedule II drug

    • B. 

      Schedule I drug

    • C. 

      Schedule III drug

    • D. 

      Schedule VI drug

    • E. 

      Schedule V drug

  • 30. 
    Opium is :
    • A. 

      Schedule I drug

    • B. 

      Schedule III drug

    • C. 

      Schedule VI drug

    • D. 

      Schedule II drug

    • E. 

      Schedule V drug

  • 31. 
    Testosterone is a:
    • A. 

      Schedule III drug

    • B. 

      Schedule II drug

    • C. 

      Schedule I drug

    • D. 

      Schedule VI drug

    • E. 

      Schedule V drug

  • 32. 
    Diazepam is a:
    • A. 

      Schedule V drug

    • B. 

      Schedule IV drug

    • C. 

      Schedule I drug

    • D. 

      Schedule II drug

    • E. 

      Schedule III drug

  • 33. 
    Cocaine is a:
    • A. 

      Schedule I drug

    • B. 

      Schedule V drug

    • C. 

      Schedule II drug

    • D. 

      Schedule IV drug

    • E. 

      Schedule III drug

  • 34. 
    Marijuana is a schedule
    • A. 

      Schedule II drug

    • B. 

      Schedule III drug

    • C. 

      Schedule IV drug

    • D. 

      Schedule I drug

    • E. 

      Schedule V drug

  • 35. 
    For child or vulnerable adult to be exposed to a controlled substance the chemical substance or drug paraphernalia under the child endangerment statute.  The child or vulnerable adult must be able to access or view the emopoly or posses the controlled substance have a reasonable capacity to access drug paraphernalia or be able to smell an odor produced during the manufacture of a controlled substance
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    Any person is justified in threatening or using force against another person when he reasonably believes the force is necessary to defend himself or a third person against the other persons imminent use of unlawful
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    A person is justified in using deadly force only if she reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent death or serious bodily injury to herself or third person as a result of the other person’s imminent use of unlawful force or to prevent the commission of a forcible felony
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    When making an arrest any person is justified in using any force including deadly force which they reasonably believe it necessary to affect the arrest or to defend himself or another from bodily harm when making an arrest
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    A police officer is justified in using deadly force when :
    • A. 

      Carrying out an order of execution

    • B. 

      The officer reasonably believes that the use of deadly force is necessary to prevent death or serious bodily injury to the officer or another person.

    • C. 

      Both A and B

  • 40. 
    A person using deadly force in defense of a person on real property is presumed for the purpose of both civil and criminal cases to have acted reasonably and have had a reasonable fear imminent peril or death or serious bodily injury if the trespass or attempted trespass is unlawful and is made or attempted by use of force during the violent or tumultuous manner or for the purpose of committing a force-able felony
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    A person is justified in using force to defend himself even if he is attempting to commit or fleeing after the commission or attempted commission of a felony
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    A person is justified in using force other than deadly force against another or to prevent or terminate criminal interference with real property or personal property when:
    • A. 

      The property is lawfully in his or her possession

    • B. 

      The property is lawfully in the possession of a member of his or her family

    • C. 

      The property belonging to a person whose property which he has a legal duty to protect

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 43. 
    If feasible a warning shot should be given by the officer prior to shooting in a deadly force situation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    When conducting an arrest for a felony auto theft the officer can use deadly force to affect the arrest and he believes the suspect will escape.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    A person is not justified in using force in self defense if she initially provokes the use of force against her with the intent to use force as an excuse to inflict bodily harm upon the assailant
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    The constitutional standard for using any force is known as the standard of
    • A. 

      Reasonability

    • B. 

      Reason

    • C. 

      Reasonableness

    • D. 

      Raisins

  • 47. 
    Under Utah law a person has the duty to retreat prior to using deadly force.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    Mr. Allred hears a noise in his backyard; he looks out his window and sees his neighbor cooking an imaginary steak on his BBQ.  The homeowner is justified in shooting his neighbor as he runs away.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    A man hears a commotion in his carport he looks out the window and sees a stranger wrestling blah blah blah, he said its easy
    • A. 

      No idea

    • B. 

      No idea

  • 50. 
    Pointing a gun at a suspect during a stop is permissible where the police officer reasonably believes the weapon is necessary for his protection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    What is the proper distance between vehicles between suspects on a high hazard stop?
    • A. 

      20-25 Ft

    • B. 

      25-50 Ft

    • C. 

      30-50 Ft

    • D. 

      45-60 Ft

    • E. 

      3-8 Ft

  • 52. 
    When using the fanning method for a high hazard stop what is the minimum amount of police vehicles used? 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    • E. 

      5

  • 53. 
    During a high hazard stop, the proper place to take a suspect in custody is in front of the headlights
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    If you have a single suspect in a vehicle on a high hazard stop, who refuses to comply with your demands, the situation has become:
    • A. 

      A Barricaded suspect

    • B. 

      A Kidnapping suspect

    • C. 

      A road rage suspect

  • 55. 
    An officer should never us his P.A. system on a high hazard stop to draw out the suspect as it may draw attention to the situation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 56. 
    The most important function of a police service dog is
    • A. 

      Searching

    • B. 

      Biting

    • C. 

      Jumping through flaming hoops

    • D. 

      Going to rest homes to provide comfort to old people

  • 57. 
    You respond to a domestic dispute in an apartment complex and a witness tells you his wife went out the back window, you knock on the door and she is armed with a handgun.  A witness tells you they just saw a person fitting the suspect description hiding in the breezeway of the apartment complex. K9 is the best tool to do what? 
    • A. 

      Biting the suspect

    • B. 

      Locate the suspect that is hiding

    • C. 

      Used as a scare tactic

  • 58. 
    You arrive at a large fight outside of a nightclub, officers are greatly outnumbered.  You should call K9 to help disperse the crowd. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    You are on call and chasing a bad guy, K9 comes up behind you, what should you do? 
    • A. 

      Keep running the K9 is trained not to bite police officers

    • B. 

      Stop drop and roll

    • C. 

      Stop all movement; the K9 will have a less likelihood of biting you.

    • D. 

      Hold your arms out to your side as you run, this is a special code not to bite trained into the K9

  • 60. 
    The landmark case of Graham vs. Conner
    • A. 

      Restricts K9 handles from searching for beer theft suspects.

    • B. 

      Does not restricts K9 handles from searching for beer theft suspects.

  • 61. 
    You locate an unoccupied vehicle that was reported stolen 40 min ago there is no sign of where the suspects fled or when the car was abandoned.  What should you do? 
    • A. 

      Dual purpose control dogs are not proper for this deployment, you need a blood hound.

    • B. 

      Initiate a plan C

    • C. 

      No K9 deployment

  • 62. 
    You observe contact between known drug dealers and a driver of a car; you notice the tag is expired.  You stop the car. The nervous driver quickly lights a cigarette.  You notice several air fresheners scattered around the vehicle. A positive hit on the trunk from a K9 gives you probable cause and allows you to search the trunk over the objections of the driver
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    After breaking up a fight at a motel and making one arrest, you notice a mirror with a white substance on it and several razor blades scattered around the room.  The Manager of the hotel states that the person in custody is the sole person on the lease and he does not want him to return under any circumstances.  Before transporting him to jail, you call out K9 to search the room for any drugs.  What do you need to tell the K9 handler before the K9 searched the room?
    • A. 

      Direct him how to search and how to handle his Dog

    • B. 

      Tell him about Drug related material that could be hazardous to the K9.

    • C. 

      Point out the massive sex toy collection in the corner

    • D. 

      Tell the doggy "good boy" and give him a cookie.

  • 64. 
    Drug dogs search for drugs because of an association made with the scent of the drugs and the Dogs toys
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    The manager of a hospital asks you to have K9 randomly search his Hospital for an ongoing drug problem.  He would like you to have the K9 go from room to room and sniff the personal property of each patient.  What should you do? 
    • A. 

      You should not have K9 search.

    • B. 

      Search the area with the K9

    • C. 

      Kick the manager in the teeth

    • D. 

      Set up a time to come weekly and search for drugs

  • 66. 
    A misdemeanor citation is not an option for arrest when: 
    • A. 

      When the violation is a class A or Felony,

    • B. 

      When the person has a warrant.

    • C. 

      The person constitutes a danger to himself or others.

    • D. 

      The person cannot be identified

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 67. 
    Which of the following circumstances constitutes the elements necessary for the issuance of a misdemeanor citation?
    • A. 

      The arrested person is a resident

    • B. 

      The person is identified to the officer’s satisfaction,

    • C. 

      The officer reasonably believes the person will show up in court.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 68. 
    The officer’s signature is all that is required on a moving citation.  The violator does not have to sign. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 69. 
    Fingerprints will be requested from all violators on all traffic citations
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    On Traffic citations, the Police Officer will advice the violator of the instructions on the upper left corner of the citation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 71. 
    S.E.R.E. is an acronym for
  • 72. 
    The safest ground position for an officer is the
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      R

    • C. 

      P

    • D. 

      Q

    • E. 

      F

  • 73. 
    The Three subsystems of grappling are
  • 74. 
    What is the definition of prone control
    • A. 

      One subject standing, one subject kneeling.

    • B. 

      One subject standing, one subject prone.

    • C. 

      One subject kneeling, one subject prone.

    • D. 

      Both subjects prone.

  • 75. 
    An officer is considered to be winning on the ground as long as that officer continues to maintain his position and the subject remains in the prone position and the subject is not armed
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    Under no circumstances is it acceptable for the officer to disengage once both the officer and the subject are on the ground
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 77. 
    Ground combatives is defined as:
    • A. 

      Both subjects prone

    • B. 

      One subject prone one subject kneeling

    • C. 

      Both subjects standing

  • 78. 
    In many situations being taken to the ground by the suspect can be avoided by
    • A. 

      Striking first with a SPEAR technique

    • B. 

      Always being cognoscente of your surroundings and mental awareness.

    • C. 

      Running away

    • D. 

      Using the defecation technique

  • 79. 
    All defensive tactics problems cannot be solved with Defensive Tactics
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 80. 
    The Clinch can best be described as:
    • A. 

      Both subjects standing

    • B. 

      Both subjects kneeling

    • C. 

      Both subjects prone

  • 81. 
    Give two reasons why today’s Police Officers have a higher risk of facing a hostage or barricaded suspect.
  • 82. 
    Give two of the four responsibilities of the primary officer on the scene.
  • 83. 
    What are the 4 C’s in a hostage barricaded suspect situation?
  • 84. 
    The definition of a barricaded subject is when the suspect is believed to be armed or the suspect is believed to be involved in a criminal act.  When the suspect is in a position of advantage contained in an open area.  And the suspect refuses to comply with orders.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 85. 
    A hostage situation is when any person is held by another person against their will by force or threat of force, expressed or implied
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 86. 
    List the priorities of Life in order.
  • 87. 
    List two of the three things you as an officer should do prior to initiating contact on a hostage/barricade
  • 88. 
    What is E.A.T
    • A. 

      What dispatchers do during work

    • B. 

      Emergency Aids Training

    • C. 

      Emergency Action Team

    • D. 

      Enter Ass Turtles

  • 89. 
    The OSHA blood borne pathogen standard is a federal requirement set to reduce the risk of occupational exposure to blood borne pathogens or other diseases. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 90. 
    HIV can be occupationally transmitted by Sweat, feces, Urine and saliva from persons with AIDS
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    Hand sanitizers that are 60% alcohol are generally as effective as hand washing if your hand is not visibly soiled
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    Infectious organisms can only be transmitted by persons who have symptomatic disease
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    A Police Officer has the right under Utah law to request that the person whose blood they were exposed to be tested for HIV, Hep B Hep C and other infectious diseases
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    The only way to know for sure if you have protective anti-bodies for HEP B is to have a blood test
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    OSHA requires that the officers be provided with personal protective equipment
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    The serious of three shots will protect against Hepatitis B and C.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 97. 
    A person with positive PPD can potentially expose you to tuberculosis when transporting him in your car.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 98. 
    All body fluids should be considered as if they are potentially a hazard
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 99. 
    The one paramount principle in weapon retention is
    • A. 

      Never give up

    • B. 

      The determination to survive.

    • C. 

      Fight to the end

    • D. 

      Duct tape his hands to your weapon so that you can saw his hand off with your pocket knife.

  • 100. 
    Weapons retention principles include but are not limited to
    • A. 

      Police solution

    • B. 

      Hold on to your weapon

    • C. 

      Problem solving

    • D. 

      Be a complete weapon system

  • 101. 
    Natural weapon systems can be defined as those things found in nature such as tree branches or logs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 102. 
    C.W.C.T. is an acronym for what
    • A. 

      Closest Weapon Crush Target

    • B. 

      Closest weapon, closest target.

    • C. 

      Crazy White Caucasians think

  • 103. 
    Subjects who disarm an officer will attempt to ______ the officer ______ percent of the time.
    • A. 

      Murder, 80

    • B. 

      Maim, 80

    • C. 

      Murder, 85

    • D. 

      Physically disable, 90

    • E. 

      Murder, 65

  • 104. 
     If the second attempt is made at the Officer’s firearm, the Officer will be successfully be  _______  ________ percent of the time
    • A. 

      Murder, 60

    • B. 

      Murder, 80

    • C. 

      Maim, 75

    • D. 

      Raped, 80

  • 105. 
    Tools at our disposal fall into what 3 categories?……
  • 106. 
    Designated tools include those found on their duty belts.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 107. 
    The gun knife rule indicates that in most situations the officer should Charge the knife, flee the gun.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 108. 
    In Weapon retention scenarios attack big targets first, strikes or manipulate when big targets are not available attack small targets.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False