Technical Quatar Nº 5
- 1.
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :
- A.
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
- B.
Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
- C.
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
- D.
Water may only be used for minor fires.
Correct Answer
C. Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.Explanation
Halon is considered an effective extinguishing agent for use in airplanes. Halon is a type of fire suppression agent that is commonly used in aircraft due to its ability to quickly extinguish fires and minimize damage. It is a clean agent that does not leave residue or cause damage to sensitive equipment, making it suitable for use in the confined space of an airplane. Additionally, Halon is effective in extinguishing different types of fires, including electrical, fuel, and cabin fires, making it a versatile choice for fire suppression in airplanes.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Above flight level FL 290 in non-RVSM airspace, the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
- A.
3 000 feet
- B.
1 500 feet
- C.
4 000 feet
- D.
2 000 feet
Correct Answer
C. 4 000 feetExplanation
Above flight level FL 290 in non-RVSM airspace, the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is 4,000 feet. This means that aircraft flying in the same direction at this altitude must maintain a vertical distance of 4,000 feet to ensure safe separation. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential collisions or conflicts between aircraft and allow for proper coordination and control of air traffic.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A class B fire is a fire of:
- A.
Electrical source fire
- B.
Special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
- C.
Liquid or liquefiable solid
- D.
Solid material usually of organic nature
Correct Answer
C. Liquid or liquefiable solidExplanation
A class B fire refers to a fire involving a liquid or liquefiable solid. This type of fire typically involves flammable liquids or materials that can easily become liquid when heated. Examples of class B fires include fires involving gasoline, oil, alcohol, and certain types of plastics. It is important to use the appropriate fire extinguishing agents, such as foam or dry chemical extinguishers, to effectively extinguish class B fires.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
- A.
7700
- B.
7600
- C.
2000
- D.
7500
Correct Answer
B. 7600Explanation
When the pilot of an aircraft loses two-way communications, they are required to set the transponder to Mode A code 7600. This code is specifically designated for situations where there is a communication failure. By setting the transponder to this code, the pilot is indicating to air traffic control that they are unable to communicate and are in need of assistance. This allows air traffic control to be aware of the situation and take appropriate measures to ensure the safety of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
- A.
VS1.
- B.
VS.
- C.
VMC.
- D.
VSO.
Correct Answer
D. VSO.Explanation
VSO stands for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable in landing configuration. This is the speed at which the airplane is just about to stall, meaning that it is at the lowest possible speed while still maintaining control. It is important for pilots to be aware of this speed in order to ensure safe landings and avoid stalling the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?
- A.
10 or more km
- B.
8 km
- C.
8 NM
- D.
10 NM
Correct Answer
B. 8 kmExplanation
At ETA Bordeaux, the lowest quoted visibility forecast is 8 km.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
- A.
Dull headache and bends.
- B.
Dizziness, hypothermia.
- C.
Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria
- D.
Nausea and barotitis.
Correct Answer
C. Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoriaExplanation
The symptoms "visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria" indicate hypoxia because they are commonly associated with a lack of oxygen in the body. These symptoms can occur when the brain and other organs do not receive enough oxygen, leading to impaired vision, difficulty focusing, and a feeling of euphoria or lightheadedness.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
- A.
At completion of gear retraction.
- B.
At completion of flap retraction.
- C.
At reaching V2.
- D.
At 35 ft above the runway
Correct Answer
A. At completion of gear retraction.Explanation
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends at completion of gear retraction. This means that once the aircraft has taken off and the landing gear has been retracted, the first segment of the flight path is considered complete. This is an important milestone in the take-off process as it signifies that the aircraft is now in a configuration suitable for climb and further ascent.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on :
- A.
Pressure.
- B.
Density.
- C.
Temperature.
- D.
Temperature and the pressure.
Correct Answer
C. Temperature.Explanation
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on temperature. This is because the speed of sound is determined by the average kinetic energy of the air molecules, which is directly related to the temperature. As the temperature increases, the air molecules move faster and collide more frequently, resulting in a higher speed of sound. Conversely, as the temperature decreases, the air molecules move slower and collide less frequently, resulting in a lower speed of sound. Therefore, temperature is the only factor that affects the speed of sound in air.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?
- A.
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
- B.
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
- C.
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed.
- D.
Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
Correct Answer
A. Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.Explanation
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed because a wing with less sweep has a lower drag coefficient at high angles of attack, allowing the aircraft to maintain lift at lower speeds before stalling.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?
- A.
High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.
- B.
Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
- C.
Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
- D.
High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
Correct Answer
B. Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.Explanation
Low take-off mass, high flap setting, and low field elevation could lead to a V2 value that is limited by VMCA. When the take-off mass is low, there is less weight on the aircraft, allowing for a higher V2 speed. A high flap setting increases the lift produced by the wings, enabling the aircraft to reach a higher V2 speed. Additionally, a low field elevation means that the air is denser, providing more lift and allowing for a higher V2 speed. Therefore, this combination of factors would limit the V2 value to be determined by VMCA.Rate this question:
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- 12.
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be :
- A.
To warn the ATC
- B.
To comfort your passengers
- C.
To put on the oxygen mask
- D.
To set the transponder to 7700
Correct Answer
C. To put on the oxygen maskExplanation
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), the first action should be to put on the oxygen mask. This is because explosive decompression can cause a rapid loss of cabin pressure, leading to a decrease in oxygen levels. By putting on the oxygen mask, the pilot ensures that they have a continuous supply of oxygen to breathe, allowing them to maintain consciousness and make effective decisions in the critical situation.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
- A.
Only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
- B.
Lower
- C.
Higher
- D.
Unaffected
Correct Answer
B. LowerExplanation
The presence of standing water on the runway reduces the amount of friction between the tires of an aircraft and the runway surface. This reduced friction makes it more difficult for the aircraft to accelerate and lift off during takeoff. As a result, the field length required for takeoff increases, meaning that the maximum takeoff mass that can be achieved within that limited field length will be lower. Therefore, the correct answer is "lower".Rate this question:
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- 14.
The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of
- A.
8 km and 5-15 minutes
- B.
12 km and 5-10 minutes
- C.
4 km and 1-5 minutes
- D.
4 km and 30-40 minutes
Correct Answer
C. 4 km and 1-5 minutesExplanation
A microburst is a small-scale downdraft that can occur during a thunderstorm. It is characterized by a strong, localized downward wind that spreads out in all directions when it reaches the ground. The diameter of a typical microburst is around 4 km, which means it covers an area of approximately 4 km in diameter. The lifetime of a microburst is relatively short, typically lasting between 1 to 5 minutes. This short duration is due to the intense nature of the downdraft, which quickly dissipates after reaching the ground.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
- A.
Unreliable
- B.
Medium
- C.
Good
- D.
Poor
Correct Answer
D. PoorExplanation
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM indicates poor braking conditions. This means that the runway is covered with snow or ice, making it difficult for aircraft to stop or slow down effectively during landing or takeoff. Pilots should exercise caution and use additional braking techniques or procedures to ensure the safety of the aircraft and passengers.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
- A.
644 kt
- B.
332 kt
- C.
661 kt
- D.
1059 kt
Correct Answer
C. 661 ktExplanation
The correct answer is 661 kt. The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is approximately 661 knots. The speed of sound can vary depending on factors such as temperature, humidity, and altitude. In a standard atmosphere, where the temperature is around 15 degrees Celsius and the pressure is at sea level, the speed of sound is approximately 661 knots.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
- A.
A DME station sited on the flight route
- B.
An ADF sited on the flight route
- C.
A VOR station sited on the flight route
- D.
A DME station sited across the flight route
Correct Answer
A. A DME station sited on the flight routeExplanation
A DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) station sited on the flight route will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed. DME measures the distance between the aircraft and the DME station, and by comparing the time it takes for the signal to travel back and forth, it can accurately determine the aircraft's ground speed. This is because the DME station is located directly on the flight route, providing a more precise measurement compared to an ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) or VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) station. A DME station sited across the flight route may not provide accurate ground speed calculations as it measures the slant range rather than the direct distance between the aircraft and the station.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
- A.
Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metres
- B.
Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
- C.
Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
- D.
RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Correct Answer
D. RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours -
- 19.
A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
- A.
7 NM
- B.
11 NM
- C.
8 NM
- D.
6 NM
Correct Answer
D. 6 NMExplanation
The DME range is determined by the distance between the aircraft and the DME station. In this case, the aircraft is passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360, which means it is at an altitude of 36,000 feet. Since the DME is located at MSL (Mean Sea Level), the aircraft is at the same altitude as the DME station. Therefore, the DME range will be approximately 6 NM (nautical miles) as the aircraft is directly above the station.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
- A.
Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
- B.
Collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
- C.
Continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II
- D.
The elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II
Correct Answer
A. Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capabilityExplanation
The correct answer is air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability. This means that Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S is designed to facilitate communication between aircraft and ground control, as well as enhance the ability of air traffic control to monitor and track aircraft. This technology allows for more efficient and accurate transmission of data between aircraft and ground stations, leading to improved safety and situational awareness in air traffic control operations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
- A.
150 ft
- B.
100 ft
- C.
200 ft
- D.
250 ft
Correct Answer
C. 200 ftExplanation
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than 200 ft. This means that the pilot must be able to see the runway and make a decision to either continue the approach or initiate a missed approach when the aircraft reaches this altitude. A decision height lower than 200 ft would not provide enough visibility for a safe landing.Rate this question:
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- 22.
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as :
- A.
The boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
- B.
The boarding has to be done at the state discretion
- C.
Boarding prior to all passengers
- D.
Boarding after to all other passengers
Correct Answer
C. Boarding prior to all passengersExplanation
The correct answer is "boarding prior to all passengers". This means that when transporting potentially disruptive passengers, they should be allowed to board the aircraft before any other passengers. This allows the crew to properly assess and manage the situation, ensuring the safety and security of all passengers on board.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?
- A.
Slow heart beat
- B.
Slow rate of breathing
- C.
Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
- D.
Dizzy feeling
Correct Answer
D. Dizzy feelingExplanation
Dizzy feeling can mark the beginning of hyperventilation because hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which can lead to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This decrease in carbon dioxide can cause dizziness or lightheadedness.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:
- A.
Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
- B.
Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
- C.
Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
- D.
Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load
Correct Answer
D. Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic loadExplanation
The 'Take-off Mass' refers to the total weight of an aircraft at the moment it takes off. This includes not only the weight of the aircraft itself (Dry Operating Mass) but also the weight of the fuel required for take-off and the weight of the passengers and cargo (traffic load). Therefore, the correct answer is Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
- A.
Air temperature
- B.
Relative humidity
- C.
Stability of the air
- D.
Dewpoint
Correct Answer
A. Air temperatureExplanation
The maximum amount of water vapor that the air can hold is determined by its temperature. Warmer air has the ability to hold more water vapor compared to colder air. This is because higher temperatures increase the kinetic energy of water molecules, allowing them to move more freely and remain in a gaseous state. As the temperature decreases, the air becomes saturated and cannot hold as much water vapor, leading to condensation and the formation of dew or precipitation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:
- A.
Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
- B.
Altitude of the aircraft.
- C.
Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
- D.
Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
Correct Answer
C. Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.Explanation
The radio altimeter measures the height of the lowest wheels of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. This measurement is independent of the aircraft's altitude or height with regard to the runway. Therefore, a reading of 650 ft on the radio altimeter indicates the height of the lowest wheels from the ground at that moment.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Altostratus clouds are classified as
- A.
High level clouds
- B.
Convective clouds
- C.
Medium level clouds
- D.
Low level clouds
Correct Answer
C. Medium level cloudsExplanation
Altostratus clouds are classified as medium level clouds because they typically form at an altitude of 2 to 7 kilometers above the ground. They are characterized by a uniform gray or blue-gray appearance and often cover the entire sky. These clouds are composed of water droplets and sometimes ice crystals, and they can produce continuous light to moderate precipitation. Unlike high level clouds (such as cirrus clouds) or low level clouds (such as stratus clouds), altostratus clouds are found in the middle region of the atmosphere.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The maximum certificated take - off mass is :
- A.
A take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .
- B.
Limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.
- C.
A structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
- D.
A take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.
Correct Answer
C. A structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.Explanation
The correct answer is a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take-off. This means that there is a maximum weight limit set by the aircraft's structure, and it cannot be exceeded during take-off. This limit is in place to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft during the critical phase of flight.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?
- A.
Spiral dive.
- B.
Buffeting
- C.
Dutch roll.
- D.
Tuck under.
Correct Answer
C. Dutch roll.Explanation
A yaw damper is a device used to reduce or correct the yawing motion of an aircraft. Yaw refers to the side-to-side movement of the aircraft's nose. Dutch roll is a type of yawing motion characterized by a combination of rolling and yawing oscillations. The yaw damper helps to dampen or minimize these oscillations, allowing for smoother and more stable flight. Therefore, the correct answer is Dutch roll.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains :
- A.
Two modes, each of 4096 codes
- B.
Four modes, each 1024 codes
- C.
Four modes, each 4096 codes
- D.
Two modes, each 1024 codes
Correct Answer
A. Two modes, each of 4096 codesExplanation
The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains two modes, each of 4096 codes. This means that the system has a total of 8192 codes, divided into two modes. Each mode has a range of 4096 codes, allowing for a large number of unique identification codes to be assigned to aircraft. This allows for efficient and accurate identification of aircraft in air traffic control operations.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
- A.
Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred
- B.
Gradually indicate zero
- C.
Under-read
- D.
Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale
Correct Answer
A. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurredExplanation
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent, the instrument will continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred. This is because the static source is responsible for measuring the atmospheric pressure, which is used to determine the altitude. If the static source is blocked, the altimeter will not receive any new pressure information and will therefore maintain the last reading it received before the blockage occurred.Rate this question:
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- 32.
An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be
- A.
4278 FT
- B.
4194 FT
- C.
3006 FT
- D.
2922 FT
Correct Answer
C. 3006 FTExplanation
When the altimeter is adjusted to a standard pressure of 1013 hPa, it indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. This means that at 1013 hPa, every 1 hPa change in pressure corresponds to a change in altitude of approximately 30 FT.
Given that the local QNH value is 991 hPa, which is lower than the standard pressure, the altimeter will indicate a higher altitude. To calculate the new altitude, we need to determine the difference in pressure between the standard and local values.
The difference is 1013 hPa - 991 hPa = 22 hPa.
Since every 1 hPa change corresponds to approximately 30 FT change in altitude, the difference in pressure of 22 hPa will correspond to an altitude change of 22 hPa * 30 FT/hPa = 660 FT.
Therefore, the new altitude indicated by the altimeter adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa would be 3600 FT + 660 FT = 4260 FT.
However, none of the provided answer options match this calculation. Therefore, the correct answer cannot be determined based on the given information.Rate this question:
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- 33.
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available e ntry procedure.
- A.
Either "off set" or "parallel".
- B.
Off set.
- C.
Parallel.
- D.
Direct.
Correct Answer
A. Either "off set" or "parallel".Explanation
The correct answer is either "off set" or "parallel" because both entry procedures would allow the aircraft to enter the holding pattern while maintaining a right turn and 1 minute outbound time. The "off set" entry would involve flying parallel to the holding course for a specified distance before making a 45-degree turn towards the holding fix. The "parallel" entry would involve flying parallel to the holding course in the same direction as the outbound leg before making a 180-degree turn to enter the holding pattern. Both entry procedures would be appropriate in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
- A.
An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped
- B.
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff.
- C.
A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
- D.
A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
Correct Answer
B. An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff.Explanation
The STOPWAY is a designated area on the ground at the end of the runway that is prepared for the purpose of stopping an aircraft. It is specifically intended to allow for the safe stopping of an aircraft in the event of an abandoned takeoff. This means that if a pilot decides to abort the takeoff for any reason, they can utilize the stopway to bring the aircraft to a halt safely. The stopway provides an additional margin of safety and helps prevent any potential accidents or incidents during takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
- A.
Transition level.
- B.
The level specified by ATC.
- C.
Transition altitude.
- D.
Transition layer.
Correct Answer
C. Transition altitude.Explanation
When an aircraft is departing and flying under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR), the pilot is required to change the altimeter setting from QNH to the standard setting of 1013.25 hPa when passing the transition altitude. The transition altitude is the altitude at which the pilot transitions from using the local atmospheric pressure (QNH) to the standard pressure setting. This is important for maintaining accurate altitude information and ensuring safe navigation during the flight.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
- A.
It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
- B.
It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
- C.
It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity
- D.
It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown
Correct Answer
A. It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air massExplanation
The dew point of an air mass refers to the temperature at which the air becomes saturated and condensation occurs. This means that the dew point can only be equal to or lower than the temperature of the air mass. If the dew point is higher than the temperature of the air mass, condensation will not occur. Therefore, the correct statement is that the dew point can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
- A.
-20ºC
- B.
-35ºC
- C.
-5ºC
- D.
0ºC
Correct Answer
C. -5ºCExplanation
In the International Standard Atmosphere, the temperature at 10000 FT is -5ºC. This standard atmosphere is a theoretical model that represents the average atmospheric conditions at different altitudes. At 10000 FT, the temperature is lower compared to sea level due to the decrease in air pressure with altitude. The temperature of -5ºC indicates a colder environment at this altitude.Rate this question:
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- 38.
After take-off the slats are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?
- A.
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
- B.
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
- C.
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED
- D.
Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.
Correct Answer
B. Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.Explanation
The slats and flaps are both used to increase lift and decrease stall speed during takeoff. However, the slats are designed to provide a larger decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag compared to the flaps. This means that extending the slats will have a greater impact on reducing stall speed while minimizing the increase in drag, making it more efficient to retract the slats later than the flaps after takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
- A.
From take off to landing.
- B.
While at their station.
- C.
Only during take off and landing.
- D.
Only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.
Correct Answer
B. While at their station.Explanation
Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belt fastened while at their station. This is important to ensure their safety in case of any unexpected turbulence or sudden movements of the aircraft. It allows them to be securely seated and ready to respond to any emergencies or perform their duties effectively. Keeping the safety belt fastened while at their station also helps to prevent any potential injuries or accidents during the flight.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Reduced take-off thrust
- A.
Can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.
- B.
Has the benefit of improving engine life.
- C.
Can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
- D.
Is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
Correct Answer
B. Has the benefit of improving engine life.Explanation
Reduced take-off thrust has the benefit of improving engine life. When the take-off thrust is reduced, the engines are not operating at their maximum power, which can reduce wear and tear on the engine components. This can lead to a longer lifespan for the engines and potentially lower maintenance costs.Rate this question:
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- 41.
ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
- A.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided).
- B.
The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
- C.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided).
- D.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
Correct Answer
A. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided).Explanation
ASDA (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is the combination of the length of the take-off run available and the length of the stopway, if a stopway is provided. This means that ASDA includes both the distance required for the aircraft to accelerate and take off, as well as the additional distance available for the aircraft to come to a stop if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 42.
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:
- A.
A reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
- B.
A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
- C.
An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
- D.
An increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
Correct Answer
B. A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performanceExplanation
An increase in atmospheric pressure has the consequence of reducing the landing distance. This is because higher atmospheric pressure increases air density, which in turn increases lift and reduces the required landing distance. Additionally, an increase in atmospheric pressure improves go-around performance. This is because higher air density allows the aircraft to generate more lift and power, enabling it to climb more efficiently during a go-around maneuver.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to :
- A.
Freeze at zero.
- B.
React like an altimeter.
- C.
Read a little high.
- D.
Read a little low.
Correct Answer
B. React like an altimeter.Explanation
When the pitot tube, which measures the dynamic pressure of the air, is blocked, the airspeed indicator is unable to receive any input and therefore freezes at zero. However, if both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, but the static port remains open, the airspeed indicator will react like an altimeter. This is because with no dynamic pressure being measured, the indicator will only show changes in static pressure, which is what an altimeter measures. Therefore, the correct answer is that the airspeed indicator will react like an altimeter.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Fallstreaks or virga are
- A.
Strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
- B.
Water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporates before reaching the ground
- C.
Strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
- D.
Gusts associated with a well developed Bora
Correct Answer
B. Water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporates before reaching the groundExplanation
Fallstreaks or virga are water or ice particles that fall out of a cloud but evaporate before reaching the ground. This phenomenon occurs when the air beneath the cloud is dry, causing the precipitation to evaporate before it can reach the surface. As a result, the cloud appears to have streaks or trails of precipitation that dissipate before hitting the ground.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ?
- A.
At constant Mach number the IAS increases
- B.
At constant TAS the Mach number decreases
- C.
At constant IAS the Mach number increases
- D.
At constant IAS the TAS decreases
Correct Answer
C. At constant IAS the Mach number increasesExplanation
When climbing at a constant indicated airspeed (IAS), the Mach number increases. This is because as the aircraft climbs higher, the air density decreases, resulting in a higher true airspeed (TAS) for the same IAS. Since Mach number is a ratio of TAS to the speed of sound, an increase in TAS while maintaining the same IAS will result in an increase in the Mach number.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The Density Altitude
- A.
Is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
- B.
Is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
- C.
Is equal to the pressure altitude.
- D.
Is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
Correct Answer
B. Is used to determine the aeroplane performance.Explanation
The density altitude is used to determine the aeroplane performance. Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. It is a measure of the density of the air, which affects the performance of the aircraft. As density altitude increases, the air becomes less dense, resulting in reduced engine power, decreased lift, and reduced aircraft performance. Therefore, pilots use density altitude to assess the aircraft's performance capabilities in different atmospheric conditions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
- A.
10 minutes.
- B.
3 minutes.
- C.
30 seconds.
- D.
1 minute.
Correct Answer
B. 3 minutes.Explanation
The correct answer is 3 minutes. During take-off, a wide-body aircraft creates a turbulent wake. This turbulent wake consists of vortices and disturbances in the airflow behind the aircraft. It takes approximately 3 minutes for this turbulent wake to dissipate and for the airflow to return to its normal state.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What does the term METAR signify?
- A.
A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
- B.
A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.
- C.
A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals.
- D.
A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
Correct Answer
C. A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals.Explanation
A METAR is a standardized format for reporting weather observations at an aerodrome. It provides information about temperature, wind speed and direction, visibility, cloud cover, and other relevant meteorological conditions. METAR reports are issued at regular intervals, typically every half-hour, to keep pilots and air traffic controllers updated on the current weather conditions. This helps ensure safe and efficient operations at the aerodrome.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
- A.
30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
- B.
30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
- C.
60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
- D.
60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
Correct Answer
A. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.Explanation
When a controlled flight is delayed by 30 minutes or more beyond the estimated time off blocks, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled, and a new flight plan should be submitted. This means that if the flight is delayed by at least 30 minutes after the scheduled departure time, the flight plan needs to be updated or cancelled. The estimated time off blocks refers to the time when the aircraft is expected to be ready to push back from the gate.Rate this question:
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- 50.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
- A.
To the left
- B.
In a direction depending on the entry
- C.
In a direction depending on the wind direction
- D.
To the right
Correct Answer
D. To the rightExplanation
In a standard holding pattern, turns are made to the right. This is because the majority of holding patterns are designed to be flown using the right-hand turns. This standardization helps to ensure consistency and predictability for pilots and air traffic controllers. By making right turns, aircraft in the holding pattern will be flying in the opposite direction of the traffic on the adjacent airway, reducing the risk of collision.Rate this question:
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