Technical Quatar Nº 4

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 272

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Technical Quatar Nº 4

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The maximum certificated take - off mass is :
    • A. 

      A take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .

    • B. 

      Limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.

    • C. 

      A structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.

    • D. 

      A take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.

  • 2. 
    Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3a ILS gl idepath, will require an approximate:
    • A. 

      Increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

    • B. 

      Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

    • C. 

      Increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

    • D. 

      Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

  • 3. 
    The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of :
    • A. 

      Air traffic control radar systems

    • B. 

      Transponders fitted in the aircraft

    • C. 

      Airborne weather radar system

    • D. 

      F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

  • 4. 
    The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
    • A. 

      The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

    • B. 

      The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

    • C. 

      The aircraft is subject to positive control

    • D. 

      Position reports may be omitted

  • 5. 
    Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), for a maximum groundspeed descent from a high flight level, you will be limited :
    • A. 

      Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level

    • B. 

      By the MMO

    • C. 

      By the VMO in still air

    • D. 

      Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level

  • 6. 
    Wake turbulence risk is highest :
    • A. 

      When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

    • B. 

      When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.

    • C. 

      If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.

    • D. 

      Following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

  • 7. 
    Which statement is correct?
    • A. 

      There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.

    • B. 

      Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.

    • C. 

      Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their communication process.

    • D. 

      Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.

  • 8. 
    The runway edge lights shall be :
    • A. 

      White

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Red

  • 9. 
    One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall :
    • A. 

      Wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment

    • B. 

      Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

    • C. 

      Leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

    • D. 

      Tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing.

    • B. 

      Upward on the up going wing and downward on the down going wing.

    • C. 

      On the up going wing only.

    • D. 

      On the down going wing only.

  • 11. 
    The speed V2 is
    • A. 

      That speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.

    • B. 

      The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.

    • C. 

      The lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

    • D. 

      The take-off safety speed.

  • 12. 
    The temperature at FL 110 is -5aC. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
    • A. 

      + 3ºC

    • B. 

      0ºC

    • C. 

      -3ºC

    • D. 

      +7ºC

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
    • A. 

      The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA

    • B. 

      The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient

    • C. 

      VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

    • D. 

      Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed

  • 14. 
    A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
    • A. 

      VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

    • B. 

      DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

    • C. 

      DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation

    • D. 

      DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times

  • 15. 
    In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
    • A. 

      Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

    • B. 

      It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

    • C. 

      It is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

    • D. 

      Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

  • 16. 
    A higher outside air temperature
    • A. 

      Does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.

    • B. 

      Reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

    • C. 

      Reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

    • D. 

      Increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

  • 17. 
    Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur ?
    • A. 

      In the stagnation point

    • B. 

      Upper side

    • C. 

      Lower side

    • D. 

      In front of the stagnation point

  • 18. 
    What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT"?
    • A. 

      5 - 7 oktas

    • B. 

      1 - 4 oktas

    • C. 

      3 - 4 oktas

    • D. 

      1 - 2 oktas

  • 19. 
    Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ?
    • A. 

      Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern

    • B. 

      Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.

    • C. 

      Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

    • D. 

      Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.

  • 20. 
    Convective clouds are formed
    • A. 

      In stable atmosphere

    • B. 

      In summer during the day only

    • C. 

      In mid-latitudes only

    • D. 

      In unstable atmosphere

  • 21. 
    The term decision height (DH) is used for :
    • A. 

      A conventional approach.

    • B. 

      A conventional approach.

    • C. 

      A conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre.

    • D. 

      A precision approach.

  • 22. 
    For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?
    • A. 

      Freezing rain

    • B. 

      Steady snow

    • C. 

      Freezing fog

    • D. 

      Frost

  • 23. 
    During take-off the third segment begins
    • A. 

      When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

    • B. 

      When landing gear is fully retracted.

    • C. 

      When acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.

    • D. 

      When flap retraction is completed.

  • 24. 
    The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
    • A. 

      15 NM

    • B. 

      30 NM

    • C. 

      25 NM

    • D. 

      10 NM

  • 25. 
    A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
    • A. 

      Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

    • B. 

      Contains its own separate gyro

    • C. 

      Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the generator fails

    • D. 

      Is fully independent of external energy resources in an

  • 26. 
    The Density Altitude
    • A. 

      Is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

    • B. 

      Is used to determine the aeroplane performance.

    • C. 

      Is equal to the pressure altitude.

    • D. 

      Is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

  • 27. 
    Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
    • A. 

      At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

    • B. 

      Only at transition altitude.

    • C. 

      Only at transition level.

    • D. 

      At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

  • 28. 
    The optimum cruise altitude increases
    • A. 

      If the aeroplane mass is decreased

    • B. 

      If the temperature (OAT) is increased.

    • C. 

      If the tailwind component is decreased.

    • D. 

      If the aeroplane mass is increased.

  • 29. 
    What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?
    • A. 

      55 kt

    • B. 

      60 kt

    • C. 

      70 kt

    • D. 

      50 kt

  • 30. 
    The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :
    • A. 

      The accelerate-stop distance available

    • B. 

      The take-off run available

    • C. 

      The take-off distance available.

    • D. 

      The landing distance available.

  • 31. 
    An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
    • A. 

      8350 ft

    • B. 

      8000 ft

    • C. 

      7650 ft

    • D. 

      8600 ft

  • 32. 
    During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will :
    • A. 

      Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC

    • B. 

      Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination

    • C. 

      Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight

    • D. 

      Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

  • 33. 
    Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
    • A. 

      Cumulonimbus

    • B. 

      Cirrostratus

    • C. 

      Altocumulus

    • D. 

      Altostratus

  • 34. 
    One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :
    • A. 

      Occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

    • B. 

      Can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

    • C. 

      Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

    • D. 

      Occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

  • 35. 
    LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to LFBD ?
    • A. 

      Continuous moderate rain

    • B. 

      Light drizzle and fog

    • C. 

      Moderate snow showers

    • D. 

      Heavy rain showers

  • 36. 
    During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :
    • A. 

      The centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.

    • B. 

      The centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.

    • C. 

      The aeroplane is overloaded

    • D. 

      The centre of gravity is too far forward.

  • 37. 
    If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Remains constant

    • C. 

      Attains its maximum permitted operating limit

    • D. 

      Decreases

  • 38. 
    The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
    • A. 

      Entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required

    • B. 

      Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

    • C. 

      An emergency

    • D. 

      Transponder malfunction

  • 39. 
    VNE is the maximum speed :
    • A. 

      With flaps extended in landing position

    • B. 

      Which must never be exceeded

    • C. 

      Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

    • D. 

      At which the flight controls can be fully deflected

  • 40. 
    "TODA" take-off distance available is:
    • A. 

      The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

    • B. 

      The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

    • C. 

      The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided).

    • D. 

      The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

  • 41. 
    The speed of sound is affected by the:
    • A. 

      Temperature of the air.

    • B. 

      Density of the air.

    • C. 

      Pressure of the air.

    • D. 

      Humidity of the air.

  • 42. 
    In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
    • A. 

      NS

    • B. 

      CU

    • C. 

      CI

    • D. 

      SC

  • 43. 
    The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:
    • A. 

      Water vapour in the alveoli

    • B. 

      Oxygen in the cells

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide in the blood

    • D. 

      Nitrogen in the air

  • 44. 
    The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
    • A. 

      644 kt

    • B. 

      332 kt

    • C. 

      661 kt

    • D. 

      1059 kt

  • 45. 
    Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
    • A. 

      Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metres

    • B. 

      Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost

    • C. 

      Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres

    • D. 

      RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

  • 46. 
    In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
    • A. 

      To the left

    • B. 

      In a direction depending on the entry

    • C. 

      In a direction depending on the wind direction

    • D. 

      To the right

  • 47. 
    Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?
    • A. 

      At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.

    • B. 

      When the altimeter has no position error.

    • C. 

      When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa.

    • D. 

      At standard temperature.

  • 48. 
    After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied?
    • A. 

      Emergency Descent Procedure.

    • B. 

      ETOPS.

    • C. 

      Long Range Cruise Descent.

    • D. 

      Drift Down Procedure.

  • 49. 
    Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft?
    • A. 

      Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

    • B. 

      Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

    • C. 

      Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

    • D. 

      Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

  • 50. 
    The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200a. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
    • A. 

      Centred

    • B. 

      Left of centre

    • C. 

      Right of centre

    • D. 

      Centred with the 'fail' flag showing