Technical Quatar Nº 4

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| By JavierRR
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JavierRR
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 586
Questions: 50 | Attempts: 321

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• 1.

The maximum certificated take - off mass is :

• A.

A take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .

• B.

Limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.

• C.

A structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.

• D.

A take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.

C. A structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
Explanation
The maximum certificated take-off mass refers to the structural limit that must not be exceeded for any take-off. This means that the aircraft cannot be loaded beyond its maximum weight capacity, as doing so could compromise the structural integrity and safety of the aircraft during take-off.

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• 2.

Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3a ILS gl idepath, will require an approximate:

• A.

Increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

• B.

Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

• C.

Increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

• D.

Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

D. Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
Explanation
This question is asking about the effect of a decrease in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent during a 3a ILS glidepath. The correct answer states that for every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, there will be a decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN. This means that as the groundspeed decreases, the aircraft will need to decrease its rate of descent to maintain the glidepath.

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• 3.

The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of :

• A.

• B.

Transponders fitted in the aircraft

• C.

• D.

F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

B. Transponders fitted in the aircraft
Explanation
The principle of the TCAS is based on the use of transponders fitted in the aircraft. Transponders are electronic devices that receive and transmit signals, allowing the aircraft to communicate with other aircraft and air traffic control. In the case of TCAS, the transponders send out signals that are received by other aircraft's TCAS systems, providing information about their position and altitude. This allows the TCAS system to calculate potential collisions and issue advisories to pilots to avoid them.

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• 4.

The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?

• A.

The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

• B.

The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

• C.

The aircraft is subject to positive control

• D.

Position reports may be omitted

A. The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
Explanation
When the air traffic control unit reports "radar contact," it means that they have successfully identified the aircraft on their radar system. This allows the air traffic control to track and monitor the aircraft's position and movement accurately. The pilot can be assured that their aircraft has been detected and is being monitored by the air traffic control.

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• 5.

Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), for a maximum groundspeed descent from a high flight level, you will be limited :

• A.

Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level

• B.

By the MMO

• C.

By the VMO in still air

• D.

Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level

D. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
Explanation
Initially, during a maximum groundspeed descent from a high flight level, the aircraft will be limited by the MMO (maximum operational Mach number) because at higher altitudes, the speed of sound decreases, and exceeding the MMO can lead to structural damage due to shock waves. However, as the aircraft descends to a certain flight level, the MMO limit becomes less restrictive, and the aircraft becomes limited by the VMO (maximum operational speed) in still air. This is because at lower altitudes, the speed of sound remains relatively constant, and the VMO limit becomes the governing factor for the maximum speed.

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• 6.

Wake turbulence risk is highest :

• A.

When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

• B.

When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.

• C.

If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.

• D.

Following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

B. When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
Explanation
Wake turbulence refers to the turbulence created by an aircraft as it moves through the air. It is caused by the vortices that are generated by the wings of the aircraft. The risk of encountering wake turbulence is highest when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind. In this situation, the crosswind can cause the vortices to drift towards the adjacent runway, increasing the risk for aircraft taking off from that runway.

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• 7.

Which statement is correct?

• A.

There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.

• B.

Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.

• C.

Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their communication process.

• D.

Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.

D. Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.
Explanation
Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process. This statement suggests that if there are issues in the personal relationship between crew members, it is highly probable that their communication process will be affected negatively. This implies that a good personal relationship between crew members is important for effective communication, which is crucial for ensuring safety and preventing incidents or accidents.

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• 8.

The runway edge lights shall be :

• A.

White

• B.

Blue

• C.

Green

• D.

Red

A. White
Explanation
The runway edge lights are required to be white. These lights are used to outline the edges of the runway, providing visual guidance to pilots during takeoff, landing, and taxiing. White lights are chosen for their high visibility and contrast against the surrounding environment, making them easily distinguishable for pilots even in low visibility conditions. Additionally, white lights are a standard convention in aviation, ensuring consistency and uniformity across different airports.

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• 9.

One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall :

• A.

Wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment

• B.

Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

• C.

Leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

• D.

Tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.

D. Tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
Explanation
The correct answer is that tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment. This means that when the swept back wing stalls, the airflow over the outer portion of the wing (the tip) becomes disrupted before the airflow over the inner portion of the wing (the root). This disruption in airflow causes a loss of lift on the outer portion of the wing, resulting in a pitch-up moment, or a tendency for the nose of the aircraft to rise. This can be dangerous as it can lead to a loss of control if not properly managed.

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• 10.

During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:

• A.

Downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing.

• B.

Upward on the up going wing and downward on the down going wing.

• C.

On the up going wing only.

• D.

On the down going wing only.

A. Downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing.
Explanation
When initiating a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function is responsible for inducing a spoiler deflection. This deflection is downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing. This helps to decrease lift on the up going wing and increase lift on the down going wing, which helps to initiate and maintain the desired turn.

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• 11.

The speed V2 is

• A.

That speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.

• B.

The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.

• C.

The lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

• D.

The take-off safety speed.

D. The take-off safety speed.
Explanation
The speed V2 is the take-off safety speed. This is the speed at which the PIC (pilot in command) should decide whether to continue or abort the take-off in the event of an engine failure. It is the minimum speed required for the airplane to maintain control with its aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

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• 12.

The temperature at FL 110 is -5aC. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

• A.

+ 3ºC

• B.

0ºC

• C.

-3ºC

• D.

+7ºC

D. +7ºC
Explanation
According to the ICAO standard lapse rate, the temperature decreases by 2 degrees Celsius per 1,000 feet of altitude gain. FL 110 is 11,000 feet above sea level, so if we apply the lapse rate, the temperature at FL 50 (5,000 feet above sea level) would be 6 degrees Celsius colder than at FL 110. Since the temperature at FL 110 is -5 degrees Celsius, the temperature at FL 50 would be -11 degrees Celsius. However, the given answer is +7 degrees Celsius, which contradicts the ICAO standard lapse rate. Therefore, the given answer is incorrect.

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• 13.

Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?

• A.

The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA

• B.

The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient

• C.

VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

• D.

Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed

D. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed
Explanation
VMCA (air minimum control speed) is the minimum speed at which an aircraft can maintain straight flight with the critical engine failed, and still maintain control. Below VMCA, the aircraft will not be able to maintain straight flight and will become uncontrollable. Therefore, the statement "Straight flight cannot be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed" is true.

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• 14.

A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:

• A.

VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

• B.

DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

• C.

DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation

• D.

DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times

B. DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
Explanation
The correct answer is that the DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once. This is because the question states that the same callsign was heard four times in 30 seconds, indicating that the VOR and DME callsigns are the same. Since the DME callsign was only broadcast once, it must be the one with the higher pitch.

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• 15.

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

• A.

Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

• B.

It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

• C.

It is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

• D.

Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

D. Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
Explanation
A runway is considered damp when its surface is not dry and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance. This means that even if there is no visible film of water or the water layer is less than 1 or 3 mm, as mentioned in the other options, if the runway surface is not completely dry and does not appear shiny due to surface moisture, it is still considered damp according to JAR OPS regulations.

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• 16.

A higher outside air temperature

• A.

Does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.

• B.

Reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

• C.

Reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

• D.

Increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

C. Reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
Explanation
A higher outside air temperature reduces the air density, which in turn decreases the lift produced by the aircraft's wings. With less lift, the angle of climb and the rate of climb both decrease. Therefore, a higher outside air temperature reduces both the angle and the rate of climb.

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• 17.

Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur ?

• A.

In the stagnation point

• B.

Upper side

• C.

Lower side

• D.

In front of the stagnation point

B. Upper side
Explanation
The highest flow velocities will occur on the upper side of the aerofoil. This is because the positive angle of attack causes the air to flow over the curved surface of the aerofoil, resulting in a decrease in pressure and an increase in velocity according to Bernoulli's principle. As a result, the air on the upper side of the aerofoil will have higher velocities compared to the lower side.

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• 18.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT"?

• A.

5 - 7 oktas

• B.

1 - 4 oktas

• C.

3 - 4 oktas

• D.

1 - 2 oktas

C. 3 - 4 oktas
Explanation
The correct answer is 3 - 4 oktas. This means that the abbreviation "SCT" refers to a cloud cover of 3 to 4 oktas. Okta is a unit of measurement used to describe the amount of cloud cover in the sky. Therefore, when "SCT" is used to describe cloud cover, it means that approximately 30% to 40% of the sky is covered by clouds.

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• 19.

Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ?

• A.

Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern

• B.

Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.

• C.

Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

• D.

Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.

C. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
• 20.

Convective clouds are formed

• A.

In stable atmosphere

• B.

In summer during the day only

• C.

In mid-latitudes only

• D.

In unstable atmosphere

D. In unstable atmosphere
Explanation
Convective clouds are formed in an unstable atmosphere because instability in the atmosphere allows for the vertical movement of air. As the air rises, it cools and condenses, forming clouds. In an unstable atmosphere, there is a significant difference in temperature between the surface and higher levels of the atmosphere, creating the conditions necessary for convective clouds to develop. This can occur in various regions and during different seasons, not limited to mid-latitudes or specific times of the day.

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• 21.

The term decision height (DH) is used for :

• A.

A conventional approach.

• B.

A conventional approach.

• C.

A conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre.

• D.

A precision approach.

D. A precision approach.
Explanation
The term decision height (DH) is used for a precision approach. In aviation, decision height refers to the altitude at which a pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or initiate a missed approach. This is typically associated with precision approaches, where the pilot relies on instrument guidance and must make a decision based on the visibility and runway environment. In contrast, a conventional approach does not have a specific decision height and may involve visual cues for the pilot to make decisions. Therefore, the correct answer is a precision approach.

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• 22.

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?

• A.

Freezing rain

• B.

• C.

Freezing fog

• D.

Frost

A. Freezing rain
Explanation
The holdover time, or the time period during which de-icing fluid remains effective, will be shortest in freezing rain. Freezing rain is a weather condition where raindrops freeze upon contact with a cold surface, forming a layer of ice. This ice can be difficult to remove and requires more de-icing fluid to melt. Therefore, the holdover time will be shorter compared to other weather conditions like steady snow, freezing fog, or frost.

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• 23.

During take-off the third segment begins

• A.

When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

• B.

When landing gear is fully retracted.

• C.

When acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.

• D.

When flap retraction is completed.

A. When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
Explanation
During take-off, the third segment begins when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. This means that once the aircraft has reached the necessary speed for flap retraction, the third segment of the take-off phase begins. This segment is important as it marks the transition from the initial acceleration to the climb phase of the take-off. The flap retraction speed is a critical parameter that needs to be achieved before proceeding to the next phase of the take-off.

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• 24.

The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :

• A.

15 NM

• B.

30 NM

• C.

25 NM

• D.

10 NM

C. 25 NM
Explanation
The Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) is a minimum altitude that must be maintained around a navigation facility to ensure safe navigation. The MSA is generally valid within a sector of 25 NM (nautical miles). This means that within a radius of 25 NM around the navigation facility, pilots must maintain an altitude that is equal to or higher than the MSA to ensure safe operations.

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• 25.

A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:

• A.

Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

• B.

Contains its own separate gyro

• C.

Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the generator fails

• D.

Is fully independent of external energy resources in an

B. Contains its own separate gyro
Explanation
The correct answer is "Contains its own separate gyro". This means that the stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator has its own gyro, which allows it to operate independently of other systems. This is important because it ensures that the indicator can still provide accurate attitude information even if there is a failure in the electrical system or other components.

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• 26.

The Density Altitude

• A.

Is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

• B.

Is used to determine the aeroplane performance.

• C.

Is equal to the pressure altitude.

• D.

Is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

B. Is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
Explanation
Density altitude is a measure of the density of the air, which is affected by temperature, pressure, and humidity. It is used to determine the performance of an airplane because the density of the air affects factors such as lift, thrust, and drag. As density altitude increases, the air becomes less dense, which can result in reduced engine performance and decreased lift, making it important for pilots to calculate density altitude to ensure safe and efficient flight operations.

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• 27.

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

• A.

At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

• B.

Only at transition altitude.

• C.

Only at transition level.

• D.

At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

D. At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
Explanation
During the climb phase, the transition from altitude to flight level is done at the transition altitude. Flight level is a standard altitude measurement that is based on atmospheric pressure, and it is used during cruise. However, during the descent phase, the transition from flight level to altitude is done at the transition level. This is because the atmospheric pressure is different during descent, so the transition is done at a different altitude.

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• 28.

The optimum cruise altitude increases

• A.

If the aeroplane mass is decreased

• B.

If the temperature (OAT) is increased.

• C.

If the tailwind component is decreased.

• D.

If the aeroplane mass is increased.

A. If the aeroplane mass is decreased
Explanation
When the airplane mass is decreased, it becomes lighter, which allows it to achieve a higher altitude more efficiently. This is because a lighter airplane requires less thrust to maintain lift, resulting in better fuel efficiency and the ability to climb to higher altitudes where the air is less dense. Therefore, the optimum cruise altitude increases when the airplane mass is decreased.

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• 29.

What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?

• A.

55 kt

• B.

60 kt

• C.

70 kt

• D.

50 kt

D. 50 kt
Explanation
The approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots, is 50 kt.

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• 30.

The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

• A.

The accelerate-stop distance available

• B.

The take-off run available

• C.

The take-off distance available.

• D.

The landing distance available.

A. The accelerate-stop distance available
Explanation
The stopway is an area at the end of the runway that provides additional space for an aircraft to safely come to a stop in case of an aborted takeoff. It is not used for takeoff or landing purposes. Therefore, the only option that makes sense is that the stopway allows an increase in the accelerate-stop distance available, which is the distance required for an aircraft to accelerate to takeoff speed and then come to a stop in case of an emergency.

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• 31.

An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately

• A.

8350 ft

• B.

8000 ft

• C.

7650 ft

• D.

8600 ft

C. 7650 ft
Explanation
When an aircraft is flying at FL 80, it means that its altitude is 8000 feet above the standard pressure level. The local QNH of 1000 hPa indicates the atmospheric pressure at sea level. By adjusting the altimeter to the local QNH, it will read the altitude above the local atmospheric pressure, which is 1000 hPa. Therefore, the reading on the altimeter will be approximately 7650 feet, as the aircraft is 350 feet above the local atmospheric pressure.

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• 32.

During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will :

• A.

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC

• B.

Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination

• C.

Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight

• D.

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

A. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC
Explanation
During an IFR flight in VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) in controlled airspace, if you experience a two-way radio communication failure, the correct action to take is to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome while maintaining VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) and inform ATC (Air Traffic Control). This is the safest option as it allows for continued visibility and ensures that ATC is aware of the situation and can provide any necessary assistance.

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• 33.

Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?

• A.

Cumulonimbus

• B.

Cirrostratus

• C.

Altocumulus

• D.

Altostratus

A. Cumulonimbus
Explanation
Cumulonimbus clouds are capable of projecting up into the stratosphere. These are large, towering clouds that are associated with thunderstorms and heavy precipitation. They can extend vertically to great heights, often reaching into the stratosphere. The vertical development of cumulonimbus clouds allows them to penetrate into the upper levels of the atmosphere, where the stratosphere is located. This is why cumulonimbus clouds are known for their ability to produce severe weather phenomena such as lightning, strong winds, and even tornadoes.

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• 34.

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :

• A.

Occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

• B.

Can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

• C.

Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

• D.

Occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

C. Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
Explanation
Windshear is a sudden and drastic change in wind direction or speed. It can occur at any altitude, meaning it is not limited to a specific height. Additionally, windshear can happen in both the vertical and horizontal planes, indicating that it can affect both the upward and forward movement of an aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is that windshear can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes.

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• 35.

LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to LFBD ?

• A.

Continuous moderate rain

• B.

Light drizzle and fog

• C.

Moderate snow showers

• D.

Heavy rain showers

D. Heavy rain showers
Explanation
The given weather report indicates the presence of rain showers (SHRA) with a broken cloud cover at 0200 feet (BKN020). The term "heavy" suggests that the intensity of the rain showers is expected to be significant. Therefore, the forecast for the precipitation on the approach to LFBD is heavy rain showers.

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• 36.

During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :

• A.

The centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.

• B.

The centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.

• C.

• D.

The centre of gravity is too far forward.

B. The centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
Explanation
If the airplane rotates much more rapidly than expected during take-off, it indicates that the center of gravity may be towards the aft limit. The center of gravity is the point where the weight of the airplane is concentrated, and if it is towards the aft limit, it means that there is more weight towards the rear of the aircraft. This can cause the airplane to rotate more quickly during take-off, as there is more force pushing the tail down and lifting the nose up.

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• 37.

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :

• A.

Increases

• B.

Remains constant

• C.

Attains its maximum permitted operating limit

• D.

Decreases

D. Decreases
Explanation
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, it means that the pressure inside the cabin is decreasing. This can happen due to a decrease in the outside air pressure or a failure in the cabin pressurization system. In order to maintain a safe and comfortable environment for the passengers and crew, the differential pressure, which is the difference between the cabin pressure and the outside air pressure, needs to be maintained within certain limits. Therefore, if the cabin altitude increases, the differential pressure will decrease in order to bring the cabin pressure back to the desired level.

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• 38.

The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

• A.

Entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required

• B.

Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

• C.

An emergency

• D.

Transponder malfunction

A. Entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required
Explanation
Code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required. This means that the aircraft has entered an airspace where Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) operation was not previously mandatory. The code 2000 is used to inform air traffic control that the aircraft is now operating in an area where SSR is required.

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• 39.

VNE is the maximum speed :

• A.

With flaps extended in landing position

• B.

Which must never be exceeded

• C.

Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

• D.

At which the flight controls can be fully deflected

B. Which must never be exceeded
Explanation
The correct answer is "which must never be exceeded." This means that VNE is the maximum speed that should never be surpassed under any circumstances. It is a critical limit that must be adhered to in order to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants. Exceeding VNE can lead to structural damage, loss of control, and potentially catastrophic consequences. Therefore, pilots must always operate within the specified VNE to maintain the integrity and stability of the aircraft.

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• 40.

"TODA" take-off distance available is:

• A.

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

• B.

The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

• C.

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided).

• D.

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

A. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
Explanation
The correct answer is "The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided)." This means that the "TODA" take-off distance available includes both the length of the take-off run and any additional clearway that may be provided.

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• 41.

The speed of sound is affected by the:

• A.

Temperature of the air.

• B.

Density of the air.

• C.

Pressure of the air.

• D.

Humidity of the air.

A. Temperature of the air.
Explanation
The speed of sound is affected by the temperature of the air because sound waves travel faster in warmer air compared to colder air. This is because the molecules in warmer air have higher kinetic energy, which allows them to vibrate more quickly and transmit sound waves faster. On the other hand, in colder air, the molecules have lower kinetic energy and vibrate at a slower rate, resulting in slower sound propagation. Therefore, temperature plays a crucial role in determining the speed of sound in a given medium.

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• 42.

In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

• A.

NS

• B.

CU

• C.

CI

• D.

SC

C. CI
Explanation
CI stands for Cirrus clouds, which are high-altitude clouds composed of ice crystals. Since Cirrus clouds are made up of ice crystals, icing can occur within them. Therefore, icing cannot be ruled out in Cirrus clouds.

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• 43.

The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:

• A.

Water vapour in the alveoli

• B.

Oxygen in the cells

• C.

Carbon dioxide in the blood

• D.

Nitrogen in the air

C. Carbon dioxide in the blood
Explanation
The rate and depth of breathing are primarily regulated by the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood. When the carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase, it triggers the respiratory centers in the brain to increase the rate and depth of breathing. This helps to remove excess carbon dioxide from the body and maintain the balance of gases in the bloodstream.

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• 44.

The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

• A.

644 kt

• B.

332 kt

• C.

661 kt

• D.

1059 kt

C. 661 kt
Explanation
The correct answer is 661 kt. At sea level in a standard atmosphere, the velocity of sound is 661 kt. This means that sound travels at a speed of 661 knots per hour in these conditions.

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• 45.

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =

• A.

Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metres

• B.

Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost

• C.

Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres

• D.

RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

D. RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Explanation
The given answer correctly interprets the METAR as stating that the runway visual range (RVR) for runway 14 is 800 meters, the vertical visibility is 100 feet, the wind is calm (calm is indicated by "00000KT"), and the meteorological visibility is expected to improve to 800 meters in the next 2 hours.

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• 46.

In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

• A.

To the left

• B.

In a direction depending on the entry

• C.

In a direction depending on the wind direction

• D.

To the right

D. To the right
Explanation
In a standard holding pattern, turns are made to the right.

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• 47.

Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?

• A.

At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.

• B.

When the altimeter has no position error.

• C.

When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa.

• D.

At standard temperature.

D. At standard temperature.
Explanation
Pressure altitude is the altitude above the standard datum plane, where atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches of mercury (inHg) or 1013.2 hPa. Density altitude, on the other hand, is the pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature variations. At standard temperature, the temperature lapse rate is 2 degrees Celsius per 1,000 feet. Therefore, if the temperature is standard, the pressure altitude and density altitude will have the same value.

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• 48.

After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied?

• A.

Emergency Descent Procedure.

• B.

ETOPS.

• C.

Long Range Cruise Descent.

• D.

Drift Down Procedure.

D. Drift Down Procedure.
Explanation
The correct answer is Drift Down Procedure. After an engine failure, the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. In this situation, the drift down procedure should be applied. The drift down procedure involves descending to a lower altitude that can be maintained with the remaining engine(s) to ensure the safety of the aircraft and passengers. This procedure allows the pilot to safely continue the flight and reach a suitable landing location. ETOPS refers to Extended-range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standards and is not applicable in this scenario. Long Range Cruise Descent is not a recognized procedure for dealing with engine failure.

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• 49.

Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft?

• A.

Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

• B.

Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

• C.

Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

• D.

Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

A. Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
Explanation
The standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft involves making right hand turns and flying outbound for 1 minute. This means that when an aircraft reaches the holding fix, it will turn right and fly outbound on a specific course for a duration of 1 minute before making another turn to the right and entering the pattern again. This standard procedure helps to ensure consistent and predictable movements for aircraft in the holding pattern, minimizing the risk of collision and providing efficient traffic flow control.

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• 50.

The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200a. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:

• A.

Centred

• B.

Left of centre

• C.

Right of centre

• D.

Centred with the 'fail' flag showing