Systems T3

74 Questions | Total Attempts: 58

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Good Luck Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The massage therapist has a noticeable tremor of the right thumb that goes away as soon as s/he reaches for the oil bottle and gets to work. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 2. 
    The client's ankles move together in a continuous intertwining action. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 3. 
    During walking, the body parts do not work well together and the person staggers, seeming to misjudge where the ground is and unbalancing easily. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 4. 
    Mild active free limb movements create "stabbing" feelings inside the joint. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 5. 
    The person cannot watch someone demonstrate an unfamiliar motor skill and then figure out how to reproduce it. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 6. 
    Manual pressure results in a rapid, jerky reaction in the muscles being worked on, which then expands to involve more and more muscles. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 7. 
    The client sitting in your waiting room struggles to get up when you arrive; despite concentrating hard, s/he has a few unsuccessful tries before you reach over to help. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 8. 
    When you ask your client to indicate the exact location of the knee pain, s/he keeps missing the knee, passing it altogether or coming up short. This is most likely caused by:
    • A. 

      Motor cortex dysfunction

    • B. 

      Cerebellum dysfunction

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia dysfunction

    • D. 

      Dysfunction of integrated higher motor centre transmission

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 9. 
    Impaired swallowing, a massage therapist concern because of the choking risk, is called:
    • A. 

      Dysarthria

    • B. 

      Dysdiadochokinesia

    • C. 

      Dysphagia

    • D. 

      Dysaesthesia

    • E. 

      Dyskinesia

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about rigidity?
    • A. 

      The affected joints are expected to be in flexed holding positions.

    • B. 

      Affected joints will tend to release farther if the therapist applies consistent gentle overpressure.

    • C. 

      It would not be surprising if the person has dysarthria.

    • D. 

      GTO reflex functions are expected to perform normally.

    • E. 

      It would not be surprising if the person has chronic constipation.

  • 11. 
    A client who has an allydynia reaction to a heat application is most likely to tell you that s/he:
    • A. 

      Finds it too hot.

    • B. 

      Is getting nasty "prickly heat" sensations.

    • C. 

      Is feeling an intense achiness in the tissues.

    • D. 

      Feels that the body part is going numb.

    • E. 

      Finds it too heavy.

  • 12. 
    The main reason you would NOT simultaneously massage and stretch a spastic muscle is:
    • A. 

      The GTO reflex is weakened and cannot adequately protect the muscle attachments.

    • B. 

      Spastic muscles respond better to light, gentle techniques.

    • C. 

      Spastic muscles should not be stretched.

    • D. 

      It is too stimulating for the muscle spindle reflexes.

    • E. 

      The type of technique will be too painful for spastic muscles and will initiate abnormal withdrawal reflex responses.

  • 13. 
    When a person experiences movement that is not actually occurring, this is called __________ and it is a ________ dysfunction.
    • A. 

      Dystonia; basal ganglia

    • B. 

      Involuntary; basal ganglia

    • C. 

      Vertigo; cerebellum

    • D. 

      A "phantom" phenomenon; sensory

    • E. 

      Decomposition of movement; cerebellum

  • 14. 
    Which of the following statements is FALSE?
    • A. 

      The most common vascular damage in the brain is "stroke," which is an infarction.

    • B. 

      The bleeding/edema that can result from a CNS lesion often creates more damage than the original problem.

    • C. 

      Metal elements such as lead and aluminum are classified as CNS poisons and may be the cause of permanent damage.

    • D. 

      Carbon monoxide damages the brain through depriving cells of oxygen.

    • E. 

      None of the above (all are true)

  • 15. 
    Babinski's Sign is an example of:
    • A. 

      A clonic reflex response typical of spasticity.

    • B. 

      Impairment of the "righting" reflex.

    • C. 

      Reversion to a more primitive reflex response.

    • D. 

      A disordered agonist/antagonist reflex relationship.

    • E. 

      Flexion dominance.

  • 16. 
    Gliosis, the formation of specialized scar tissue in the CNS, is a function of:
    • A. 

      Neurons.

    • B. 

      Astrocytes.

    • C. 

      Ependyma.

    • D. 

      Microglia.

    • E. 

      Oligodendrocytes.

  • 17. 
    With respect to spasticity, which is the FALSE statement?
    • A. 

      The key problem in spasticity is that basic reflexes and primitive movement patterns lose modification and oversight from higher motor centres.

    • B. 

      Because of its integrated higher motor centre origin, spasticity will always affect the whole body.

    • C. 

      Individuals with spasticity can often have quite low resting muscle tone.

    • D. 

      The person with spasticity will often have a series of reflex reactions in response to one stimulus.

    • E. 

      Spastic muscles will react aggressively to stretch, especially rapid stretch, so the massage therapist must proceed slowly, stop the stretch when the clonus begins, reduce the stretch a bit, and wait for the reaction to die down before proceeding.

  • 18. 
    When a client in MS Clinic tells you that s/he gets "feathery tingling sensations" from your hand massage, you know this should be documented as:
    • A. 

      Hypaesthesia

    • B. 

      Dysaesthesia

    • C. 

      Hyperasthesia

    • D. 

      Paraesthesia

    • E. 

      Anaesthesia

  • 19. 
    Broca's aphasia is a non-fluent type - despite having good comprehension of language, the person produces little or not verbal output.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    The term "paraplegic" is used to describe any circumstance where a person has a paralytic condition involving 2 limbs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    Since contractures only occur in non-contractile fascial structures, applying fairly aggressive stretch or pressure to them will not exacerbate spasticity.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Unfortunately, because of the type of impairment that causes rigidity, hydrotherapy applications cannot help the massage therapist reduce tone in affected muscles.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    When an infection is affecting cellular components of the brain tissue, it is referred to as encephalitis.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    In order for a client with nystagmus to see you when you are conversing, it is best to stand or sit very still in her/her direct line of vision.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    Facial rigidity can have many social implications, and has the potential to cause communication errors between the massage therapist and the client.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    Anaplasia is:
    • A. 

      An involuntary movement characterized by bilateral "writhing" movements.

    • B. 

      In inability to swallow.

    • C. 

      A cellular change process unique to cancer.

    • D. 

      The change that occurs in cells in response to chronic irritation.

    • E. 

      The inability to initiate movements.

  • 27. 
    Select the FALSE statement with respect to MS.
    • A. 

      Many people with MS may manifest emotional states that do not represent what they are actually feeling.

    • B. 

      Some people with MS can be quite emotionally labile, meaning they slip easily into emotional states.

    • C. 

      The term "primary emotional symptoms," when applied to the MS client, means that the person had the emotional disorder before MS began.

    • D. 

      Depression is very common with MS.

    • E. 

      Overtaxing a client with massage work or exercise might result in depressive or emotionally volatile reactions.

  • 28. 
    Select the FALSE statement with respect to strokes.
    • A. 

      All strokes are expected to result in some type and degree of motor impairment.

    • B. 

      Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke recurrence, when the first stroke was hemorrhagic or occlusive.

    • C. 

      The massage therapist needs to make sure to check whether the client is taking an anticoagulant - this would be expected in cases of occlusive stroke.

    • D. 

      Strokes are frequently the cause of a seizure disorder onset in older individuals.

    • E. 

      A & B

  • 29. 
    For an epileptic client, stress-induced insomnia would be characterized as a(n):
    • A. 

      Epileptic focus.

    • B. 

      Trigger.

    • C. 

      Aura.

    • D. 

      Destabilizing factor.

    • E. 

      Ictus.

  • 30. 
    A person who has recently contracted HIV typically enters a period of viral remission for:
    • A. 

      6-12 months.

    • B. 

      1-2 years.

    • C. 

      6-12 years.

    • D. 

      15-20 years.

  • 31. 
    Select the TRUE statement about cerebral palsy.
    • A. 

      Most people develop cerebral palsy between three months and 2 years.

    • B. 

      The most commonly seen speech impairment is scanning speech.

    • C. 

      People with cerebral palsy are expected to have normal sensation.

    • D. 

      Cerebral palsy is always quadriplegic.

    • E. 

      The most common causes of cerebral palsy are head trauma and encephalitis.

  • 32. 
    AIDS medications might be considered to be working optimally if viral load is:
    • A. 

      Undetectable.

    • B. 

      Under 200 copies per millilitre of blood.

    • C. 

      Under 350 copies per millilitre of blood.

    • D. 

      Under 500 copies per millilitre of blood.

  • 33. 
    Cancer surgeries:
    • A. 

      Are viewed as the last resort in trying to eliminate cancers from the body.

    • B. 

      Are sometimes used to reduce tumour load in hope that the body's resources will be improved to fight the remaining ones.

    • C. 

      Nowadays, rarely impact multiple structures or surrounding health tissue.

    • D. 

      B & C

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 34. 
    With respect to working with clients who have Alzheimer's Disease:
    • A. 

      Cognitive, communication, and behavioural issues may be challenging, but the disease leaves physical body processes essentially intact.

    • B. 

      The most severe cognitive impairments (e.g. loss of everyday referencing, wandering, aggressive/compulsive behaviours) do not onset until the third stage.

    • C. 

      A good guideline is: "as long as the client can repeat your instructions accurately, the client will be able to remember them."

    • D. 

      Your manner and tone of voice may be more communicative than your actual words, especially with more advanced cases.

    • E. 

      B & D

  • 35. 
    Select the FALSE statement about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs).
    • A. 

      TIAs represent periods of temporary perfusion insufficiency in brain tissue.

    • B. 

      TIAs last on average 1-2 hours.

    • C. 

      TIAs always present as neurological signs.

    • D. 

      Hemiplegic paresis is a common TIA presentation.

    • E. 

      TIAs are warning signs for both occlusive and hemorrhagic strokes.

  • 36. 
    In therms of the benefits of massage therapy for people battling cancer, recent research indicates:
    • A. 

      That massage can help with patient dissociation issues.

    • B. 

      That massage significantly increases adrenaline levels which promotes better sleep in hospital and hospice settings.

    • C. 

      That there may be beneficial effects of massage in reducing drug dosage and dependency.

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 37. 
    Apraxia, a characteristic problem in Alzheimer's Disease, is:
    • A. 

      Loss of appetite.

    • B. 

      Unstable, unbalanced gait.

    • C. 

      Impaired understanding of how to use tools and body parts for their normal purposes.

    • D. 

      Severe impairment of comprehension and production of intelligible language.

    • E. 

      Loss of the swallowing reflex.

  • 38. 
    What role do CD4+ cells play in the body's response to HIV?
    • A. 

      They're used as a replication factory by HIV.

    • B. 

      They hunt down HIV and kill it.

    • C. 

      They neutralize HIV by changing its internal structure.

    • D. 

      They're used as a replication factory by HIV medications.

    • E. 

      None of the above.

  • 39. 
    The most common first symptom to appear in Parkinson's Disease is:
    • A. 

      The "parkinsonian mask."

    • B. 

      Visual problems such as unilateral blindness or patchy blind spots.

    • C. 

      Bradykinesia.

    • D. 

      Unilateral resting tremor, most often in the hand.

    • E. 

      Orthostatic hypotension.

  • 40. 
    Each of the following is important to keep in mind with respect to epileptic clients, EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      You cannot assume that an epileptic who is well controlled by medication in daily life will remain seizure free during massage therapy sessions.

    • B. 

      Starting a new exercise program usually causes a temporary increase in seizure activity.

    • C. 

      It is quite acceptable to change a person's body position after a seizure has started.

    • D. 

      Pregnant clients will tend to have a lower seizure threshold.

    • E. 

      Long-term effects of epilepsy medications can make the client's feedback about treatment become less precise and reliable.

  • 41. 
    In terms of treating a client who has recently been diagnosed with a malignant tumour in their breast tissue, which of the following massage therapy techniques is contraindicated leading up to their surgery?
    • A. 

      Lymph drainage techniques to surrounding tissues.

    • B. 

      Trigger point treatments to upper fibres of thrapezius and PIR to pectoralis minor.

    • C. 

      Reinforced fingertip kneading to tumour after local heat application.

    • D. 

      None of the above are contraindicated.

    • E. 

      Massage is completely contraindicated until after surgery.

  • 42. 
    What was the significant development in HIV/AIDS that occurred in the mid-1990s?
    • A. 

      HIV is linked to a chocolate-deficient diet.

    • B. 

      Medication side-effects start to cause deaths in long-term patients.

    • C. 

      HIV is discovered to be transmittable through blood.

    • D. 

      "Cocktail" drug combinations are introduced and improve life expectancies.

  • 43. 
    The movement pattern characteristic of Jacksonian seizures is called automatism.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    There is a wide range of pain experience in individuals with MS - some have little or no pain, while others may have various types of severe pain phenomena.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    The term "malignancy" refers to the presence of dysplasia in a tissue biopsy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    HIV is a fragile virus and begins dying within minutes (or less) of exposure to air.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    It is important to keep in mind that clients with Parkinson's disease often have cardiovascular concerns, both age-related and because of the effects of the Parkinson's itself.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    Hemiattention and impaired vasomotor controls are two impairments of particular concern to the massage therapist when a client has had an anterior cerebral artery stroke.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Parkinson's disease manifests a broad range of basal ganglia dysfunctions because it is caused by damage to three or more basal nuclei.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    Promotion of better quality sleep is a key aim of treatment with clients who are experiencing the "cancer year"
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding Tuberculosis?
    • A. 

      The skin test for Tuberculosis is known as the Mantoux Test.

    • B. 

      The granuloma associated with TB is located in the cervical vertebrae.

    • C. 

      The skin test will only be positive if you have an active infection.

    • D. 

      Antibiotic therapy is prescribed for 1 month.

    • E. 

      All of the above are true.

  • 52. 
    Purses lips and diaphragmatic breathing exercises can be helpful for clients with COPD. How would you instruct your client to perform pursed lip breathing?
    • A. 

      Inhale through pursed lips, and exhale rapidly.

    • B. 

      Inhale through nose and slowly exhale through pursed lips.

    • C. 

      Inhale through nose and hold for 20 seconds to increase back pressure.

    • D. 

      Inhale through pursed lips and lean backwards to increase diaphragmatic excursion.

    • E. 

      It is beyond our scope of practice to instruct our clients in breathing exercises.

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is FALSE about sub-dural hematoma?
    • A. 

      Symptoms generally appear within 48 hours of the trauma.

    • B. 

      Headache is not a typical first symptom.

    • C. 

      The hemorrhage usually involves a venous vessel and is fairly low pressure.

    • D. 

      Elderly individuals are more susceptible due to increased tension on their vascular networks from decreasing brain size.

    • E. 

      People who have had more than one head impact injury are more susceptible.

  • 54. 
    With respect to treating a client who had a mastectomy and regional lymph node sampling 3 years ago:
    • A. 

      You will be addressing the fascial restrictions that are limiting her shoulder range of motion.

    • B. 

      It is unlikely that massage can reduce lymphedema as it is caused by the removal of lymph nodes during surgery and not the obstructive scarring that results from the healing process.

    • C. 

      Frictions to the adhesions within the scar tissue will likely be modified to avoid excessive pressure to the ribs.

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 55. 
    With respect to concussion, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
    • A. 

      While there may be some cell loss involved, concussion is no longer considered a structural injury - it is now defined as a derangement of brain metabolism.

    • B. 

      Concussion is a full brain occurrence regardless of location of head impact.

    • C. 

      A concussed brain has increased neurotransmission but decreased blood circulation.

    • D. 

      Extra sleep and stress avoidance are central aspects of concussion recovery.

    • E. 

      None of the above (all are true)

  • 56. 
    Anemia is a common complication of chemotherapy protocols. When a client becomes anemic, the massage therapist is aware that the following may occur:
    • A. 

      Client develops hypotension.

    • B. 

      Client becomes more fatigued and may need shorter, less intense treatment.

    • C. 

      Client's tissues, especially in the extremities, become more fragile and easier to bruise.

    • D. 

      Client may experience dyspnea and signs of increased cardiac stress.

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 57. 
    When a regular client is in a hospital setting receiving intravenous chemotherapy:
    • A. 

      Massage is completely contraindicated.

    • B. 

      Touching the client would be dangerous to the therapist.

    • C. 

      Full body massage would be appropriate as long as the oncologist has agreed.

    • D. 

      Light back stroking techniques have been found to reduce anxiety and nausea.

    • E. 

      A & B

  • 58. 
    Which of the following statements about Bronchogenic Carcinoma is FALSE?
    • A. 

      It is a very rare and often fatal lung cancer.

    • B. 

      It is highly metastatic.

    • C. 

      It is quite often dedicated once it has metastasized.

    • D. 

      It is highly correlated to the smoking population.

    • E. 

      A & D are false.

  • 59. 
    Which of the following regarding radiation therapy is FALSE?
    • A. 

      It tends to cause long-term sensory changes in tissues.

    • B. 

      Following radiation therapy, the massage therapist must wait a minimum of 6 weeks before beginning on-site manual treatment.

    • C. 

      It is important to use cold compresses on-site between treatments to decrease the burn damage and provide analgesia.

    • D. 

      B & C

    • E. 

      None of the above are false.

  • 60. 
    When a client is in the midst of a multi-month chemotherapy protocol, the massage therapist needs to be aware that:
    • A. 

      Tissue resilience is decreased - the skin will be more susceptible to injury.

    • B. 

      The client may prefer to stay at home for their treatment as they are easily fatigued and more vulnerable to common infections.

    • C. 

      Chemotherapy protocols stress the vital organ systems.

    • D. 

      They may need to waiver their appointment cancellation policy as the client is likely to have "good" days and "bad" days.

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 61. 
    Which of the following complications of chronic bronchitis is a client LEAST likely to present with?
    • A. 

      Thoracic outlet syndrome.

    • B. 

      Poor peripheral circulation.

    • C. 

      Thoracic facet syndrome.

    • D. 

      Pneumothorax.

    • E. 

      Sternocleidomastoid muscle trigger points.

  • 62. 
    When working with a chachexic client:
    • A. 

      Light massage may be indicated, but there will be concern regarding any techniques that increase the chance of metastasis.

    • B. 

      You are no longer concerned about medications as any massage you do will be light and superficial.

    • C. 

      Hydrotherapy to address overall systemic toxicity may be indicated, especially modalities that encourage perspiration.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

    • E. 

      None of the above.

  • 63. 
    Select the FALSE statement with regards to CNS infection.
    • A. 

      Fungal infections in the brain are frequently opportunistic, for example when the person has AIDS or cancer.

    • B. 

      A fungal infection affecting the person's brain cells would be labeled lymphocytic encephalitis.

    • C. 

      Encephalitis can be a cause of epilepsy, cerebral palsy and Parkinsonian syndromes.

    • D. 

      Post-infection syndromes can include mood disorders and personality change.

    • E. 

      Brudzinski's Sign, a potential meningitis indicator, is positive when forward neck flexion produces severe head/spinal pain and reflex curling into fetal position.

  • 64. 
    A client who had surgery, radiation, and then chemotherapy for colorectal cancer tells you that he feels ready for more specific massage work to the scar tissue in his abdomen. It is 10 days after his last chemotherapy appointment. Which of the following are you MOST concerned about in terms of beginning more aggressive scar tissue work?
    • A. 

      If his white blood cell counts are still significantly low, aggressive tissue-altering work will only create damage in the tissues.

    • B. 

      The restrictions in place regarding the use of lubricants.

    • C. 

      Massage at this time will still need to be very modified in order to avoid over-metabolizing the chemotherapy drugs and making the client sicker.

    • D. 

      A & B

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 65. 
    Select the most appropriate match for: Emphysema.
    • A. 

      Blue bloater

    • B. 

      Congestion, hepatization and resolution of lung parenchyma affecting relatively healthy people.

    • C. 

      Pink puffer

    • D. 

      Black lung

    • E. 

      Often affects immunosupressed patients.

  • 66. 
    Select the most appropriate match for: Anthrocosis.
    • A. 

      Blue bloater

    • B. 

      Congestion, hepatization and resolution of lung parenchyma affecting relatively healthy people.

    • C. 

      Pink puffer

    • D. 

      Black lung

    • E. 

      Often affects immunosupressed patients.

  • 67. 
    Select the most appropriate match for: Bronchopneumonia.
    • A. 

      Blue bloater

    • B. 

      Congestion, hepatization and resolution of lung parenchyma affecting relatively healthy people.

    • C. 

      Pink puffer

    • D. 

      Black lung

    • E. 

      Often affects immunosupressed patients.

  • 68. 
    Select the most appropriate match for: Lobar pneumonia.
    • A. 

      Blue bloater

    • B. 

      Congestion, hepatization and resolution of lung parenchyma affecting relatively healthy people.

    • C. 

      Pink puffer

    • D. 

      Black lung

    • E. 

      Often affects immunosupressed patients.

  • 69. 
    CNS infections caused by viruses and common bacteria both tend to have rapid, intense onsets that can initially resemble the flu - health professionals need be aware that ANY inclusion of neurological signs in the symptom picture is ominous and requires emergency evaluation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    Atelectasis Neonatorum implies collapse of a newborn's previously inflated lungs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 71. 
    Marijuana smoke contains more carcinogens than tobacco, but is safe when inhaled through a bong.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    One of the common effects of chemotherapy is thinning of labile epithelial structures like skin and small blood vessel walls, but this is also one of the quickest to "bounce back" after the protocol ends.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 73. 
    The "red hepatization stage" is associated with emphysema is why patients are known as "pink puffers."
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    Radiation treatments penetrate through the body but primarily damage the cancer cells rather than the skin and subcutaneous tissue.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False