Learn About Microorganisms! Trivia Facts Quiz

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Learn About Microorganisms! Trivia Facts Quiz

Over the course of our study, we have been able to learn a lot about microorganisms and the trivia quiz below is a way we can see how much we understood. There exist five types of microorganisms, and they include Algae, protozoa, fungi, bacteria, and viruses. Take this test up and see what you know about each of them.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the definition of sterilization?
    • A. 

      Microbial contamination

    • B. 

      Removal of pathogens from surfaces by chemical means

    • C. 

      Removal of all microbial life

  • 2. 
    What is commerical sterilization?
    • A. 

      Removal of pathogens from living tissue

    • B. 

      Removes spores to prevent food poisoning

    • C. 

      Lowers microbial counts to safe levels

  • 3. 
    What is pasteurization?
    • A. 

      Absence of significant contamination

    • B. 

      Removal of pathogens from surfaces by chemical means

    • C. 

      Reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens, it's used for items that cant withstand high temperature and pressure of an autoclave

  • 4. 
    Disinfection is
    • A. 

      The removal of pathogens from a surface by chemical means

    • B. 

      Microbial contamination

    • C. 

      Removal of all microbial life

  • 5. 
    Antisepsis is
    • A. 

      Microbial contaminatoin

    • B. 

      Lower microbial counts to safe levels

    • C. 

      Removal of pathogens from living tissue

  • 6. 
    What is sanitation?
    • A. 

      Lower microbial counts to safe levels

    • B. 

      Absence of significant contamination

    • C. 

      Removal of spores such as Clostridium to prevent food poisoning

  • 7. 
    What is microbial contamination?
    • A. 

      Antisepsis

    • B. 

      Sepsis

    • C. 

      Asepsis

  • 8. 
    What is the absence of significant contamination? (these surgery techniques prevent microbial contamination of wounds)
    • A. 

      Antisepsis

    • B. 

      Sepsis

    • C. 

      Asepsis

  • 9. 
    Why is dry heat not as effective as moist heat in controlling microbes?
    • A. 

      Heat in water is more easily transferred than heat in air

    • B. 

      Moist heat is hotter than dry heat

    • C. 

      Dry heat is more effective than moist heat

  • 10. 
    What is one of the few ways we can achieve complete sterilization?
    • A. 

      Refrigeration

    • B. 

      Steam pressure

    • C. 

      UV light

  • 11. 
    Refrigerating and freezing is effective in preventing the growth of microorganisms, however
    • A. 

      It only works on vegetative forms of bacteria

    • B. 

      It takes a very long time.

    • C. 

      It doesn't necessarily kill the organisms.

  • 12. 
    UV light can control some organisms with non-ionizing radiatin.  What does UV light work well on, and what is it more resistant to?
    • A. 

      It works well on spores, and is more resistant to vegetative forms

    • B. 

      It works well on vegetative forms, and is more resistant to spores

    • C. 

      It works well on bacteria, and is more resistant to spores

  • 13. 
     When is pasteurization a good method to use when controling micobes?
    • A. 

      When killing an organism that cannot stand high temperatures and pressure

    • B. 

      When trying to kill only spores

    • C. 

      When trying to achieve complete sterilization

  • 14. 
    Tyndallization is effective in
    • A. 

      Killing organisms that cannot stand high temperatures and pressure

    • B. 

      Destroying spores in a pressure cooker

    • C. 

      Using radiation to kill spores

  • 15. 
    What substance produced by a microbe in small amounts inhibits another microbe?
    • A. 

      Chemotherapy

    • B. 

      MIC

    • C. 

      Antibiotic

  • 16. 
    What is the use of drugs to treat a disease? It can refer to both natural and synthetic anti-microbial drugs.
    • A. 

      Chemotherapy

    • B. 

      Antibiotic

    • C. 

      Selective toxicity

  • 17. 
    What does broad spectrum effect?
    • A. 

      Gram positives

    • B. 

      Gram negatives

    • C. 

      Only gram positives OR gram negatives

  • 18. 
    What does narrow spectrum effect?
    • A. 

      Gram positives

    • B. 

      Gram negatives

    • C. 

      Only gram positive OR gram negatives

  • 19. 
    What is MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration)?
    • A. 

      Smallest dose that will actually kill an organism

    • B. 

      Smallest dose that will get rid of symptoms

    • C. 

      Smallest dose that will be effective

  • 20. 
    What is MBC ( minimal bacterial concentration)?
    • A. 

      Smallest dose that will actually kill an organism

    • B. 

      Smallest dose that will get rid of symptoms

    • C. 

      Smallest dose that will be effective

  • 21. 
    What is selective toxicity?
    • A. 

      When drugs are toxic to everything

    • B. 

      When bacteria is toxic to a specific part of the body

    • C. 

      When drugs kill harmful microbes without damaging the host

  • 22. 
    In addition to staph, strep, and treponema pallidum,  what is usually sensitive to penicillin?
    • A. 

      Gram positives

    • B. 

      Gram negatives

    • C. 

      Both gram positives and gram negatives

  • 23. 
    What is a pathogen?
    • A. 

      A virus in the blood

    • B. 

      A disease causing microorganism

    • C. 

      bacteria in the body

  • 24. 
    What is etiology?
    • A. 

      The study of the cause of a disease

    • B. 

      The study of viruses

    • C. 

      The study of microorganisms

  • 25. 
    What is disease?
    • A. 

      A condition that can be vaccinated

    • B. 

      A symptomatic infections

    • C. 

      An abnormal state in which the body is not functioning properly

  • 26. 
    What is virulence?
    • A. 

      The extent of pathogenicity

    • B. 

      An inanimate object capable of carrying infectious organisms

    • C. 

      Presence of viruses in the blood

  • 27. 
    What is the growth of bacteria in the blood?
    • A. 

      Viremia

    • B. 

      Septicemia

    • C. 

      Toxemia

  • 28. 
    What is an inanimate object capable of carrying infectious organisms?
    • A. 

      Vector

    • B. 

      Fomite

    • C. 

      Carrier

  • 29. 
    What is an arthropod that carries disease?
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

  • 30. 
    What are Kosh's postulates used for?
    • A. 

      To prove microorganisms exist

    • B. 

      To prove the cause of infectious disease

    • C. 

      To determine the type of disease

  • 31. 
    What is an acute infection that causes the initial illness?
    • A. 

      Primary

    • B. 

      Secondary

    • C. 

      Systemic

  • 32. 
    What would an ear infection after a cold be called?
    • A. 

      Primary infection

    • B. 

      Secondary infection

    • C. 

      Nosocomial infection

  • 33. 
    What infection has no noticable signs or symptoms?
    • A. 

      Sub-clinical

    • B. 

      Latent

    • C. 

      Communicable

  • 34. 
    Food poisoning, tetanus, and lyme diseases are examples of which type of infection?
    • A. 

      Communicable

    • B. 

      Non-communicable

    • C. 

      Nosocomial

  • 35. 
    yeast infections and endocarditis caused by own own normal alpha hemolytic streptococcus species are examples of which type of infection?
    • A. 

      Focal

    • B. 

      Zoonotic

    • C. 

      Opportunistic

  • 36. 
    Place the stages of disease development in order. 1.acute 2.decline 3.incubation 4.convalescence 5. prodomal
    • A. 

      3, 5, 1, 2, 4

    • B. 

      2, 1, 3, 5, 4

    • C. 

      3, 5, 2, 1, 4

  • 37. 
    Mechanical transmission is when
    • A. 

      Vectors carry the disease

    • B. 

      The pathogen reproduces in the vector

    • C. 

      An arthropod carries the pathogen on its feet

  • 38. 
    What is an endemic?
    • A. 

      Disease constantly present in a population

    • B. 

      Disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time

    • C. 

      Disease that occurs occasionally in a population

  • 39. 
    What is an epidemic?
    • A. 

      Disease constantly present in a population

    • B. 

      Disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time

    • C. 

      Disease that occurs occasionally in a population

  • 40. 
    Highly virulent microbes
    • A. 

      Almost always cause disease when the host is exposed

    • B. 

      Only cause disease in weakened hosts

    • C. 

      Only cause disease when present in large numbers

  • 41. 
    Which type of bacteria do endotoxins produce?
    • A. 

      Gram postive

    • B. 

      Gram negative

  • 42. 
    Which type of bacteria do exotoxins produce?
    • A. 

      Gram postive

    • B. 

      Gram negative

  • 43. 
    Normal microbiota
    • A. 

      May be present for days, weeks, or months

    • B. 

      Are more or less permanently present

    • C. 

      Protect the host

  • 44. 
    Non-specific resistance is a defense againtst any pathogen that may enter the body. How do we get this resistance?
    • A. 

      We acquire these resistances through vaccinations

    • B. 

      We acquire these resistances over time, after being exposed to them

    • C. 

      We are born with these resistances, and refer to them as innate

  • 45. 
    What are some characteristics of inflammation?
    • A. 

      Redness

    • B. 

      Cold skin

    • C. 

      Heat

    • D. 

      Pain

    • E. 

      Numbness

  • 46. 
    What is a vasoactive mediator produced by mast cells and basophils that causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and mucous production, and functions primarily in inflammation and allergy?
    • A. 

      Prostaglandins

    • B. 

      Interferon (IFN)

    • C. 

      Histamine

  • 47. 
    What is produced by most body cells and is a complex chemical mediator that can have opposing effects and is a powerful stimulant of inflammation and pain?
    • A. 

      Histamine

    • B. 

      Prostaglandin

    • C. 

      Interferon (IFN)

  • 48. 
    What is alpha and beta; produced by leukocytes, fibroblasts, and other cells; and inhibits virus replication and cell division and increases the action of certain lymphocytes that kill other cells?
    • A. 

      Histamine

    • B. 

      Prostaglandin

    • C. 

      Interferon (IFN)

  • 49. 
    List each type of leukocyte in order from largest to smallest (%).
    • A. 

      Basophils, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Neutrophils, Lymphocytes

    • B. 

      Monocytes, Lymphocytes, Basophils, Eosinophils, Neutrophils

    • C. 

      Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils

  • 50. 
    What do neutrophils do?
    • A. 

      They are primarily responsible for helping the body's immune system.

    • B. 

      They discharge serontonins and histamines to help increase blood flow and decrease inflammation

    • C. 

      They attack the infection before other white blood cells

  • 51. 
    What do lymphocytes do?
    • A. 

      They are primarily responsible for helping the body's immune system

    • B. 

      They rebuild damaged tissue

    • C. 

      Helps increase blood flow and decrease inflammation

  • 52. 
    What white blood cell's primary purpose is to help with immune defense and rebuild damaged tissue? They also produce proteins for the body and antigens, which stimulate antibody production, and also phagocytize bacteria.
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Basophils

    • C. 

      Monocytes

  • 53. 
    What is an eosinophil?
    • A. 

      White blood cell that attack the infection before other white blood cells

    • B. 

      White blood cell that protects the body by killing and swallowing bacteria

    • C. 

      White blood cell that increases its numbers when the body has an infection, accumulating at the site of the infection

  • 54. 
    Which white blood cell accumulates at the site of infection and increases its numbers while discharging serotonins and histamines to help increase blood flow and decrease inflammation?
    • A. 

      Basophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Lymphocytes

  • 55. 
    Which type of immunity has a specific antibody and lympocyte response to an antigen?
    • A. 

      Innate immunity

    • B. 

      Acquired immunity

    • C. 

      Artificial immunity

  • 56. 
    Which immunity has defenses against any pathogen?
    • A. 

      Innate immunity

    • B. 

      Acquired immunity

    • C. 

      Artificial immunity

  • 57. 
    Which of the following describes natural, passive immunity?
    • A. 

      Recieving an injection of ready-made antibiotics

    • B. 

      Catching the flu at school, then producing antibodies and lymphocytes against the organism, so you won't get it again

    • C. 

      Antibodies passed down from mother to fetus via placenta or infant in the mothers milk

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is an example of artificial, active immunity?
    • A. 

      You are injected with a weakened form of the virus so your body will create antibodies

    • B. 

      You are injected with ready-made antibodies

    • C. 

      You catch the flu at school, and over time the body creates antibodies and lymphocytes against the organism

  • 59. 
    Which of the following describes artifical, passive immunity?
    • A. 

      Antibodies pass from the mother to fetus via placenta or to infant in mothers milk

    • B. 

      You are injected with a weakened form of the virus so your body will create antibodies

    • C. 

      You are injected with ready-made antibodies

  • 60. 
    What are the roles and characteristics of IgG?
    • A. 

      Long term immunity; memory antibodies;neutralizes toxins, opsonizes, fixes complement

    • B. 

      Secretory antibody; on mucous membranes

    • C. 

      Produced at first response to antigen; can serve as B-cell receptor

  • 61. 
    What are the roles and characteristics of IgA?
    • A. 

      Receptor on B cells

    • B. 

      Secretory antibody; on mucous membranes

    • C. 

      Antibody of allergy; worm infections

  • 62. 
    What are the roles and characteristics of IgM?
    • A. 

      Produced at first response to antigen; can serve as B-cell receptor

    • B. 

      Long term immunity; memory antibodies; neutralizes toxins; opsonizes, fixes complement

    • C. 

      Antibody of allergy; worm infections

  • 63. 
    What are the roles and characteristics of IgD?
    • A. 

      Secretory antibody; on mucous membranes

    • B. 

      Produced at first response to antigen, can serve as B-cell receptor

    • C. 

      Receptor on B cells

  • 64. 
    What are the roles and characteristics of IgE?
    • A. 

      Receptor on B cells

    • B. 

      Antibody of allergy; worm infections

    • C. 

      Long term immunity; memory antibodies; neutralizes toxins; opsonizes, fixes complement

  • 65. 
    What requires direct involvement of T lymphocytes through the course of the reaction?
    • A. 

      Cell mediated immunity

    • B. 

      Humoral immunity

  • 66. 
    What refers to the production and action of antibodies in response to the antigen and turns B cells into plasma cells and secretes antibodies?
    • A. 

      Cell mediated immunity

    • B. 

      Humoral immunity

  • 67. 
    What is exposing a person to material that is antigenic but not pathogenic?
    • A. 

      Vaccination

    • B. 

      Attenuated virus

    • C. 

      Toxoid

  • 68. 
    The Salk Polio vaccine and flu vaccine both include what?
    • A. 

      An attenuated virus

    • B. 

      A killed virus

    • C. 

      A toxoid

  • 69. 
    What is a toxin that has been rendered non-toxic but is still capable of eliciting the fromation or protective antitoxin antibodies and is used in vaccines?
    • A. 

      Pathogen

    • B. 

      Septicemia

    • C. 

      Toxoid

  • 70. 
    Which type of hypersensitivity is IgE meidated; involves mast cells, basophils, and allergic mediators?
    • A. 

      Type 3: immune complex mediated

    • B. 

      Type 4: T-cell mediated

    • C. 

      Type 1: immediate hypersensitivity

  • 71. 
    Which type of hypersensitivity involves antibody-mediated inflammations and has circulating IgG complexes deposited in basement membranes of target organs?
    • A. 

      Type 3: immune complex-mediated

    • B. 

      Type 4: T-cell mediated

    • C. 

      Type 2: antibody-mediated

  • 72. 
    Which type of hypersensitivity is delated hypersentivity and cytotoxic reactions in tissues?
    • A. 

      Type 1: immediate hypersensitvity

    • B. 

      Type 2: antibody-mediated

    • C. 

      Type 4: T-cell mediated

  • 73. 
    Which type of hypersensitivity includes IgG and IgM antibodies that act upon cells with complement and cause cell lysis?
    • A. 

      Type 1: immediate hypersensitivity

    • B. 

      Type 2: antibody-mediated

    • C. 

      Type 3: immune complex-mediated

  • 74. 
    What is the pathologic condition arising from the production of antibodies against autoantigens?
    • A. 

      Viral disease

    • B. 

      Autoimmune dieasee

    • C. 

      Systemic disease