Questions On Phlebotomy! Trivia Knowledge Test! Quiz

23 Questions | Total Attempts: 82

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Questions On Phlebotomy! Trivia Knowledge Test! Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Equipment needed to perform phlebotomy include:
    • A. 

      Tube, needle, gowns, and gloves.

    • B. 

      Tube, tube holder, gloves and mask.

    • C. 

      Tube, tube holder, needle, gloves, and cleansing agent.

    • D. 

      Tube, gloves, goggles, and tape.

  • 2. 
    The largest and best anchored vein to use for phlebotomy venipuncture is the:
    • A. 

      Cephalic vein

    • B. 

      Hand vein

    • C. 

      Median cubital vein

    • D. 

      Median vein

  • 3. 
    Potential complications of phlebotomy include:
    • A. 

      Syncope, hematoma, and cellulitis

    • B. 

      Petechaie, excessive bleeding and edema

    • C. 

      Hematoma, nerve trauma, and syncope

    • D. 

      Excessive bleeding, short draw, and tachycardia

  • 4. 
    List four technical problems that may result in a specimen being rejected:
  • 5. 
    Where should two nurses cross-check all identifying data relative to a blood transfusion before initiating the transfusion:
    • A. 

      At the patient's bedside.

    • B. 

      At the nursing station.

    • C. 

      In a quiet medication room.

    • D. 

      In the hallway adjacent to the patient's room.

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following statements applies to monitoring a blood transfusion:
    • A. 

      Obtain vital signs only before and after transfusion.

    • B. 

      Monitor the patient's vital signs at the end of the first hour and then periodically throughout the transfusion.

    • C. 

      It requires close observation at the patient's bedside during the initial 5 to 15 minutes of the transfusion.

    • D. 

      Once set, the rate of the transfusion does not have to be monitored because it will not fluctuate.

  • 7. 
    Which of the following tasks can the LPN perform in blood transfusion therapy?
    • A. 

      Obtain a unit from the blood bank, initiate the transfusion, and monitor during the transfusion.

    • B. 

      Cross-check identifying data before initiation, initiate the transfusion, and monitor during the transfusion.

    • C. 

      Obtain unit from blood bank, crosscheck identifying data before initiation, and initiate the transfusion.

    • D. 

      Obtain unit from blood bank, crosscheck identifying data with RN before initation, and monitor during the transfusion.

  • 8. 
    Oozing blood at the venipuncture site and at the surgical wound is characertistic of what adverse blood transfusion response?
    • A. 

      Acute hemolytic, urticarial reaction, and febrile.

    • B. 

      Acute hemolytic and hepatitis C.

    • C. 

      Anaphylactic, circulatory overload, and bacterial sepsis.

    • D. 

      Human T cell lymphotrophic virus, sepsis and urticaria.

  • 9. 
    Which one of the following transfusion reactions has a high propensity for causing chronic liver disease?
    • A. 

      Acute intravascular hemolytic reaction.

    • B. 

      Citrate toxicity.

    • C. 

      Hepatitis C virus.

    • D. 

      Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

  • 10. 
    The cause of an acute intravascular hemolytic reaction is:
    • A. 

      The administration of incompatible blood.

    • B. 

      The administration of blood containing HBV.

    • C. 

      Patient's sensitivty to plasma proteins.

    • D. 

      Patient's reaction to temperature of blood component.

  • 11. 
    What is the most frequently encountered type of adverse blood transfusion reaction?
    • A. 

      Anaphylactic reaction.

    • B. 

      Delayed hemolytic reaction.

    • C. 

      Febrile nonhemolytic reaction.

    • D. 

      Urticaria reaction.

  • 12. 
    A urticarial reaction is manifested by:
    • A. 

      Headache, erythema, and pruritis.

    • B. 

      Muscle pain, erythema and pruritis.

    • C. 

      Chills, erythema and pruritis.

    • D. 

      Hives, erythema and pruritis.

  • 13. 
    What delayed transfusion reaction do patients often incorrectly attribute to influenza?
    • A. 

      Delayed extravascular hemolytic reaction.

    • B. 

      Febrile nonhemolytic reaction.

    • C. 

      Viral hepatitis.

    • D. 

      Circulatory overload.

  • 14. 
    What conditions place patients at increased risk for a febrile reaction?
    • A. 

      Thrombocytopenia and chills

    • B. 

      Previous transfusion and multiple pregnancies.

    • C. 

      Chemotherapy administration and plasma donations.

    • D. 

      Hypotension and urticaria.

  • 15. 
    What immediate nursing intervention should be taken in response to an acute intravascular hemolytic reaction?
    • A. 

      Slow transfusion, notify blood bank, and notify physician.

    • B. 

      Administer antipyretics and antihistamines, continue transfusion.

    • C. 

      Stop transfusion and turn on NS side of the adminstration set.

    • D. 

      Stop transfusion, KVO with NS, disconnect administration set from cannula and initiate NS infusion with new tubing if a Y tubins is used.

  • 16. 
    The transfusion is often continued after the administration of an antihistamine for which type of reaction
    • A. 

      Citrate toxicity

    • B. 

      Nonhemolytic febrile reactions

    • C. 

      Urticarial reactions

    • D. 

      Bacterial sepsis

  • 17. 
    The most severe reaction caused by leukocyte antibodies is considered to be:
    • A. 

      Acute hemolytic reaction

    • B. 

      Citrate toxicity

    • C. 

      Urticaria

    • D. 

      Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema

  • 18. 
    Transfusion related fatalities must be reported to the:
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      JCAHO

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 19. 
    What are the two classifications of adverse reactions to a blood transfusion?
  • 20. 
    Which of the following adverse reactions are classified as an immumulogic immediate reaction?
    • A. 

      Acute hemolytic, urticarial reaction and febrile

    • B. 

      Acute hemolytic, and hepatitis C

    • C. 

      Anaphylactic, circulatory overload and bacterial sepsis

    • D. 

      Human T cell lymphotrophic virus, sepsis and urticaria

  • 21. 
    Volume-control sets are most frequently used to provide therapy to which intravenous therapy patient classification?
    • A. 

      Geriatric

    • B. 

      Oncology

    • C. 

      Pediatric

    • D. 

      Young adult

  • 22. 
    A bolume control set contains one of two types of filter design integral to the calibrated chamber.  What are these two available filters?
    • A. 

      0.22-m in line and 0.5 m in line

    • B. 

      Floating valve and membrane

    • C. 

      Membrane and 0.22 m in line

    • D. 

      0.5 in line and floating valve

  • 23. 
    When using a volume control set what is the most vital nursing consideration?
    • A. 

      Use only with adult patients at risk for fluid volume excess.

    • B. 

      Use only with older pediatric patients, never with infants.

    • C. 

      Document the brand of volume control set used.

    • D. 

      Follow the manufacturers instructions specific to the particular volume control set.