NCLEX: Nursing Exam Questions! Trivia Quiz
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- 1.
A living will must be signed by the principal in the presence of:
- A.
2 subscribing witnesses, 1 attorney
- B.
2 subscribing witnesses, 1 of who is neither spouse nor blood relative
- C.
3 subscribing witnesses, 1 attorney
- D.
3 subscribing witnesses, 1 of who is spouse or blood relative
Correct Answer
B. 2 subscribing witnesses, 1 of who is neither spouse nor blood relativeExplanation
A living will is a legal document that outlines an individual's healthcare preferences in the event that they become incapacitated and unable to communicate their wishes. In order to ensure the validity and authenticity of the living will, it must be signed by the principal (the person creating the living will) in the presence of witnesses. The correct answer states that the living will must be signed in the presence of 2 subscribing witnesses, 1 of whom is neither a spouse nor a blood relative. This requirement helps to prevent any potential conflicts of interest or bias that may arise if the witnesses have a personal relationship with the principal.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Persons employed as nursing assistants must be certified within ____ months of initial employment?
- A.
4 months
- B.
8 months
- C.
12 months
- D.
24 months
Correct Answer
A. 4 monthsExplanation
According to the given information, persons employed as nursing assistants must be certified within a certain period of time after their initial employment. The correct answer is 4 months, which means that nursing assistants are required to obtain their certification within 4 months of starting their job. This ensures that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively and safely.Rate this question:
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- 3.
All managers who are responsible for storage, preparation, display, and serving of foods to the public must have:
- A.
A certificate of training
- B.
An associate's degree
- C.
A bachelor's degree
- D.
Passed a written certification test
Correct Answer
D. Passed a written certification testExplanation
Managers who are responsible for handling food and serving it to the public are required to have a written certification test. This test ensures that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle food safely and maintain proper hygiene standards. While having a certificate of training, an associate's degree, or a bachelor's degree may be beneficial, the most important requirement is passing the written certification test.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A facility that has failed to comply with state minimum staffing requirements for 2 consecutive days is prohibited from accepting new admissions until the facility has achieved minimum staffing for:
- A.
2 consecutive days
- B.
4 consecutive days
- C.
6 consecutive days
- D.
8 consecutives days
Correct Answer
C. 6 consecutive daysExplanation
A facility that has failed to comply with state minimum staffing requirements for 2 consecutive days is prohibited from accepting new admissions until the facility has achieved minimum staffing for 6 consecutive days. This means that the facility must maintain the required minimum staffing levels for a continuous period of 6 days before it can start accepting new admissions again. This ensures that the facility is consistently meeting the staffing requirements and providing adequate care to its residents.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The Board of Nursing Home Administrators is composed of:
- A.
3 members
- B.
5 members
- C.
7 members
- D.
8 members
Correct Answer
C. 7 membersExplanation
The Board of Nursing Home Administrators is composed of 7 members. This composition allows for a diverse range of perspectives and expertise to be represented on the board. With 7 members, there is a greater likelihood of having a well-rounded and comprehensive understanding of the issues and challenges faced by nursing home administrators. This larger board size also allows for more effective decision-making and a broader pool of knowledge and experience to draw from when addressing matters related to nursing home administration.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The receiver shall do all of the following except:
- A.
Make provisions for the continued health, safety and welfare of all residents
- B.
Use the building fixtures, furnishings and any accompanying consumable goods in order to provide care and services
- C.
Collect payments for all goods and services provided to residents during the period of receivership
- D.
Pay the administrator's salary out of monies received
Correct Answer
D. Pay the administrator's salary out of monies receivedExplanation
The receiver is responsible for ensuring the health, safety, and welfare of all residents, using the building fixtures and furnishings to provide care and services, and collecting payments for goods and services provided. However, they are not responsible for paying the administrator's salary out of the received funds.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following statements are true regarding civil enforcement?
- A.
Any resident whose rights are violated shall have a cause of action
- B.
The action may be brought in any supreme court of competent jurisdiction
- C.
A licensee shall not be liable for the medical negligence of the medical director
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Any resident whose rights are violated shall have a cause of actionExplanation
Any resident whose rights are violated shall have a cause of action means that if a resident's rights are violated, they have the right to take legal action against the responsible party. This statement implies that residents have legal protections and recourse if their rights are infringed upon. It ensures that individuals are not left powerless in the face of rights violations and can seek justice through the legal system.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A resident has the right to:
- A.
Manage personal financial affairs
- B.
Have the facility manage personal funds
- C.
A quarterly accounting of any transaction made by the facility
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
A resident has the right to manage their personal financial affairs, which means they have control over their own money and can make decisions regarding its use. They also have the right to have the facility manage their personal funds if they choose to delegate this responsibility. Additionally, they have the right to receive a quarterly accounting of any transactions made by the facility, ensuring transparency and accountability. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above".Rate this question:
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- 9.
The Director of Nurses:
- A.
Must be a full-time registered nurse
- B.
May serve more than one facility at the same time
- C.
May serve as the administrator of the facility while serving as DON
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Must be a full-time registered nurseExplanation
The correct answer is that the Director of Nurses must be a full-time registered nurse. This means that the person in this role must hold a valid nursing license and work on a full-time basis. This requirement ensures that the Director of Nurses has the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to oversee and manage the nursing staff effectively. It also ensures that they can provide clinical expertise and guidance to the nursing team as needed.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Facilities shall submit staff to resident ratios to the agency:
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
C. SemiannuallyExplanation
Facilities are required to submit staff to resident ratios to the agency on a semiannual basis. This means that the facility needs to provide this information every six months. By doing so, the agency can monitor and assess the staffing levels in the facility to ensure that residents are being adequately cared for. This regular reporting allows for ongoing oversight and helps to maintain the quality of care provided to residents.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Minimum nursing care for a skilled child requires:
- A.
No more than 1 hour licensed; no less than 1.5 hours of non-licensed
- B.
No less than 1 hour licensed; no more than 1.5 hours of non-licensed
- C.
No more than 1.5 hours licensed; no less than 1.0 hours of non-licensed
- D.
No less than 1.5 hours licensed; no more than 1.0 hours of non-licensed
Correct Answer
B. No less than 1 hour licensed; no more than 1.5 hours of non-licensedExplanation
The correct answer is "no less than 1 hour licensed; no more than 1.5 hours of non-licensed." This means that the minimum nursing care for a skilled child requires at least 1 hour of licensed care and no more than 1.5 hours of non-licensed care. This ensures that the child receives the necessary professional medical attention while also allowing for some non-licensed care, which may include activities such as personal care or companionship.Rate this question:
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- 12.
An Assistant Director of Nursing is required when:
- A.
The DON is also the Administrator
- B.
The DON is on a vacation
- C.
The facility has a census of 120 or more residents
- D.
The facility has a census of 121 or more residents
Correct Answer
D. The facility has a census of 121 or more residentsExplanation
An Assistant Director of Nursing is required when the facility has a census of 121 or more residents. This means that when the number of residents in the facility reaches 121 or more, an additional Assistant Director of Nursing is needed to help manage the increased workload and ensure quality care for all residents.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The agency may petition the court when the licensee cannot meet its financial obligation to provide food, shelter, care, and utilities for the appointment as:
- A.
Governor
- B.
Receiver
- C.
Receiver general
- D.
Guardian
Correct Answer
B. ReceiverExplanation
When a licensee is unable to fulfill their financial obligations to provide basic necessities such as food, shelter, care, and utilities, the agency can petition the court to appoint a receiver. A receiver is a person or entity appointed by the court to take control of the licensee's assets and finances in order to ensure that these obligations are met. This appointment allows the receiver to manage the licensee's affairs and make necessary arrangements to provide the required support.Rate this question:
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- 14.
In a facility that admits children age 0 through 15 years, the facility may not accommodate more than:
- A.
40 children this age at any given time
- B.
40 children at any given time
- C.
60 children at any given time
- D.
A and c
Correct Answer
D. A and cExplanation
The correct answer is "a and c" because the facility may not accommodate more than 40 children of age 0 through 15 years at any given time. This means that the maximum number of children that can be admitted is 40, regardless of their specific age within the 0-15 range. Therefore, options a and c are both correct as they state the same limitation.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The agency shall not issue a license to a nursing home that fails to receive:
- A.
A letter of intent from the district
- B.
Three acres of land
- C.
20 nursing assistants to care for patients
- D.
A certificate of need
Correct Answer
D. A certificate of needExplanation
A certificate of need is a requirement that must be met in order for a nursing home to receive a license from the agency. This certificate ensures that there is a demonstrated need for the nursing home in the area and that it meets certain quality standards. Without this certificate, the agency cannot issue a license to the nursing home.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Each license holder shall complete:
- A.
20 hours of continuing education
- B.
30 hours of continuing education
- C.
40 hours of continuing education
- D.
60 hours of continuing education
Correct Answer
C. 40 hours of continuing education -
- 17.
The agency mandates every licensed facility comply with all of the following except:
- A.
Keep full records of resident admissions and discharges
- B.
Have available regular, consultative, and emergency services of physicians licensed by the State
- C.
Include the patient's family in the geriatric outpatient clinic
- D.
Provide for the access of dental and other health-related services
Correct Answer
C. Include the patient's family in the geriatric outpatient clinicExplanation
The correct answer is "include the patient's family in the geriatric outpatient clinic." This is because the agency mandates every licensed facility to comply with keeping full records of resident admissions and discharges, having available regular, consultative, and emergency services of physicians licensed by the State, and providing access to dental and other health-related services. However, there is no requirement to include the patient's family in the geriatric outpatient clinic.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Upon completion of a resident assessment, the resident care plan must be completed within:
- A.
3 days
- B.
5 days
- C.
7 days
- D.
14 days
Correct Answer
C. 7 daysExplanation
Upon completion of a resident assessment, the resident care plan must be completed within 7 days. This timeframe allows for the necessary evaluation and analysis of the assessment data to develop an appropriate care plan that meets the resident's individual needs. Completing the care plan within this timeframe ensures that the resident receives timely and effective care, addressing their specific requirements and goals. Waiting longer than 7 days may delay the implementation of necessary interventions and hinder the resident's well-being.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Residents with communicable diseases will not be admitted to a nursing home unless:
- A.
Family members agree to pay a higher fee for a private room
- B.
A physician certifies in writing that adequate infection control measures are being taken
- C.
The CDC is notified first and agrees to placement in the facility
- D.
The resident is actively being treated for the communicable disease by the local Health Department
Correct Answer
B. A physician certifies in writing that adequate infection control measures are being takenExplanation
The correct answer is that a physician certifies in writing that adequate infection control measures are being taken. This means that before admitting a resident with a communicable disease to a nursing home, a physician must provide written certification that the necessary precautions and protocols are in place to prevent the spread of the disease within the facility. This ensures the safety and well-being of other residents and staff members.Rate this question:
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- 20.
An administrator will:
- A.
Be board certified
- B.
Be designated by the owner of the facility
- C.
Be responsible and accountable for the day to day operation of the facility
- D.
A and c
Correct Answer
C. Be responsible and accountable for the day to day operation of the facilityExplanation
The correct answer is "be responsible and accountable for the day to day operation of the facility." This means that the administrator is in charge of managing the facility on a daily basis, ensuring that everything runs smoothly and efficiently. They are responsible for making decisions, overseeing staff, and ensuring that the facility meets regulatory requirements. Being accountable means that they are held responsible for the outcomes and performance of the facility.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A written report of a fire must be reported to the local fire department within:
- A.
2 days
- B.
7 days
- C.
10 days
- D.
14 days
Correct Answer
C. 10 daysExplanation
A written report of a fire must be reported to the local fire department within 10 days. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for individuals to gather all the necessary information and complete the report accurately. Reporting the fire promptly ensures that the fire department can assess the situation, investigate the cause of the fire, and take any necessary actions to prevent future incidents or provide assistance to those affected by the fire.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Neglect can be described as:
- A.
Repeated conduct of carelessness
- B.
Single incident of carelessness
- C.
Both a and b
- D.
Neither a or b
Correct Answer
C. Both a and bExplanation
Neglect can be described as both repeated conduct of carelessness and a single incident of carelessness. This means that neglect can occur either as a pattern of repeated carelessness or as a one-time occurrence of carelessness. Both options, "a" and "b", accurately describe the concept of neglect.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many physicians are required to determine a patient's terminal condition?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Two physicians are required to determine a patient's terminal condition. This is because having two physicians ensures a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, as they can consult with each other and provide a second opinion. Additionally, having multiple physicians involved reduces the chances of bias or error in the diagnosis, as different perspectives and expertise are taken into account.Rate this question:
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- 24.
All of the following statements are true except:
- A.
Single service articles must be made from clean, sanitary, safe materials
- B.
Wood may be used for chopsticks, stirrers or ice cream spoons
- C.
Oak may be used for cutting boards, cutting blocks, baker's tables, rolling pins and salad bowls
- D.
Mollusk and crustacean shells may only be used once
Correct Answer
C. Oak may be used for cutting boards, cutting blocks, baker's tables, rolling pins and salad bowlsExplanation
The given correct answer is "Oak may be used for cutting boards, cutting blocks, baker's tables, rolling pins and salad bowls." This statement is not true because oak is not an appropriate material for making cutting boards, cutting blocks, or salad bowls. Oak is a porous wood that can absorb moisture and bacteria, making it unsanitary and unsafe for food preparation. It is also not recommended for rolling pins as it can easily crack or split. Therefore, oak should not be used for these purposes in a food service setting.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A preliminary nursing assessment to include medical orders shall be completed:
- A.
Upon admission to the facility
- B.
Within 2 days or 48 hours after admission to the facility
- C.
Within 3 days or 72 hours after admission to the facility
- D.
Within 4 days or 96 hours after admission to the facility
Correct Answer
A. Upon admission to the facilityExplanation
A preliminary nursing assessment to include medical orders should be completed upon admission to the facility. This means that as soon as a patient is admitted to the facility, a nursing assessment should be conducted, which includes gathering information about the patient's medical orders. This assessment is crucial for providing appropriate care and ensuring that the patient's medical needs are met from the very beginning of their stay at the facility.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A physician may serve as Medical Director for a maximum of how many nursing homes at any one time?
- A.
4
- B.
6
- C.
8
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10Explanation
A physician may serve as Medical Director for a maximum of 10 nursing homes at any one time. This limit ensures that the physician can effectively oversee and provide medical guidance to each nursing home, without being overwhelmed by the workload. By capping the number at 10, it also helps to ensure that the physician can devote enough time and attention to each facility, ensuring the best possible care for the residents.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A petition for receivership shall have a hearing within _______ of the filing of the petition.
- A.
5 days
- B.
1 month
- C.
60 days
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 5 daysExplanation
A petition for receivership is a legal request to appoint a receiver to manage and administer the assets of a company or individual. In this case, the correct answer is "5 days." This means that once the petition is filed, a hearing must be scheduled within 5 days to review the request and determine if a receiver should be appointed. This timeframe ensures that the matter is addressed promptly and allows for timely resolution of the situation at hand.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Floor mounted equipment shall be installed on raised platforms or elevated on legs or feet at least:
- A.
4 inches from the floor
- B.
6 inches from the floor
- C.
8 inches from the floor
- D.
9 inches from the floor
Correct Answer
B. 6 inches from the floorExplanation
Floor mounted equipment should be installed at least 6 inches from the floor. This is to ensure proper ventilation and prevent any damage or interference from moisture, dirt, or debris on the floor. Elevating the equipment also makes it easier to access for maintenance and cleaning purposes. Additionally, having the equipment elevated can help prevent any potential damage from spills or flooding on the floor.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The sole purpose for the resident protection trust fund is:
- A.
To pay for appropriate alternate resident placement, care, and treatment
- B.
To pay the salaries of employees
- C.
To repair the buildings when needed
- D.
To pay for resident retirement and housing
Correct Answer
A. To pay for appropriate alternate resident placement, care, and treatmentExplanation
The correct answer is to pay for appropriate alternate resident placement, care, and treatment. The resident protection trust fund is specifically established to provide financial support for residents who may need to be relocated to another facility or require additional care and treatment. It ensures that the necessary resources are available to meet the needs of residents and ensure their well-being.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is the responsibility of the administrator?
- A.
Properly use and dispose of a resident's property
- B.
Act as guardian for any resident
- C.
Provide a resident with a complete statement of all funds quarterly
- D.
Keep a resident's money in the facility business account for safekeeping
Correct Answer
C. Provide a resident with a complete statement of all funds quarterlyExplanation
The administrator is responsible for providing a resident with a complete statement of all funds quarterly. This means that they are required to give the resident a detailed report of all the financial transactions and funds related to the resident's account within the facility. This ensures transparency and accountability in managing the resident's finances and allows the resident to stay informed about their financial situation.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Sanitizers and cleaning compounds:
- A.
Can leave a slight residue on surfaces
- B.
Can be stored with other toxic materials such as insecticides
- C.
Shall have a distinct lable for easy identification
- D.
Must be stored 8 feet from the floor
Correct Answer
C. Shall have a distinct lable for easy identificationExplanation
Sanitizers and cleaning compounds should have a distinct label for easy identification. This is important because it allows users to quickly and easily identify the contents of the product, ensuring that it is used correctly and safely. A clear label also helps to prevent any confusion or accidents that may occur if the product is misused or mixed up with other substances. By having a distinct label, users can easily identify the sanitizer or cleaning compound and take appropriate precautions when handling or using it.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The cooling period for potentially hazardous foods of large volume should not exceed:
- A.
2 hours
- B.
3 hours
- C.
4 hours
- D.
5 hours
Correct Answer
C. 4 hoursExplanation
The correct answer is 4 hours. This is because potentially hazardous foods of large volume take longer to cool down compared to smaller portions. Cooling these foods within 4 hours ensures that they reach safe temperatures quickly, preventing the growth of bacteria and reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. Exceeding this time limit may allow bacteria to multiply, increasing the likelihood of food contamination.Rate this question:
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- 33.
All of the following statements are true except:
- A.
Solid cut uncovered meats can be hung on clean sanitized hooks as long as food is not stored underneath
- B.
Steam tables and warmers can be used to rapidly reheat even potentially hazardous food
- C.
Container covers for storing food must be impervious and nonabsorbent
- D.
Linens and napkins can be used to line or cover bread or roll containers
Correct Answer
B. Steam tables and warmers can be used to rapidly reheat even potentially hazardous foodExplanation
The correct answer is "steam tables and warmers can be used to rapidly reheat even potentially hazardous food." This statement is not true because steam tables and warmers should not be used to rapidly reheat potentially hazardous food. Potentially hazardous foods should be reheated rapidly to an internal temperature of 165°F (74°C) within 2 hours, and steam tables and warmers are not designed to rapidly heat food to this temperature.Rate this question:
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- 34.
How many physicians are required to determine a patient's capacity?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
One physician is required to determine a patient's capacity. This suggests that the determination of a patient's capacity can be done by a single physician without the need for additional input or consultation from other medical professionals.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Advance directives:
- A.
Will be provided within 48 hours of admission
- B.
Will be provided at the time of admission
- C.
Will be provided only with a physician's medical order
- D.
Will be documented and kept in a locked area
Correct Answer
B. Will be provided at the time of admissionExplanation
The correct answer is "will be provided at the time of admission". This means that advance directives, which are legal documents that outline a person's preferences for medical treatment in case they become unable to communicate their wishes, will be given to the patient upon their admission to a healthcare facility. This ensures that the patient's wishes are known and can be followed by healthcare providers.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Each nursing home resident:
- A.
Must be seen by a physician only once every year unless hospitalized
- B.
Must be seen by a physician at least once a month for the first 3 months after admission
- C.
Must be seen by a physician at least once every 30 days for the first 60 days after admission
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Must be seen by a physician at least once a month for the first 3 months after admissionExplanation
According to the given options, the correct answer is "must be seen by a physician at least once a month for the first 3 months after admission". This means that every nursing home resident needs to have a physician visit at least once a month during the initial 3 months after being admitted to the nursing home. This ensures that their health is monitored closely during the early stages of their stay.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The Statue of Limitations forbids the filing of an administrative complaint after:
- A.
3 years
- B.
4 years
- C.
5 years
- D.
6 years
Correct Answer
B. 4 yearsExplanation
The correct answer is 4 years because the Statue of Limitations sets a time limit for filing administrative complaints. After this time limit, individuals are no longer allowed to file a complaint. In this case, the time limit is 4 years, meaning that any administrative complaint must be filed within 4 years of the incident in question.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The bed reservation policy for private pay mandates a bed held for:
- A.
15 days
- B.
30 days
- C.
45 days
- D.
60 days
Correct Answer
B. 30 daysExplanation
The bed reservation policy for private pay mandates that a bed is held for 30 days. This means that if a private pay patient requests a bed reservation, the hospital will reserve the bed for them for a period of 30 days. This policy ensures that the patient has a guaranteed bed available for their use for a reasonable amount of time.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following statements are true?
- A.
A separate health care surrogate must be designated regarding mental health treatment
- B.
A separate health care surrogate may be designated to make mental health treatment decisions
- C.
The court shall not assume that the health care surrogate authorized to make health care decisions can also make decisions regarding mental health treatment
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. A separate health care surrogate may be designated to make mental health treatment decisionsExplanation
A separate health care surrogate may be designated to make mental health treatment decisions. This means that it is possible for someone to appoint a specific person to make decisions regarding their mental health treatment, separate from the person who has been designated as their general health care surrogate. This allows individuals to have more control over their mental health care decisions and ensures that someone who understands their specific needs and preferences is making those decisions on their behalf.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A dietary services supervisor:
- A.
Must be a qualfied dietician
- B.
May not prepare food if a facility has 60 residents
- C.
Must keep a 10 day supply of non-perishable food on hand
- D.
Must be full time
Correct Answer
D. Must be full timeExplanation
The correct answer is "must be full time". This means that a dietary services supervisor is required to work on a full-time basis. This implies that part-time or temporary positions are not suitable for this role. The job responsibilities and requirements of a dietary services supervisor necessitate their presence and availability on a full-time basis to effectively manage and oversee the dietary services in a facility.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Each nursing home facility will have policies and procedures that govern resident care. These policies will be:
- A.
Developed and maintained by the Medical Director, DON and the Administrator
- B.
Reviewed annually
- C.
Limited to patient rights and advanced directives
- D.
A and b
Correct Answer
D. A and bExplanation
The correct answer is "a and b." Each nursing home facility will have policies and procedures that govern resident care, which are developed and maintained by the Medical Director, DON, and the Administrator. These policies are also reviewed annually to ensure they are up to date and effective. Additionally, the policies are not limited to patient rights and advanced directives; they cover a wide range of aspects related to resident care.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Fire prevention, protection, and life safety practices are the responsibility of the:
- A.
Resident
- B.
Administrator
- C.
Housekeeping supervisor
- D.
DON
Correct Answer
B. AdministratorExplanation
The correct answer is Administrator because they are responsible for overseeing and implementing fire prevention, protection, and life safety practices in a facility. They are in charge of ensuring that all necessary measures are in place to prevent fires, such as regular inspections, maintenance of fire safety equipment, and staff training. They also develop and enforce fire safety policies and procedures to protect the residents and staff in case of a fire emergency. Additionally, the Administrator works closely with local fire departments and authorities to ensure compliance with fire safety regulations.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A written document designating a surrogate to make health care decisions for a principal shall be signed by the principal in the presence of _____ subscribing adult witness/witnesses.
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
In order for a written document designating a surrogate to make health care decisions for a principal to be valid, it must be signed by the principal in the presence of two subscribing adult witnesses. The presence of two witnesses ensures that the document is properly executed and provides additional evidence of the principal's intent to designate a surrogate. Having only one witness may not be sufficient to validate the document, while having three or four witnesses is not necessary and may be excessive. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Roast beef shall be cooked to an internal temperature of _____ degrees for 121 minutes.
- A.
110 degrees F
- B.
120 degrees F
- C.
130 degrees F
- D.
140 degrees F
Correct Answer
C. 130 degrees FExplanation
Roast beef should be cooked to an internal temperature of 130 degrees F for 121 minutes. This temperature ensures that the meat is cooked thoroughly and reaches a safe internal temperature to kill any harmful bacteria. Cooking at this temperature for the specified time will also result in a tender and juicy roast beef.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The Resident Protection Trust Fund will not exceed:
- A.
$500,000
- B.
$1,000,000
- C.
$2,000,000
- D.
$5,000,000
Correct Answer
C. $2,000,000Explanation
The correct answer is $2,000,000. This means that the Resident Protection Trust Fund has a maximum limit of $2,000,000. It cannot exceed this amount.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Facilities used for the storage of potentially hazardous food must be provided with all of the following except: Facilities used for the storage of potentially hazardous food must be provided with all of the following except:
- A.
Conveniently located sinks with running water and waste disposal units
- B.
A 4-compartment sink when kitchenware and equipment are washed and sanitized by hand
- C.
Drain boards that slope to the sink
- D.
A 2-compartment sink when kitchenware and equipment do not require sanitation
Correct Answer
B. A 4-compartment sink when kitchenware and equipment are washed and sanitized by handExplanation
Facilities used for the storage of potentially hazardous food must have conveniently located sinks with running water and waste disposal units, drain boards that slope to the sink, and a 2-compartment sink when kitchenware and equipment do not require sanitation. However, a 4-compartment sink is not necessary when kitchenware and equipment are washed and sanitized by hand.Rate this question:
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- 47.
How many hours must an AIT serve between the hours of 10 pm and 7 am in one year?
- A.
Minimum of 10, maximum of 120
- B.
Minimum of 20, maximum of 130
- C.
Minimum of 40, maximum of 160
- D.
Minimum of 60, maximum of 180
Correct Answer
C. Minimum of 40, maximum of 160Explanation
An AIT must serve a minimum of 40 hours and a maximum of 160 hours between the hours of 10 pm and 7 am in one year. This means that the AIT must work at least 40 hours during this time period but cannot exceed 160 hours.Rate this question:
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