Sfj Vol. 4
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- 1.
(601) What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?
- A.
ID Threat Risk.
- B.
ID Principles of Risk.
- C.
ID Risk Management.
- D.
ID Principles of Critical.
Correct Answer
C. ID Risk Management. -
- 2.
(602) The First step in risk analysis is asset
- A.
Risk assessment
- B.
Threat assessment
- C.
Criticality assessment
- D.
Vulnerability assessment
Correct Answer
C. Criticality assessment -
- 3.
(602) Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?
- A.
Staff judge advocate
- B.
Installation Commander
- C.
Defense Force commander
- D.
AFOSI
Correct Answer
A. Staff judge advocate -
- 4.
(604) Through which agency will BDOC up channel covered wagon reportable incidents?
- A.
Site Security control
- B.
Security Forces
- C.
Higher Headquarters
- D.
Installation Command Post
Correct Answer
D. Installation Command Post -
- 5.
(604) The Jettisoning of nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon
- A.
Accident
- B.
Incident
- C.
Mistake
- D.
Mishap
Correct Answer
A. Accident -
- 6.
(605) What does the color code yellow indicate when calling LACE report?
- A.
Less than 33 percent
- B.
Less than 66 percent
- C.
Greater than 33 percent
- D.
Greater than 66 percent
Correct Answer
C. Greater than 33 percent -
- 7.
(606) Personal assigned to the priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 4 -
- 8.
(606) Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- A.
2.
- B.
4.
- C.
12.
- D.
24.
Correct Answer
D. 24. -
- 9.
(607) who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan?
- A.
Staff Judge Advocate
- B.
Installation Commander
- C.
Defense Force Commander
- D.
AFOSI
Correct Answer
B. Installation Commander -
- 10.
(607) Who determines what post are not staffed during funding or personal shortages?
- A.
Flight Chief
- B.
Operations Officer
- C.
Flight Commander
- D.
Defense Force Commander
Correct Answer
D. Defense Force Commander -
- 11.
(608) how many days are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
A. 5 -
- 12.
(609) Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
- A.
Standoff
- B.
Penetration
- C.
Chemical biological
- D.
Information operation
Correct Answer
B. Penetration -
- 13.
(611) Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
- A.
Department of State.
- B.
Department of Justice.
- C.
Department of Defense.
- D.
Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Correct Answer
A. Department of State. -
- 14.
(610) Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?
- A.
Department of state
- B.
Department of justice
- C.
DOD
- D.
FBI
Correct Answer
B. Department of justice -
- 15.
(611) what type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorist by providing money intelligence legal or medical services?
- A.
Passive supporter
- B.
Active supporter
- C.
Hardcore leadership
- D.
Active operational cadre
Correct Answer
B. Active supporter -
- 16.
(612) What threat level assessment indicates anti US terrorist are operationally active and use large causality producing attacks as preferred method of operation
- A.
Significant
- B.
Moderate
- C.
High
- D.
Low
Correct Answer
C. High -
- 17.
(612) what terrorist threat level factor focuses in the attack method use by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?
- A.
Activity
- B.
Intentions
- C.
Operation capability
- D.
Operational environment
Correct Answer
C. Operation capability -
- 18.
(613) what threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostiles or a rise in hostilities?
- A.
Threat Level I
- B.
Threat Level II
- C.
Threat Level III
- D.
Threat Level IV
Correct Answer
A. Threat Level I -
- 19.
(613) What Threat Level consists of guerrilla forces unconventional warfare forces or small tactical units?
- A.
Threat Level I
- B.
Threat Level II
- C.
In small bands.
- D.
During the hours of darkness.
Correct Answer
B. Threat Level II -
- 20.
(614) What desired effect is achieved with lighting intrusion dection systems early warning systems and closed circuit television?
- A.
Anticipate
- B.
Deter
- C.
Detect
- D.
Warn
Correct Answer
C. Detect -
- 21.
(614) What desired effect is achieved through threat and effects based planning that intergrate all friendly forces into a single comprehensive plan ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming use of force?
- A.
Warn
- B.
Defeat
- C.
Delay
- D.
Defend
Correct Answer
D. Defend -
- 22.
(615) How many random antiterriost measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. Three -
- 23.
(616) How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?
- A.
Less than one century
- B.
Less than two centries
- C.
Within the last 50 years
- D.
More than two centries
Correct Answer
D. More than two centries -
- 24.
(616) What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs nuances of local leaders local culture and terrain?
- A.
Insurgency picture
- B.
Counterinsurency picture
- C.
Common operating picture
- D.
Operational environment picture
Correct Answer
C. Common operating picture -
- 25.
(617) what will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?
- A.
Bribery
- B.
Coercion
- C.
Persuasion
- D.
Encouragement
Correct Answer
B. Coercion -
- 26.
(618) what type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
- A.
Multinational corporation
- B.
Governmental organization
- C.
Host nation security council
- D.
Intergovernmental organization
Correct Answer
D. Intergovernmental organization -
- 27.
(618) Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?
- A.
United Nations
- B.
World Health Organization
- C.
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
- D.
International Refugee Organizaton
Correct Answer
A. United Nations -
- 28.
(619) To avoid adverse effect on operations commanders should adress all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US
- A.
Senators
- B.
Governors
- C.
Ambassador
- D.
Congressman
Correct Answer
C. Ambassador -
- 29.
(619) Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings,and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
- A.
Terrain issues
- B.
Logistical issues
- C.
Sovereignty issues
- D.
Transportation issues
Correct Answer
C. Sovereignty issues -
- 30.
(619) If countries do not use the English alphabet a combatant command wide standard for spelling names should be set by the
- A.
Defense force commander
- B.
Non-dod agencies
- C.
Local commander
- D.
Dod agencies
Correct Answer
B. Non-dod agencies -
- 31.
(620) Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?
- A.
Sniper
- B.
Riflemen
- C.
Grenadier
- D.
Crew served weapons operator
Correct Answer
D. Crew served weapons operator -
- 32.
(621) What illusion does the ground sloping method of range determination give to the observer?
- A.
Greater distance
- B.
Shorter distance
- C.
Equal Distance
- D.
Real distance
Correct Answer
A. Greater distance -
- 33.
(622) Based on the terrain, vegetation and visibility leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
- A.
500 meters
- B.
400 meters
- C.
300 meters
- D.
200 meters
Correct Answer
B. 400 meters -
- 34.
(623) which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?
- A.
Flight
- B.
Squadron
- C.
Command post
- D.
BDOC
Correct Answer
D. BDOC -
- 35.
(623) What type of fire control measures do security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders
- A.
Direct
- B.
Indirect
- C.
Sustained
- D.
Suppressive
Correct Answer
A. Direct -
- 36.
(623) what is the most common means of giving fire commands
- A.
Sounds
- B.
Visual signals
- C.
Airman initiated
- D.
Radio communications
Correct Answer
B. Visual signals -
- 37.
(624) what is the first course of action when caught in a assault
- A.
Throw hand grenade
- B.
Look for enemy and return fire
- C.
Immediately return fire and assault enemy
- D.
Immediately return fire and take a covered postion
Correct Answer
D. Immediately return fire and take a covered postion -
- 38.
(625) machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the
- A.
Secondary sector from farthest to closet
- B.
Secondary sector from closet the farthest .
- C.
Primary sector from closet to farthest
- D.
Primary sector from farthest to closet
Correct Answer
D. Primary sector from farthest to closet -
- 39.
(626) which target indicator is among most difficult for enemy to avoid?
- A.
Sound
- B.
Movement
- C.
Regularity of outline
- D.
Contrast with the background
Correct Answer
D. Contrast with the background -
- 40.
(626) when marking targets the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is a
- A.
Spacing
- B.
Aiming point
- C.
Reference point
- D.
Range determination
Correct Answer
B. Aiming point -
- 41.
(627) the level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon level of
- A.
Air
- B.
Light
- C.
Terrain
- D.
Atmospheric pressure
Correct Answer
B. Light -
- 42.
(627) on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular
- A.
Compass
- B.
Tethering cord
- C.
De mist shield
- D.
Sacrificial window
Correct Answer
A. Compass -
- 43.
(628) how should pre-combat inspections be tailored
- A.
Location
- B.
Weather conditions
- C.
Number of personnel assigned
- D.
Specific unit and mission requirements
Correct Answer
D. Specific unit and mission requirements -
- 44.
(628) when should security forces perform checks of individual issued items?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Bi monthly
- D.
Monthly
Correct Answer
A. Daily -
- 45.
(629) in tactical deployment situations what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique
- A.
Roll
- B.
High crawl
- C.
Low crawl
- D.
Spider crawl
Correct Answer
B. High crawl -
- 46.
(630) selection of team movement techniques is based on
- A.
The ability of team leader to control the team
- B.
Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
- C.
Patrol objectives
- D.
The enemy threat
Correct Answer
B. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed -
- 47.
(630) which fire team movement is the primary formation used by fire team
- A.
File
- B.
Wedge
- C.
Bounding
- D.
Traveling
Correct Answer
B. Wedge -
- 48.
(631) when is the bounding overwatch movement technique used
- A.
When speed is essiental
- B.
When enemy contact is expected
- C.
When enemy contact is not expected
- D.
During dense vegatation
Correct Answer
B. When enemy contact is expected -
- 49.
(631)during bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the overmatching team
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
Correct Answer
C. 150 -
- 50.
(632) which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely
- A.
Traveling
- B.
Wedge
- C.
Traveling overwatch
- D.
Bounding overwatch
Correct Answer
A. Traveling -
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Aug 06, 2017Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Dec 03, 2015Quiz Created by
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