Security Force Volume 2

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Security Force Volume 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

     Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to

    • A.

      Enhance our role and understanding of the model

    • B.

      Create a better visual effect of the model

    • C.

      Support force awareness

    • D.

      Minimize mistakes

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhance our role and understanding of the model
    Explanation
    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to enhance our role and understanding of the model. By using different colors to represent different levels of force, it becomes easier for individuals to comprehend and remember the model. The use of color helps to visually differentiate between the various stages of force, making it more effective in training and decision-making processes. It also aids in communication and promotes a better understanding of the model's concepts and principles.

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  • 2. 

    You attempted to convince a solicitor in the base housing area to leave, which met with verbal and physical resistance. The solicitor lunges forward and violently attempts to take your weapon shouting, “I’ll kill you.” What subject action level in the Use of Force Model (UFM) is used?

    • A.

      Complaint

    • B.

      Resistant (passive)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

    Correct Answer
    D. Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)
    Explanation
    The subject's action of lunging forward and violently attempting to take the person's weapon while shouting "I'll kill you" indicates a clear intent to cause serious bodily harm or death. This level of aggression and threat escalates the situation to the highest level of the Use of Force Model, which is Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death).

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  • 3. 

    What are the mechanical, physical or mental resources you have to promote or gain compliance called?

    • A.

      Tools

    • B.

      Tactics

    • C.

      Timing

    • D.

      Techniques

    Correct Answer
    A. Tools
    Explanation
    The mechanical, physical or mental resources that are used to promote or gain compliance are called "tools". These tools can include various strategies, methods, or instruments that are utilized to influence or persuade others to comply with certain requests or actions. They can be tangible objects, such as technology or equipment, as well as intangible resources, such as knowledge or skills, that are employed to achieve the desired outcome.

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  • 4. 

    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • A.

      Recovery of nuclear weapons

    • B.

      Keep someone from breaking into a house

    • C.

      Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    • D.

      Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    Correct Answer
    B. Keep someone from breaking into a house
    Explanation
    Using deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a house would not be authorized because it does not involve protecting oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm. Deadly force should only be used as a last resort when there is an immediate threat to life or safety. In the given situation, there is no indication of any imminent danger to life, making the use of deadly force unnecessary and unauthorized.

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  • 5. 

    You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M4 rifle at “port arms,” a round in the chamber, safety selector on

    • A.

      “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • B.

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • C.

      “SAFE,” and the finger in the trigger guard

    • D.

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    Correct Answer
    A. “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is "SAFE," and the finger not in the trigger guard. This is because when encountering an armed adversary, it is important to have the rifle in a safe position to prevent accidental discharge. Keeping the safety selector on "SAFE" ensures that the rifle is not ready to fire, and keeping the finger outside the trigger guard further reduces the risk of unintentional firing. This allows the individual to maintain control over the situation and only engage the adversary when necessary.

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  • 6. 

    You should respond to an actual incident with your M9 pistol where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M9 in its holster, with the flap open

    • A.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated backward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger in the trigger guard

    • B.

      sentry lock engaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard

    • C.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer cocked, and finger in the trigger guard

    • D.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard

    Correct Answer
    D. Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is "sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard." This is the safest position for responding to an actual incident with the M9 pistol. The sentry lock should be disengaged to allow for quick access to the weapon, and the hood should be rotated forward to protect the weapon from debris or accidental discharge. The shooting hand should be on the pistol grip for control and stability, while the hammer should not be cocked to prevent accidental firing. Additionally, the finger should be kept outside the trigger guard to avoid unintentional pulling of the trigger.

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  • 7. 

    What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge?

    • A.

      Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise

    • B.

      Leave headlights on, step out of the vehicle, and assume the prone position

    • C.

      Turn off headlights, set the parking brake, and turn on dome light

    • D.

      Leave engine running, and place hands on dash board palms up

    Correct Answer
    A. Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise. This is likely the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge for safety and security reasons. By placing their hands on the headliner, they are ensuring that they do not have access to any weapons or can make any sudden movements that could potentially pose a threat. It also allows the authorities to have better control of the situation and assess any potential risks before proceeding further.

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  • 8. 

    You prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs by

    • A.

      locking both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect

    • B.

      Applying the handcuffs very tightly to restrict movement

    • C.

      Looping the cuffs through the front of the belt below the small of the back

    • D.

      looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back

    Correct Answer
    D. looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back
    Explanation
    Looping the handcuffs through the belt below the small of the back prevents the suspect from stepping through the handcuffs because it restricts the movement of their hands. By securing the cuffs to the belt, it creates an additional barrier that makes it difficult for the suspect to manipulate their hands and escape from the restraints. This technique adds an extra level of security and helps to ensure that the suspect remains securely handcuffed.

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  • 9. 

     For quickness, when conducting a search of an individual it should be

    • A.

      complete and simple

    • B.

      Systematic and simple

    • C.

      Complete and thorough

    • D.

      Systematic and thorough

    Correct Answer
    D. Systematic and thorough
    Explanation
    When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic means following a logical and organized approach, ensuring that all relevant information is considered and no important details are missed. Being thorough means conducting a comprehensive and detailed search, leaving no stone unturned. By being systematic and thorough, one can ensure that all necessary information is gathered and analyzed effectively, leading to accurate and reliable results.

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  • 10. 

    What type of search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions?

    • A.

      Wall

    • B.

      Prone

    • C.

      Standing

    • D.

      Kneeling

    Correct Answer
    B. Prone
    Explanation
    Prone is the best type of search for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions because it provides the lowest profile and offers the most cover and concealment. Being in a prone position allows the searcher to have a better view of the surroundings and provides stability for accurate shooting if necessary. It also minimizes the target area and reduces the risk of being detected or targeted by the potential threats.

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  • 11. 

    In which portion of the Use of Force Model phase can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART)?

    • A.

      Resistant (passive)

    • B.

      Resistant (active)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

    Correct Answer
    B. Resistant (active)
    Explanation
    In the Resistant (active) portion of the Use of Force Model phase, Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART) can be expected to be used. This means that when encountering a person who is actively resisting, but not yet causing bodily harm or posing a serious threat, PART techniques would be employed to physically apprehend and restrain the individual.

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  • 12. 

     To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, you must quickly “trap” the suspect’s hand by grabbing the suspect’s arm

    • A.

      Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest.

    • B.

      Above the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest.

    • C.

      Below the elbow, your palms up, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest.

    • D.

      Above the elbow, your palms up, thumbs up, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect's hand on your chest. This technique allows you to quickly immobilize the suspect's hand by grabbing their arm below the elbow. Placing your palms down and thumbs down helps maintain a secure grip, while trapping the suspect's hand against your chest provides additional control.

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  • 13. 

     The second step in overcoming a rear grab hold is to immediately make a fist, flex your arms

    • A.

      out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s groin area

    • B.

      out slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s groin area

    • C.

      out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet

    • D.

      In slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s feet

    Correct Answer
    C. out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to "out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet." This step is important in overcoming a rear grab hold because it allows the person to create distance from the attacker by moving their arms out slightly and crouching down. By looking at the suspect's feet, the person can assess their position and potential movements, which can help them plan their next actions and potentially escape the hold.

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  • 14. 

     What are the two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?

    • A.

      Suspect’s position and attitude

    • B.

      Your position and your attitude

    • C.

      Assisting members’ over watch position

    • D.

      Your position and available cover and concealment

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspect’s position and attitude
    Explanation
    When approaching a suspect to make an apprehension, it is crucial to consider the suspect's position and attitude. The suspect's position can determine their level of threat and potential escape routes, while their attitude can provide insights into their willingness to cooperate or resist. By being aware of these factors, law enforcement officers can better assess the situation and take appropriate action to ensure a safe and successful apprehension.

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  • 15. 

    Where should the assisting Security Forces member stand to help from a position of advantage?

    • A.

      To one side

    • B.

      At a 90-degree angle

    • C.

      Directly behind the suspect

    • D.

      Next to the apprehending officer

    Correct Answer
    A. To one side
    Explanation
    The assisting Security Forces member should stand to one side of the situation to provide help from a position of advantage. This allows them to have a clear view of the suspect and the apprehending officer, while also providing them with the ability to react quickly and effectively if needed. Standing at a 90-degree angle or directly behind the suspect may limit their visibility and hinder their ability to assist effectively. Standing next to the apprehending officer may also not be ideal as it may create a crowded and potentially unsafe situation.

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  • 16. 

    What must you evaluate before apprehending a suspect?

    • A.

      Your ability to make the apprehension alone

    • B.

      Attitude and physical condition of suspect

    • C.

      Whether to be domineering or belligerent

    • D.

      Your position and member’s attitude

    Correct Answer
    B. Attitude and physical condition of suspect
    Explanation
    Before apprehending a suspect, it is important to evaluate their attitude and physical condition. This is crucial for the safety of both the officer and the suspect. By assessing the suspect's attitude, the officer can determine if they are cooperative or potentially dangerous. Additionally, evaluating the suspect's physical condition can help the officer gauge their ability to resist arrest or pose a threat. This information allows the officer to approach the situation appropriately and take necessary precautions to ensure a successful and safe apprehension.

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  • 17. 

    What is the first thing you would do to apply the IKKYO grip properly?

    • A.

      Grab the back of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm up (or the suspect’s right with your left).

    • B.

      Grab the front of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspect’s right with your left).

    • C.

      Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left).

    • D.

      Grab the side of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your right).

    Correct Answer
    C. Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left).
    Explanation
    To apply the IKKYO grip properly, the first thing you would do is grab the back of the suspect's right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspect's left with your left). This grip allows for better control and leverage over the suspect's hand, making it harder for them to resist or escape.

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  • 18. 

    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect’s

    • A.

      Elbow extended out toward the ground

    • B.

      arm straight and toward the ground

    • C.

      Elbow parallel to the ground

    • D.

      arm parallel to the ground

    Correct Answer
    D. arm parallel to the ground
    Explanation
    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, it is important to keep the suspect's arm parallel to the ground. This position ensures that the force applied during the takedown is distributed evenly along the suspect's arm, reducing the risk of hyperextension or other injuries. Keeping the arm parallel to the ground also allows for better control over the suspect's movements and makes it easier to maintain balance and stability during the takedown.

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  • 19. 

    The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an

    • A.

      Emotionless and physical deterrent to aggression

    • B.

      Emotional and physiological deterrent to aggression

    • C.

      Emotional and physical deterrent to aggression

    • D.

      Emotional and psychological deterrent to aggression

    Correct Answer
    C. Emotional and physical deterrent to aggression
    Explanation
    The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an emotional and physical deterrent to aggression. This means that the baton not only physically stops the aggressor but also creates an emotional response, such as fear or hesitation, which further discourages aggressive behavior. By combining both emotional and physical elements, the baton becomes an effective tool for deterring aggression and maintaining law and order.

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  • 20. 

    During which portion of the Use of Force Model (UFM) can you expect to use the baton?

    • A.

      Resistant (passive)

    • B.

      Resistant (active)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

    Correct Answer
    C. Assaultive (bodily harm)
    Explanation
    You can expect to use the baton during the Assaultive (bodily harm) portion of the Use of Force Model (UFM). This is the stage where the subject poses a threat of bodily harm to the officer or others, but the threat is not yet serious enough to warrant the use of deadly force. The baton can be used as a less-lethal option to subdue and control the subject, ensuring the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 21. 

     The three principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms,

    • A.

      head, and knees

    • B.

      Legs, and knees

    • C.

      knees, and ankles

    • D.

      head, and legs

    Correct Answer
    B. Legs, and knees
    Explanation
    The correct answer is legs and knees. When using a baton on a suspect, the principle target areas are the legs and knees. This is because striking these areas can help to immobilize the suspect and reduce their ability to flee or resist arrest. By targeting the legs and knees, law enforcement officers can effectively disable the suspect without causing severe harm or injury.

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  • 22. 

    What type of weapon is the baton primarily used as?

    • A.

      Non-physical

    • B.

      Psychological

    • C.

      Impact

    • D.

      Lethal

    Correct Answer
    C. Impact
    Explanation
    The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, rigid stick typically made of metal or hard plastic that is used by law enforcement officers and security personnel for self-defense and crowd control. The baton is designed to deliver impactful strikes to immobilize or subdue individuals without causing lethal harm. Its main purpose is to create a physical impact on the target, making the answer "Impact" the correct choice.

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  • 23. 

    Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered

    • A.

      Lethal

    • B.

      Non-lethal

    • C.

      Deadly force

    • D.

      Resistant (passive)

    Correct Answer
    B. Non-lethal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is non-lethal because OC pepper spray is designed to temporarily incapacitate an individual by causing severe irritation and inflammation of the eyes, nose, and throat. It does not cause permanent damage or death, making it a non-lethal option for self-defense or law enforcement purposes.

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  • 24. 

    What portion, of the Use of Force Model (UFM) that a subject’s actions are located within, can you expect to use approved electronic control devices?

    • A.

      Resistant (active)

    • B.

      Resistant (passive)

    • C.

      Compliant (active)

    • D.

      Compliant (resistant)

    Correct Answer
    A. Resistant (active)
    Explanation
    In the Use of Force Model (UFM), the portion where a subject's actions are located within determines the level of force that can be used. The correct answer, "Resistant (active)", indicates that approved electronic control devices can be expected to be used when the subject is actively resisting. This means that the subject is physically resisting or engaging in aggressive behavior that poses a threat to others or themselves. In such situations, the use of electronic control devices may be necessary to gain control and ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 25. 

    Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide the grid square into

    • A.

      fifths

    • B.

      Tenths

    • C.

      fifteenths

    • D.

      Twentieths

    Correct Answer
    B. Tenths
    Explanation
    Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, the grid square is divided into tenths. This means that each side of the grid square is divided into 10 equal parts. By dividing the grid square into tenths, it allows for a more precise and accurate location within the grid.

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  • 26. 

    After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility?

    • A.

      Nearest military installation

    • B.

      Disaster control group team

    • C.

      Nuclear accident recovery team

    • D.

      Home installation of the resource

    Correct Answer
    A. Nearest military installation
    Explanation
    In the event of a nuclear accident, the nearest military installation would have the initial response base responsibility. This is because military installations are equipped with trained personnel, resources, and infrastructure to handle emergencies and provide immediate assistance. They have the capability to mobilize quickly and effectively respond to the situation, ensuring the safety of the affected area and its inhabitants.

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  • 27. 

    Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident?

    • A.

      On-scene fire chief

    • B.

      On-scene commander

    • C.

      Disaster control group

    • D.

      Initial base response force

    Correct Answer
    C. Disaster control group
    Explanation
    The disaster control group is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident. This group is specifically trained and equipped to handle such emergencies and has the necessary expertise to coordinate the response efforts effectively. The on-scene fire chief, on-scene commander, and initial base response force may play important roles in managing the situation, but the disaster control group has the ultimate responsibility for command and control.

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  • 28. 

    What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?

    • A.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind

    • B.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind

    • C.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

    • D.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

    Correct Answer
    B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind
    Explanation
    The cordon size of an accident involving biological agents is determined by the potential spread of the agents through the air. In this case, the correct answer is 2000 feet upwind and crosswind. This means that a cordon of 2000 feet should be established in the direction of the wind to prevent the agents from spreading further. Additionally, a cordon of the same size should also be established perpendicular to the wind direction to cover the potential spread in that direction as well. This larger cordon size is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals in the surrounding area and to prevent the further spread of the biological agents.

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  • 29. 

    What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident?

    • A.

      Do not answer and then detain them

    • B.

      Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel

    • C.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the public affairs personnel

    • D.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the installation commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel
    Explanation
    If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct course of action is to not answer their questions and instead refer them to public affairs personnel. This is because public affairs personnel are trained to handle media inquiries and can provide accurate and appropriate information to the media. It is important to avoid providing any information that may be inaccurate or speculative, and to ensure that the media receives the official statement or response from the appropriate authorities.

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  • 30. 

    What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?

    • A.

      Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film

    • B.

      Use physical force to retrieve the film

    • C.

      Physically detain the photographer

    • D.

      Seize the film

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film
    Explanation
    If someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after being told not to, the appropriate action would be to contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film. This is the correct answer because law enforcement officers have the authority and expertise to handle such situations and ensure that the classified material is secured. Using physical force or physically detaining the photographer may escalate the situation and potentially lead to legal consequences. Seizing the film without involving law enforcement may also be considered an overreach of authority.

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  • 31. 

    One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to

    • A.

      Let other federal agencies take charge of the situation

    • B.

      Prevent or minimize loss of life and property

    • C.

      Neutralize perpetrators using deadly force

    • D.

      Not yield to civilian authorities

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent or minimize loss of life and property
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the Air Force in dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize loss of life and property. This means that their main focus is on ensuring the safety and security of individuals and their belongings. By prioritizing the protection of life and property, the Air Force aims to mitigate the potential damage and harm that may arise from these situations.

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  • 32. 

    What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations?

    • A.

      Trained negotiators

    • B.

      Swat teams

    • C.

      Special operations

    • D.

      Assault weapons

    Correct Answer
    A. Trained negotiators
    Explanation
    Trained negotiators are used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations. Negotiators are skilled in communication and conflict resolution techniques, allowing them to establish a dialogue with individuals involved in high-risk situations. Through active listening, empathy, and effective negotiation strategies, trained negotiators aim to de-escalate tense situations, minimize harm, and find peaceful resolutions. Their expertise in conflict management and ability to understand the needs and motivations of all parties involved make them an essential tool in diffusing high-risk situations without resorting to violence or force.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?

    • A.

      Installation commander

    • B.

      Security forces personnel

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Unit commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Security forces personnel
    Explanation
    Security forces personnel are responsible for providing the initial response to incidents. As the first line of defense, they are trained to handle and respond to various types of incidents, including security breaches, emergencies, and threats. Their role is crucial in ensuring the safety and security of the installation or unit. They are equipped with the necessary skills, knowledge, and resources to assess the situation, take immediate action, and coordinate with other relevant authorities if needed. Their prompt response and effective handling of incidents are essential in minimizing potential risks and maintaining a secure environment.

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  • 34. 

    A base entry point check is

    • A.

      An examination

    • B.

      A warrant search

    • C.

      A consent search

    • D.

      a probable cause search

    Correct Answer
    A. An examination
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an examination. A base entry point check refers to a process of examining or evaluating a particular entry point. It involves assessing the condition, security measures, or any potential risks associated with the entry point. This examination helps in determining the effectiveness of the entry point and ensuring its suitability for use.

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  • 35. 

    At least how many security forces members should be present when conducting entry point checks?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    When conducting entry point checks, it is necessary to have at least two security forces members present. This is important for several reasons. Firstly, having two members allows for better coverage and observation of the area, minimizing blind spots and increasing the chances of detecting any potential threats. Secondly, having two members provides a system of checks and balances, ensuring that decisions and actions are made collaboratively and reducing the risk of errors or misconduct. Additionally, having two members promotes safety and accountability, as they can support and assist each other if any dangerous situations arise.

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  • 36. 

    What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check?

    • A.

      Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual

    • B.

      Seize the contraband and refuse entry to the installation

    • C.

      Continue searching the vehicle for more contraband

    • D.

      Impound the vehicle immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual
    Explanation
    If illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check, it is important to stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain the individual. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the installation and to prevent any further illegal activities from taking place. Continuing the search for more contraband or impounding the vehicle may be necessary depending on the situation, but the immediate action should be to stop the check and detain the individual.

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  • 37. 

    What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?

    • A.

      Operator’s attitude

    • B.

      Patrolman’s attitude

    • C.

      Object size

    • D.

      Location

    Correct Answer
    C. Object size
    Explanation
    The manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check is determined by the object size. This means that the size of the objects being searched within the vehicle will dictate the approach and techniques used during the search process. For example, larger objects may require a more thorough and extensive search, while smaller objects may be easier to inspect and search through. The object size is a practical factor that influences the search strategy and methods employed during a vehicle check.

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  • 38. 

     How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?

    • A.

      Completely and simply

    • B.

      Systematically and simply

    • C.

      Thoroughly and completely

    • D.

      Thoroughly and systematically

    Correct Answer
    D. Thoroughly and systematically
    Explanation
    To conduct a simple search of a vehicle, it is important to do so thoroughly and systematically. This means that one should carefully and exhaustively examine every part of the vehicle in a methodical manner, ensuring that no area is overlooked. By conducting the search thoroughly, all potential areas of interest or concern can be identified, and by doing so systematically, one can ensure that the search is conducted in a logical and organized manner. This approach maximizes the chances of finding any relevant information or evidence that may be present in the vehicle.

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  • 39. 

    Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas?

    • A.

      Concentric circle

    • B.

      Item-to-item

    • C.

      Zone or sector

    • D.

      Strip and grid

    Correct Answer
    D. Strip and grid
    Explanation
    Strip and grid search method is typically used for large outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the area into strips or grids and systematically searching each strip or grid one by one. This allows for thorough coverage of the entire area and ensures that no area is missed during the search. It is an efficient method for large outdoor areas as it provides a systematic approach to search and can be easily coordinated among search teams.

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  • 40. 

    While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?

    • A.

      Enter to prevent injury or damage

    • B.

      Enter only to identify suspects

    • C.

      Do not enter until the flight chief arrives

    • D.

      Do not enter until you witness an assault

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter to prevent injury or damage
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct action to take is to enter the building to prevent injury or damage. The cries for help indicate that there may be someone in immediate danger, and entering the building can potentially save lives and prevent further harm. It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of individuals in distress, and taking immediate action is the most appropriate response in this situation.

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  • 41. 

    When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to

    • A.

      Treat all injured persons

    • B.

      Make sure you take appropriate notes

    • C.

      Collect and mark visible items of evidence

    • D.

      Keep the scene in its original state

    Correct Answer
    D. Keep the scene in its original state
    Explanation
    When arriving at a crime scene, it is crucial to keep the scene in its original state. This is because any alteration or contamination of the scene can potentially compromise the integrity of the evidence. By preserving the scene as it was found, investigators can ensure that all evidence is collected and analyzed accurately, increasing the chances of identifying and apprehending the perpetrator. Treating injured persons, taking appropriate notes, and collecting visible items of evidence are all important tasks, but preserving the scene's original state takes precedence to maintain the integrity of the investigation.

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  • 42. 

    When should you begin taking crime scene notes?

    • A.

      As soon as dispatched

    • B.

      When a checklist item has been completed

    • C.

      You have completed collecting all evidence

    • D.

      An investigator relieves you from the scene

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as dispatched
    Explanation
    You should begin taking crime scene notes as soon as dispatched because it is important to document the details of the crime scene as soon as possible. This ensures that no information is missed or forgotten and helps in preserving the integrity of the scene. By starting the note-taking process immediately, you can capture important observations, witness statements, and other crucial details that may be vital for the investigation. Delaying the note-taking process can lead to the loss of valuable information and hinder the investigation process.

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  • 43. 

    What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene?

    • A.

      Disregard it completely

    • B.

      Just wipe your prints off

    • C.

      Inform the shift supervisor

    • D.

      Record its original position in your notes

    Correct Answer
    D. Record its original position in your notes
    Explanation
    If evidence is moved prematurely from its original position when securing the scene, it is important to record its original position in your notes. This is because the original position of the evidence is crucial for maintaining the integrity and chain of custody of the evidence. By recording its original position, investigators can accurately document its location and any potential associations with other evidence or the crime scene. This information can be vital for the investigation and subsequent legal proceedings.

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  • 44. 

    What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?

    • A.

      Time is not an important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence.

    • B.

      Do not try to keep extraneous articles out of the photographs.

    • C.

      Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.

    • D.

      Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence.

    Correct Answer
    C. Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.
    Explanation
    When audio-visual personnel are not available to document a crime scene, it is important to photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched. This ensures that the original state of the scene and the evidence is preserved, providing an accurate record for investigation and potential court proceedings. By photographing the evidence first, any changes or disturbances to the scene can be properly documented and analyzed. This rule helps maintain the integrity of the crime scene and ensures that crucial information is not lost or compromised.

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  • 45. 

    What type evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?

    • A.

      Real

    • B.

      Direct

    • C.

      Documentary

    • D.

      Circumstantial

    Correct Answer
    D. Circumstantial
    Explanation
    Circumstantial evidence refers to evidence that does not directly prove a person's involvement in an offense, but rather relies on inference or deduction. It includes facts, circumstances, or events that suggest a person's guilt or innocence. Unlike direct evidence, which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence requires the jury or judge to make logical connections and draw conclusions based on the available evidence. This type of evidence can be powerful and persuasive, but it is important to consider all the facts and circumstances before making a judgment.

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  • 46. 

    What document establishes the rules of evidence?

    • A.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • B.

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

    • C.

      US Constitution

    • D.

      Military law

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive document that establishes the rules of evidence in military courts. It provides guidance and instructions on how evidence should be presented, admitted, and considered during court-martial proceedings. The MCM ensures that the military justice system operates fairly and consistently by setting out the rules and procedures for handling evidence. It is a vital resource for military legal professionals and serves as the primary reference for determining the admissibility and use of evidence in military trials.

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  • 47. 

    What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts and statements?

    • A.

      Posse Comitatus Act of 1878

    • B.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • C.

      US Constitution

    • D.

      Jencks Act

    Correct Answer
    D. Jencks Act
    Explanation
    The Jencks Act is a federal law that requires law enforcement agencies to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements made by witnesses during investigations. This law is important for ensuring that all relevant information is preserved and can be used in court proceedings. It helps to maintain transparency and accountability in the criminal justice system.

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  • 48. 

    An item of evidence is considered fragile if

    • A.

      The item contains bodily fluids

    • B.

      you drop the item of evidence it would break

    • C.

      You have small trace evidence on an item of evidence

    • D.

      Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value

    Correct Answer
    D. Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value". This means that if there are certain circumstances or factors present that could potentially damage or ruin the value of the evidence, then it is considered fragile. This could include things like exposure to extreme temperatures, moisture, or other elements that could alter or destroy the evidence.

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  • 49. 

    How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?

    • A.

      Physical injury only

    • B.

      Emotional disturbance

    • C.

      Psychological battery

    • D.

      Physical injury or emotional disturbance

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical injury or emotional disturbance
    Explanation
    Abuse is defined as physical injury or emotional disturbance in the context of family violence. This means that abuse can manifest in the form of physical harm or causing emotional distress to a family member. It is important to recognize that abuse is not limited to physical injury alone, but also includes actions or behaviors that cause emotional harm or disturbance within the family dynamic.

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  • 50. 

    Which type of child abuse is the most difficult to identify?

    • A.

      Emotional maltreatment

    • B.

      Psychological abuse

    • C.

      Sexual maltreatment

    • D.

      Physical abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Emotional maltreatment
    Explanation
    Emotional maltreatment is the most difficult type of child abuse to identify because it often leaves no physical marks or evidence. It involves the consistent emotional neglect, rejection, or belittlement of a child, causing significant harm to their emotional and psychological well-being. Unlike physical abuse or sexual maltreatment, emotional maltreatment does not leave visible scars or bruises, making it harder to detect. It can include behaviors such as constant criticism, humiliation, or withholding love and affection, which can have long-lasting effects on a child's mental health and development.

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