Radtech Simulation Examination 8
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The major risk of injury or harm due to a magnet quench is:
- A.
The boiling off of cryogens that creates an asphyxiating steam
- B.
The magnet becomes so warm that it may cause burns to patients in the bore
- C.
There is no danger with a quench. It is how we shut down the machine for repair
- D.
A blinding flash of light
Correct Answer
A. The boiling off of cryogens that creates an asphyxiating steamExplanation
If a quench occurs, everyone must be removed from the room immediately. The vapors and gases are very cold and can cause frost-bite. They also often condense the moisture in air, creating a highly visible fog that can replace oxygen in the room.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
All of the following statements about the magnet of the MRI scanner are true EXCEPT:
- A.
The magnetic field is extremely powerful
- B.
Large metal objects like floor buffers and oxygen cylinders may be picked up by the field and fly toward the magnet bore at high speeds
- C.
The fringe field is confined to the magnet bore
- D.
The magnet is always on, 24/hrs, 7/days
Correct Answer
C. The fringe field is confined to the magnet boreExplanation
The magnetic field can extend many feet from the inner bore of the magnet. Rooms are shielded to contain the field as much as possible. Remember the magnet is always on even when a scan is not initiated. The main magnetic field of a 3T system is 60,000 times the earth's magnet field. We must also limit the items that go into the scan room to non-ferrous metals.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Patients with which of the following prosthetic devices may be safely scanned:
- A.
Cardiac pacemaker
- B.
History of having metal flakes in the eye
- C.
Cochlear implant (inner ear prosthetic device)
- D.
Total knee replacement
Correct Answer
D. Total knee replacementExplanation
The following items can NEVER be allowed into the scanning room:
cardiac pacemakers, cochlear (inner ear) implants, ferromagnetic or unidentifiable aneurysm clips of the brain, implanted neuro stimulators, metal or unidentifiable foreign bodies in the eyes, and implanted pumps to deliver medicine that cannot be removed.
If a subject works around metal and cannot say for sure they have never had any metal in their eyes the study should be canceled.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
The emergency shutdown button should be used to immediately cut power to the scanner electrical system in each of the following situations EXCEPT:
- A.
Loud popping noises and smoke come from the scanner
- B.
Sprinklers go off in scan room, but there is no fire
- C.
Scan room fire
- D.
The subject in the scanner squeezes the emergency ball
Correct Answer
D. The subject in the scanner squeezes the emergency ballExplanation
Shutting power to the PDU may be required for life threatening situations such as:
Fire in the computer room, fire, sparks, loud noises emanating from the scan room, flooding or sprinkling system goes off, and catastrophic equipment failure. These reasons should be life threatening. It is important to remember that pressing the emergency stop button shuts the power to the scanner to but the magnetic field is still active.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
With regard to metal objects in the scan room:
- A.
No metallic objects are allowed in the scan room
- B.
Small objects like hair pins may be attracted by the magnetic field but are too small to constitute a safety risk
- C.
Metallic objects may be tested for ferromagnetism by the technologist with a hand-held magnet; if not ferromagnetic, they may be allowed in the scan room
- D.
Most equipment used in an exam is MRI compatible so there is really no reason to worry about this
Correct Answer
C. Metallic objects may be tested for ferromagnetism by the technologist with a hand-held magnet; if not ferromagnetic, they may be allowed in the scan roomExplanation
Small items like paper clips or hair pins can have a velocity of about 40mph in a 3T environment. Larger objects have even higher velocities and have become fatal. Many types of clinical equipment are ferromagnetic and should never be brought into the scan room. If there is any question a handheld magnet can be used to test if an object is ferromagnetic or not.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
In which of the following situations should you push the “Quench” button:
- A.
A steel oxygen tank was brought into the scan room and has flown across the room and stuck to the magnet, pinning someone’s arm in a painful crush
- B.
Scan room fire
- C.
A janitor has entered the room with a large floor buffing machine which is now stuck to the magnet. No one is hurt, but he can’t pull the machine off the magnet
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. A steel oxygen tank was brought into the scan room and has flown across the room and stuck to the magnet, pinning someone’s arm in a painful crushExplanation
An intentional quench is done in an emergency to run the magnetic field to zero. This is done in extreme emergencies only (ex- a projectile that is pinning a patient against the magnet, injuring them).Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Before beginning to scan a subject, you should:
- A.
Clear the patient of all internal and external metals
- B.
Give the subject earplugs and the emergency squeeze ball
- C.
Check lines of remote verbal communication with the subject (from the workstation)
- D.
All of the answers are true
Correct Answer
D. All of the answers are trueExplanation
You must check each subject for contra-indications they might have before allowing them into the scan room. Once the patient is on the table it is very important you get them as comfortable as possible. The MR scanner can produce very high acoustic noise levels that can cause discomfort. Before you start your protocol make sure you open the lines of communication so the patient knows you can hear them in case of an emergency.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Which of the following is a likely consequence of forgetting to remove your wallet from your pocket before entering the scan room:
- A.
There will likely be no adverse consequence
- B.
The magnetic stripes on your credit cards and ATM cards are erased
- C.
The wallet will heat up and may cause burns
- D.
Because the ink on US currency is ferromagnetic, your wallet may become a projectile and fly into the magnet bore
Correct Answer
B. The magnetic stripes on your credit cards and ATM cards are erasedExplanation
The magnetic field can seriously damage or impair the following personal items:
Cameras, watches, credit and bank cards, hearing aids, hair accessories, belt buckles, shoes and I-pods just to name a few. Please remember to empty ALL of your pockets before entering the scanning room.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
If your patient complains of a body ache, dizziness or anxiety (including claustrophobia) during the middle of the scan, you should:
- A.
Quench the magnet
- B.
Press the Emergency Shut Down Button
- C.
Talk to your patient and remove them from the magnet if they cannot go on
- D.
Ignore their complaints
Correct Answer
C. Talk to your patient and remove them from the magnet if they cannot go onExplanation
Routine communication between you and your subject is very important so they know you can hear them if an emergency should arise. The emergency stop button and quench button should only be pressed is a life threatening emergency.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Which of the following objects are potential projectiles?
- A.
Watch
- B.
ID badge
- C.
Pencil
- D.
Clipboard
Correct Answer
D. ClipboardExplanation
Some examples of items that can become projectiles are: Scissors, hair clips and bobby pins, tools, paperclips and clapboards.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
What is a Quench?
- A.
Total power down of the computer system
- B.
A ramping up of the magnetic field in which all of the cryogens are put into the bore thus making the scanner super conductive
- C.
How the staff shuts the magnet down after hours, to ensure maximum safety
- D.
A rapid boil off of cryogens and ultimate loss of a magnetic field
Correct Answer
D. A rapid boil off of cryogens and ultimate loss of a magnetic fieldExplanation
MR scanners are super cooled with inert gases such as helium. A quench is the rapid boiling off of these cryogens intentionally or unintentionally.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
There are two real safety concerns with regard to the magnetic forces and how they interact with ferrous objects. They can be described as which of the following:
- A.
Translation and Magnetization of the object
- B.
Transverse and Rotation of the object
- C.
Translation and Torque of the object
- D.
Translation and Mutation of the object
Correct Answer
C. Translation and Torque of the objectExplanation
Translation describes the force that attracts ferrous objects to the center of the magnetic field. It is sometimes referred to as the projectile effect. Rotation is the term that relates to the force of the North and South poles and the orientation of the scanner’s magnetic field. Ferrous objects will attempt to align their long axes with this orientation and will rotate until they are aligned with the magnetic field.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
USG marker associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 is
- A.
Echogenic foci in heart
- B.
Hyperechogenic bowel
- C.
Choroid plexus cysts
- D.
Nuchal edema
Correct Answer
D. Nuchal edemaExplanation
Nuchal edema refers to the accumulation of fluid at the back of the fetal neck, which can be detected during ultrasound imaging. This finding is associated with an increased risk for Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). It is considered a marker because it is not a definitive diagnosis of Trisomy 21, but rather a sign that indicates a higher likelihood of the condition. Other markers such as echogenic foci in the heart, hyperechogenic bowel, and choroid plexus cysts are also associated with increased risk, but nuchal edema is specifically mentioned as the marker with the greatest increased risk.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which one of the following tumors shows calcification on CT Scan
- A.
Meduloblastoma
- B.
Meningioma
- C.
CNS lymphoma
- D.
Ependymoma
Correct Answer
B. MeningiomaExplanation
Meningioma is a tumor that arises from the meninges, the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. It is often slow-growing and benign. Calcification refers to the deposition of calcium in tissues, and on a CT scan, it appears as bright white spots. Meningiomas have a tendency to calcify, which can be visualized on a CT scan. Therefore, among the given options, meningioma is the tumor that shows calcification on a CT scan.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Most preferred route to perform cerebral angiography is
- A.
Transfemoral route
- B.
Transaxillary route
- C.
Transbrachial route
- D.
Direct carotid puncture
Correct Answer
A. Transfemoral routeExplanation
The most preferred route to perform cerebral angiography is the transfemoral route. This is because it is a minimally invasive procedure that involves accessing the femoral artery in the groin area and threading a catheter through the blood vessels to the brain. This route provides a safe and effective way to visualize the blood vessels in the brain and diagnose conditions such as aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, and blockages. It is a widely used technique due to its high success rate and low risk of complications.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone
- A.
MRI
- B.
CT
- C.
X-ray
- D.
None
Correct Answer
B. CTExplanation
CT (computed tomography) is the investigation of choice for a lesion of the temporal bone because it provides detailed images of the bone structure and surrounding soft tissues. It can accurately detect abnormalities such as fractures, tumors, infections, and other conditions affecting the temporal bone. CT scans are particularly useful in evaluating the intricate anatomy of the ear, including the middle and inner ear structures, as well as the surrounding structures like the mastoid bone. This imaging modality allows for precise diagnosis, treatment planning, and monitoring of temporal bone lesions, making it the preferred choice over MRI and X-ray in this specific scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia
- A.
Cortical erosion
- B.
Bone enlargement
- C.
Ground glass appearance
- D.
Thickened bone matrix
Correct Answer
C. Ground glass appearanceExplanation
The characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia is a ground glass appearance. This refers to a hazy or cloudy appearance of the affected bone on imaging studies, such as X-rays or CT scans. It is caused by the replacement of normal bone tissue with fibrous tissue, resulting in a less dense and more translucent appearance. This finding is often seen in fibrous dysplasia, particularly in the long bones and craniofacial bones. Cortical erosion, bone enlargement, and thickened bone matrix are not specific to fibrous dysplasia and can be seen in other conditions as well.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
A patient is brought in unconscious state with external injuries. CT is normal with no midline shift and ventricles are normal. Multiple small hemorhages are seen at the base of the brain. Diagnosis is
- A.
Concussion
- B.
Contusion
- C.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- D.
Diffuse axonal injuries
Correct Answer
D. Diffuse axonal injuriesExplanation
The given scenario describes a patient who is unconscious with external injuries and normal CT findings except for multiple small hemorrhages at the base of the brain. This is indicative of diffuse axonal injuries (DAI), which occur due to widespread shearing and stretching of the brain's nerve fibers. DAI is often associated with traumatic brain injury and can result in prolonged unconsciousness and neurological deficits. It is different from concussion, contusion, and subarachnoid hemorrhage, which have distinct characteristics and findings on imaging.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is
- A.
Neurofibroma
- B.
Meningioma
- C.
Cavernous haemangioma
- D.
Schwannoma
Correct Answer
C. Cavernous haemangiomaExplanation
Cavernous hemangioma is the most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults. This is a benign vascular tumor that occurs in the blood vessels of the orbit. It is characterized by a collection of dilated, thin-walled blood vessels that can lead to proptosis (bulging of the eye), visual disturbances, and pain. Cavernous hemangiomas are typically slow-growing and can be managed with observation or surgical removal if necessary. Other options listed, such as neurofibroma, meningioma, and schwannoma, are less commonly seen as retrobulbar orbital masses in adults.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Expanisle type bony metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of
- A.
Breast
- B.
Prostate
- C.
Kidney
- D.
Bronchus
Correct Answer
C. KidneyExplanation
Expanisle type bony metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of Kidney. This means that when kidney cancer spreads to the bones, it tends to cause expansile lesions, which are abnormal growths that expand and destroy the surrounding bone tissue. This is a unique feature of kidney cancer metastasis compared to other primary malignancies such as breast, prostate, or bronchus.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is
- A.
MRI
- B.
Multislice CT
- C.
Nuclear scan
- D.
Echocardiography
Correct Answer
A. MRIExplanation
MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is the most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function. MRI provides detailed images of the heart and its chambers, allowing for a comprehensive evaluation of ventricular function, including measurements of ejection fraction, wall motion abnormalities, and assessment of myocardial viability. It offers high spatial resolution, excellent tissue contrast, and the ability to visualize the heart in multiple planes. Additionally, MRI does not involve ionizing radiation, making it a safe option for repeated assessments. Therefore, MRI is considered the gold standard for evaluating ventricular function.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
The most common location of hypertensive intracranial bleed is
- A.
Subarachnoid space
- B.
Basal ganglia
- C.
Brainstem
- D.
Cerebellum
Correct Answer
B. Basal gangliaExplanation
Hypertensive intracranial bleed refers to bleeding that occurs within the brain due to high blood pressure. The basal ganglia is a group of structures located deep within the brain that play a role in movement and coordination. It is a common location for hypertensive intracranial bleed because the small blood vessels in this area are particularly susceptible to damage from high blood pressure. Bleeding in the basal ganglia can cause symptoms such as weakness, difficulty speaking, and changes in consciousness.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
MRI of a multiple sclerosis patient will show lesion in
- A.
White matter
- B.
Grey matter
- C.
Thalamus
- D.
Basal ganglia
Correct Answer
A. White matterExplanation
In multiple sclerosis, the immune system mistakenly attacks the protective covering of nerve fibers in the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. This results in the formation of scar tissue, known as lesions, in the affected areas. The white matter of the brain consists of nerve fibers that are responsible for transmitting signals between different regions of the brain and spinal cord. As the lesions in multiple sclerosis primarily affect the white matter, an MRI scan of a multiple sclerosis patient is likely to show these lesions in the white matter.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Which of the following malignant tumours is radioresistant ?
- A.
Ewing’s sarcoma
- B.
Retinoblastoma
- C.
Osteosarcoma
- D.
Neuroblastoma
Correct Answer
C. OsteosarcomaExplanation
Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor that is known to be radioresistant. This means that it is not easily killed or affected by radiation therapy. Radiation therapy is a common treatment for many types of cancer, as it uses high-energy radiation to kill cancer cells and shrink tumors. However, in the case of osteosarcoma, radiation therapy may not be as effective in destroying the cancer cells. Therefore, other treatment options such as surgery and chemotherapy may be preferred for managing osteosarcoma.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
“Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in
- A.
Renal Osteodytrophy
- B.
Fluorosis
- C.
Marfan’s Syndrome
- D.
Achondroplasia
Correct Answer
A. Renal OsteodytrophyExplanation
The term "Rugger Jersey Spine" refers to a radiographic finding characterized by increased density of the vertebral bodies, giving them a striped appearance resembling the stripes on a rugby jersey. This finding is commonly seen in Renal Osteodytrophy, a condition that occurs in patients with chronic kidney disease. The increased density is due to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which leads to excessive bone remodeling and sclerosis. Fluorosis, Marfan's Syndrome, and Achondroplasia are unrelated conditions and do not typically present with Rugger Jersey Spine.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except
- A.
Atherosclerosis
- B.
Fibromuscular dysplasia
- C.
Takayasu’s arteritis
- D.
Polyarteritis nodosa
Correct Answer
D. Polyarteritis nodosaExplanation
Renal artery stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the arteries that supply blood to the kidneys. It can lead to decreased blood flow and potentially cause kidney damage. Atherosclerosis, fibromuscular dysplasia, and Takayasu's arteritis are all known causes of renal artery stenosis. However, polyarteritis nodosa is not typically associated with renal artery stenosis. Polyarteritis nodosa is a systemic vasculitis that primarily affects medium-sized arteries, but it does not commonly involve the renal arteries.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Spalding’s sign occurs after
- A.
Birth of live foetus
- B.
Rigor mortis of infant
- C.
Cadaveric spasm.
- D.
Death of foetus in uterus
Correct Answer
D. Death of foetus in uterusExplanation
Spalding's sign refers to the overlapping of the cranial bones during delivery due to the compression of the fetal skull. This occurs when the fetus has been dead in the uterus for a significant amount of time, leading to the softening and molding of the skull. Therefore, the correct answer is "Death of fetus in uterus."Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Bone scan of a patient with Multiple myeloma will show
- A.
Diffusely increased uptake
- B.
Cold spots
- C.
Hot spots
- D.
Diffusely decreased uptake
Correct Answer
B. Cold spotsExplanation
A bone scan of a patient with Multiple myeloma will show cold spots. Multiple myeloma is a cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the formation of tumors in the bones. These tumors are usually associated with areas of decreased blood flow and reduced metabolic activity, which appear as cold spots on a bone scan. This is in contrast to hot spots, which indicate areas of increased blood flow and metabolic activity, and diffusely increased uptake, which suggests a generalized increase in bone activity. Diffusely decreased uptake would be unlikely in multiple myeloma, as it is characterized by the presence of tumors.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Which of the following contrast agents can be used in a patient with renal dysfunction for the prevention of contrast nephropathy?
- A.
Ionic contrast
- B.
Low osmolar contrast
- C.
Fenoldopam
- D.
Acetylcysteine
Correct Answer
B. Low osmolar contrastExplanation
Low osmolar contrast agents can be used in patients with renal dysfunction for the prevention of contrast nephropathy. Contrast nephropathy is a potential complication that can occur after the administration of contrast agents during medical imaging procedures. Low osmolar contrast agents have a lower osmolality compared to ionic contrast agents, which reduces the risk of renal damage. This makes them a safer option for patients with impaired kidney function. Fenoldopam and acetylcysteine are not contrast agents, but they may be used for other purposes in patients with renal dysfunction.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Most chemoresistant tumor among the following is
- A.
Synovial sarcoma
- B.
Osteosarcoma
- C.
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
- D.
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Correct Answer
C. Malignant fibrous histiocytomaExplanation
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most chemoresistant tumor among the options given. Chemoresistance refers to the ability of a tumor to resist the effects of chemotherapy drugs. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is known for its resistance to chemotherapy, making it difficult to treat. This resistance may be due to various factors, such as the tumor's ability to pump out chemotherapy drugs, genetic mutations, or the presence of cancer stem cells.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Phosphorus 32 emits
- A.
Alpha Particles
- B.
Beta particles
- C.
X rays
- D.
Neutrons
Correct Answer
B. Beta particlesExplanation
Phosphorus 32 emits beta particles. Beta particles are high-energy electrons or positrons that are emitted during radioactive decay. Phosphorus 32 undergoes beta decay, where a neutron in the nucleus is converted into a proton, and an electron is emitted. This emission of beta particles helps to stabilize the nucleus and reduce its energy.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
On MRI, differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is
- A.
Myelodysplasia
- B.
Myelomalacia
- C.
Myeloschisis
- D.
Cord tumors
Correct Answer
B. MyelomalaciaExplanation
Myelomalacia refers to the softening of the spinal cord, which can be seen on MRI. This condition is often caused by ischemia or lack of blood supply to the spinal cord, leading to tissue damage and edema. The other options listed are not directly related to spinal cord edema. Myelodysplasia refers to abnormal development of the spinal cord, myeloschisis refers to a congenital defect in which the spinal cord is exposed, and cord tumors are abnormal growths within the spinal cord. Therefore, myelomalacia is the most likely diagnosis when spinal cord edema is observed on MRI.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
20 yr old male was brought unconscious to the A&E ward with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cisterns were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis?
- A.
Cerebral laceration
- B.
Cortical contusion
- C.
Diffuse axonal injuries
- D.
Multiple infarcts
Correct Answer
C. Diffuse axonal injuriesExplanation
The correct answer is Diffuse axonal injuries. Diffuse axonal injuries occur due to rapid acceleration or deceleration forces causing shearing and stretching of the brain's axons. In this case, the presence of multiple small hemorrhages and compressed basal cisterns on CT brain imaging suggests diffuse axonal injuries. Cerebral laceration refers to a tear in the brain tissue, cortical contusion refers to bruising of the brain's outer layer, and multiple infarcts refer to multiple areas of tissue death due to lack of blood supply, which are not indicated in this scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Most chemoresistant tumor among the following is
- A.
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
- B.
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
- C.
Osteosarcoma
- D.
Synovial sarcoma
Correct Answer
A. Malignant fibrous histiocytomaExplanation
Osteosarcoma is radioresistant.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows
- A.
Cold spots
- B.
Hot spots
- C.
Diffusely decreased uptake
- D.
Diffusely increased uptake
Correct Answer
A. Cold spotsExplanation
1. Lytic lesions are in minor criteria.
2. Bone scan is not useful for diagnosisRate this question:
-
- 36.
Most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy is
- A.
Crown-rump length
- B.
Nuchal translucency
- C.
Gestational sac volume
- D.
Serum beta-hCG level
Correct Answer
B. Nuchal translucencyExplanation
Nuchal translucency is the most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy. It refers to the measurement of fluid accumulation at the back of the fetal neck during the first trimester of pregnancy. Increased nuchal translucency is associated with a higher risk of chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome. This measurement is commonly used in combination with other screening tests to assess the risk of fetal aneuploidy. Crown-rump length, gestational sac volume, and serum beta-hCG level are also important indicators in prenatal screening, but they are not as sensitive as nuchal translucency for detecting aneuploidy.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
What is the medical material category for an $80,000 "daylight" processor with a life expectancy of 7 years? (003-Catergories of medical material)
- A.
Durable medical supply
- B.
Investment medical equipment
- C.
Expense medical equipment
- D.
Nonmedical equioment
- E.
Investment medical supply
Correct Answer
C. Expense medical equipmentExplanation
The correct answer is "Expense medical equipment." This category refers to medical materials that are expected to have a shorter lifespan and are considered to be consumable or disposable. The "daylight" processor mentioned in the question is likely a device used in medical imaging or photography, which would fall under the category of expense medical equipment due to its shorter life expectancy of 7 years.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Under normal circumstances, what is the earliest date a chest x-ray taken on 15 August 96 should be destroyed? (007-Disposition of radiology records)
- A.
1 January 2002
- B.
15 August 2002
- C.
1 January 2001
- D.
15 August 2001
- E.
Never
Correct Answer
A. 1 January 2002Explanation
The correct answer is 1 January 2002. According to the given information, the chest x-ray taken on 15 August 96 should be destroyed under normal circumstances. The date provided is 15 August 96, and the earliest date for destruction is 1 January 2002. This means that the x-ray should be kept for at least 5 years before being destroyed.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What characteristic of the Composite Health Care System limits individual users access to certain system functions such as ordering radiologic procedures? (008-Composite Health Care System)
- A.
Menus
- B.
Passwords
- C.
Hidden Commands
- D.
Electronic Security Keys
Correct Answer
D. Electronic Security KeysExplanation
Electronic security keys are a characteristic of the Composite Health Care System that limits individual users' access to certain system functions such as ordering radiologic procedures. These keys provide an additional layer of security and control by requiring authorized users to possess a specific electronic key in order to access and perform certain functions within the system. This helps to ensure that only authorized personnel can access sensitive information or perform specific actions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of the system.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of __________. (009-Quality control in radiology)
- A.
Radiologic processes
- B.
Radiology personnel
- C.
Radiographic examinations
- D.
Radiologists
- E.
Radiographic equipment
Correct Answer
E. Radiographic equipmentExplanation
Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of radiographic equipment. These tests ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and producing accurate and high-quality images. By regularly evaluating the performance of the equipment, any issues or deficiencies can be identified and addressed, resulting in improved diagnostic accuracy and patient care.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
When performing QC tests on radiographic system components, an optical light meter is used to monitor__________. (010-Monitoring radiographic system components)
- A.
Dark rooms
- B.
View boxes
- C.
Cassette screens
- D.
Film processing
- E.
X-ray tube
Correct Answer
B. View boxesExplanation
An optical light meter is used to monitor the brightness of view boxes when performing QC tests on radiographic system components. View boxes are used to view and interpret radiographic images, and it is important to ensure that they provide adequate illumination for accurate diagnosis. By using an optical light meter, technicians can measure the light output of the view boxes and make adjustments if necessary to maintain optimal brightness levels. This helps to ensure that radiographic images are clear and visible for accurate interpretation by radiologists.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What is the monthly repeat rate for a department that ordered 6,000 sheets of film, used 5,400, and had 270 repeated films for the month?(011-Repeated film analysis)
- A.
25 percent
- B.
22 percent
- C.
20 percent
- D.
4.5 percent
- E.
5 percent
Correct Answer
E. 5 percentExplanation
The monthly repeat rate is calculated by dividing the number of repeated films by the total number of films used, and then multiplying by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, there were 270 repeated films out of 5,400 films used. Dividing 270 by 5,400 gives us 0.05, and multiplying by 100 gives us 5 percent.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
The legal concept that states a supervisor can be held responsible for the actions of his or her subordinate is called________. (014-Malpractice)
- A.
Respondeat superior
- B.
Res ipsa loquitur
- C.
Contributory negligience
- D.
Quid pro quo
Correct Answer
A. Respondeat superiorExplanation
Respondeat superior is a legal concept that holds a supervisor responsible for the actions of his or her subordinate. This means that if a subordinate commits a wrongful act or causes harm while acting within the scope of their employment, the supervisor can be held legally liable for the subordinate's actions. This doctrine is based on the idea that supervisors have a duty to properly train and supervise their subordinates, and should therefore be held accountable for any harm caused by their actions.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Which term is used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism? (016-Infectious agents)
- A.
Infectious state
- B.
Carrier
- C.
Commensalism
- D.
Normal flora
Correct Answer
C. CommensalismExplanation
Commensalism refers to a symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits without harming the other. In the context of the question, the term is used metaphorically to describe the host's ability to tolerate or coexist with an invading organism without being harmed. This suggests that the host's immune system is able to develop a tolerance towards the invading organism, allowing it to live in or on the host without causing disease or harm.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Which type of micro-organism survives by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional micro-organisms? (016-Infectious agents)
- A.
Fungi
- B.
Viruses
- C.
Helminths
- D.
Bacteria
Correct Answer
B. VirusesExplanation
Viruses are a type of microorganism that survive by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional microorganisms. Unlike other microorganisms such as fungi, helminths, and bacteria, viruses are not capable of reproducing on their own. They rely on the host cell's machinery to replicate and produce more viruses. This alteration of the host cell's reproductive structures allows viruses to hijack the cell's resources and use them for their own replication.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which of the following patients would have the greatest risk for development or a nosocomial infection? (018-Preventive measure for nosocomial infections)
- A.
Orthopaedic
- B.
Physical therapy
- C.
Obstetrical
- D.
Chemotherapy
Correct Answer
D. ChemotherapyExplanation
Chemotherapy patients have the greatest risk for development of a nosocomial infection. This is because chemotherapy weakens the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Additionally, chemotherapy often requires frequent hospital visits, increasing the exposure to potential pathogens in healthcare settings.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Which medical term means the absence of infection? (019-What is asepsis?)
- A.
Asepsis
- B.
Antiseptic
- C.
Antimicrobial
- D.
Sepsis
Correct Answer
A. AsepsisExplanation
Asepsis is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of infection. It is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens. Asepsis is important in medical settings to prevent the spread of infections and maintain a sterile environment during surgical procedures or when caring for patients with compromised immune systems. Antiseptic and antimicrobial are related terms but do not specifically mean the absence of infection. Sepsis, on the other hand, refers to a severe infection that has spread throughout the body and is not the opposite of infection.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
Which substance is used to to reduce the number of micro-organisms on living tissue?(019-What is asepsis?)
- A.
Antitoxin
- B.
Antiseptic
- C.
Anticoagulant
- D.
Disinfectant
- E.
Anti-infectant
Correct Answer
B. AntisepticExplanation
Antiseptic is the correct answer because it is a substance used to reduce the number of microorganisms on living tissue. Antiseptics are commonly used in medical settings to clean wounds or prepare the skin before surgery to prevent infection. They are designed to be used on living tissue and are generally less harsh than disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects. Antitoxin is a substance used to neutralize toxins produced by microorganisms, anticoagulant is a substance used to prevent blood from clotting, and anti-infectant is not a commonly used term in the context of reducing microorganisms on living tissue.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
When using appropriate handwashing techniques, after cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should________________. (020-Handwashing)
- A.
Repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps.
- B.
Continue the scrub for a minimum of 10 seconds.
- C.
Rinse the soap off and drop the soap bar in the soap dish.
- D.
Rinse your hands and pat them dry with a paper towel.
Correct Answer
A. Repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps.Explanation
After cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps. This is because cleaning your fingernails alone is not enough to ensure proper hand hygiene. By repeating the lathering and scrubbing steps, you can effectively remove any remaining dirt, germs, and bacteria from your hands, ensuring that they are thoroughly clean.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in what type of isolation?(021-Principles of isolation)
- A.
Forward
- B.
Contact
- C.
Reverse
- D.
Droplet
- E.
Airborne
Correct Answer
C. ReverseExplanation
Reverse isolation is a type of isolation used for patients who are highly susceptible to infection. In reverse isolation, patients are protected from potential pathogens that may be present in the environment or from other patients. This type of isolation is typically used for patients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplantation. The goal of reverse isolation is to minimize the risk of infection and to provide a safe environment for these vulnerable patients.Rate this question:
-
- Computed Tomography Quizzes
- EEG Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- GCP Quizzes
- Healing Quizzes
- Mammography Quizzes
- Medical Coding Quizzes
- Medical Term Quizzes
- Medical Terminology Quizzes
- Medical Training Quizzes
- Medical Vocabulary Quizzes
- MRI Quizzes
- Nuclear Medicine Quizzes
- Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes
- Pathology Quizzes
- Pathophysiology Quizzes
- Phlebotomy Quizzes
- Pulmonary Quizzes
- Radiology Quizzes
- Syndrome Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
Back to top