Radiography728(Cont. Again)

75 Questions | By Marmie728 | Last updated: Dec 5, 2017 | Total Attempts: 93

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In yet another radiography quiz, we’ll put you to the test on the imaging technique that uses X-rays to view the internal structure of objects. Do you know all there is to know about the processes of radiography? Let’s see!

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Questions and Answers

1.

Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave rectified x-ray unit were underexposed, using known correct exposures. A synchronous spinning top test was performed using 100 mA, 1/20 second and 70 kVp, and a 12" arc is observed on the test film. Which of the following is most likely the problem?
- A.
  
  The 1/20 second time station is inaccurate
- B.
  
  The 100 mA station is inaccurate
- C.
  
  The rectifier is not functioning
- D.
  
  The processor needs servicing
2.
In comparison to 60 kVp, 80 kVp will:
1. permit greater exposure latitude
2. produce longer scale contrast
3. produce more scattered radiation
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
3.
An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the:
1. x-ray wavelength
2. exposure rate
3. patient absorption
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
4.

All of the following are related to radiographic contrast except:
- A.
  
  Photon energy
- B.
  
  Grid ratio
- C.
  
  Object image distance
- D.
  
  Focal spot size
5.

Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the longest scale of contrast?
- A.
  
  200 mA, 1/20 second, 70 kVp, 12:1 grid
- B.
  
  500 mA, .002 second, 80 kVp, 16:1 grid
- C.
  
  300 mA, .003 second, 90 kVp, 8:1 grid
- D.
  
  600 mA, .015 second, 70 kVp, 8:1 grid
6.

Which of the following anatomic parts exhibits the highest subject contrast?
- A.
  
  Elbow
- B.
  
  Kidney
- C.
  
  Esophagus
- D.
  
  Lumbar spine
7.

An x-ray image that exhibits many shades of gray from white to black may be described as having:
- A.
  
  Long-scale contrast
- B.
  
  Short-scale contrast
- C.
  
  More density
- D.
  
  Good recorded detail
8.
The advantages of high-kilovoltage chest radiography include:
1. greater exposure latitude
2. longer scale contrast
3. reduced patient dose
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
9.

Which of the following exposure factors is useful to regulate radiography contrast?
- A.
  
  MA
- B.
  
  Exposure time
- C.
  
  MAs
- D.
  
  KVp
10.
Which of the following contribute(s) to the radiographic contrast present on the finished image?
1. tissue density
2. pathology
3. muscle development
- A.
  
  1 and 2 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
11.

The use of optimum kVp for small, medium and large body parts is the premise of:
- A.
  
  Fixed kVp, variable mAs technique chart
- B.
  
  Variable kVp, fixed mAs technique chart
- C.
  
  Fixed mAs, variable body part technique chart
- D.
  
  Fixed mAs, variable SID technique
12.
The function(s) of automatic beam limitation devices include:
1. reducing the production of scattered radiation
2. absorption of scattered radiation
3. changing the quality of the x-ray beam
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
13.

What transforms the violet light emitted by the PSP into the image seen on the CRT?
- A.
  
  The photostimulable phosphor
- B.
  
  The scanner/reader
- C.
  
  The ADC
- D.
  
  The helium-neon laser
14.

The characteristic curve is used to illustrate the relationship between the:
- A.
  
  Source to image receptor distance and the resulting optical density
- B.
  
  Exposure reaching the phosphors and the resulting fluorecence
- C.
  
  Exposure given the film and the resulting optical density
- D.
  
  KVp used and the resulting optical density
15.

What portion of a CR cassette records the radiologic image?
- A.
  
  The photostimulable phosphor
- B.
  
  The scanner/reader
- C.
  
  The emulsion
- D.
  
  The helium-neon laser
16.

That portion of a characteristic curve generally representative of the useful radiographic density range is the:
- A.
  
  Toe portion
- B.
  
  Straight-line portion
- C.
  
  Shoulder portion
- D.
  
  Solarization point
17.

Using the fixed mAs, variable kVp exposure factor technique, a centimeter increase in patient thickness requires what adjustment in technique?
- A.
  
  Increase 2 kVp
- B.
  
  Decrease 2 kVp
- C.
  
  Increase 4 kVp
- D.
  
  Decrease 4 kVp
18.

Which of the following can be used to determine the sensitivity of a particular film emulsion?
- A.
  
  Characteristic curve
- B.
  
  Dose-response curve
- C.
  
  Reciprocity law
- D.
  
  Inverse square law
19.
Which of the following has (have) an effect on recorded detail?
1. focal spot size
2. type of rectification
3. source image distance
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
20.

A wire mesh is used to test:
- A.
  
  Focal spot size
- B.
  
  For screen lag
- C.
  
  Film-screen contact
- D.
  
  Screen speed
21.

Misalignment of the tube-part-image receptor relationship results in:
- A.
  
  Shape distortion
- B.
  
  Size distortion
- C.
  
  Magnification
- D.
  
  Blur
22.
Which of the following is (are) considered geometric factor(s) controlling recorded detail?
1. focal spot size
2. screen speed
3. object-image receptor distance
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
23.

Although the stated focal spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot; focal spot size really varies along the length of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the smallest?
- A.
  
  At its outer edge
- B.
  
  Along the path of the CR
- C.
  
  At the cathode end
- D.
  
  At the anode end
24.

Which of the following will result in the best recorded detail?
- A.
  
  1.5 mm focal spot
- B.
  
  1.0 mm focal spot
- C.
  
  0.6 mm focal spot
- D.
  
  0.3 mm focal spot
25.

All of the following are related to recorded detail except:
- A.
  
  Motion
- B.
  
  Screen speed
- C.
  
  OID
- D.
  
  Grid ratio
26.

Foreshortening may be cause by:
- A.
  
  The radiographic object being placed at an angle to the IR
- B.
  
  Excessive distance between the object and the time receptor
- C.
  
  Insufficient distance between the focus and the IR
- D.
  
  All of the above
27.

When an intensifying screen continues to glow after the x-ray exposure has ended, the screen is said to possess:
- A.
  
  Fluorescence
- B.
  
  Incandescence
- C.
  
  Luminescence
- D.
  
  Lag
28.
Which of the following has an effect on distortion?
1. SID
2. angulation of the x-ray tube
3. angulation of the part
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
29.

The developer temperature in a 90 second automatic processor is usually about:
- A.
  
  75-80 degrees F
- B.
  
  80-85 degrees F
- C.
  
  85-90 degrees F
- D.
  
  90-95 degrees F
30.

The exposed PSP is subject to a narrow laser beam:
- A.
  
  On the display monitor
- B.
  
  In the scanner/reader
- C.
  
  In the cassette
- D.
  
  On the film emulsion
31.
The historgram demonstration of pixel value distribution can be changed/affected by the following:
1. selection of processing algorythm
2. processing delay
3. centering
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
32.
The amount of replenishment solution added to the automatic processor is determined by:
1. size of the film
2. position of the film on tray feeding into processor
3. length of time required for film to enter processor
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
33.

The device used to give a predetermined exposure to film emulsion to test its reponse to processing is called the:
- A.
  
  Sensitometer
- B.
  
  Densitometer
- C.
  
  Stop wedge
- D.
  
  Spinning top
34.

What is the likely cause of films emerging from the automatic processor in a damp condition?
- A.
  
  Air velocity too high
- B.
  
  Unbalanced processing temperatures
- C.
  
  Insufficient hardening action
- D.
  
  Excessive hardening action
35.

The invisible image is converted into a visible manifest image in the:
- A.
  
  Developer
- B.
  
  Stop bath
- C.
  
  First half of the fixer process
- D.
  
  Second half of the fixer process
36.

Grid ratio is defined as the relationship between the height of the lead strip and the:
- A.
  
  Width of the lead strip
- B.
  
  Distance between the lead strips
- C.
  
  Number of lead strips per inch
- D.
  
  Angle of the lead strips
37.

Of the following groups of exposure factors, which will produce the greatest radiographic density?
- A.
  
  200 mA, 0.05 second, 36" SID
- B.
  
  400 mA, 0.05 second, 72" SID
- C.
  
  400 mA, 0.10 second, 72" SID
- D.
  
  200 mA, 0.10 second, 36" SID
38.

How is the SID related to exposure rate and optical density?
- A.
  
  As SID increases, exposure rate increases and optical density increases
- B.
  
  As SID increases, exposure rate increases and optical density decreases
- C.
  
  As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and optical density increases
- D.
  
  As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and optical density decreases
39.

If the radiographer is unable to adjust the mAs, yet needs to double the optical density on a particular image, which of the following would best accomplish this?
- A.
  
  Increase the kVp by 50%
- B.
  
  Increase the kVp by 15%
- C.
  
  Decrease the SID by 25%
- D.
  
  Increase the grid ration
40.

Exposure factors of 85 kBp and 10 mAs are used for a particular nongrid exposure. What should be the new mAs if a 12:1 grid is added?
- A.
  
  20 mAs
- B.
  
  30 mAs
- C.
  
  40 mAs
- D.
  
  50 mAs
41.
An image lacking sufficient optical density may be attributable to insufficient:
1. SID
2. developer temperature
3. kVp
- A.
  
  2 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
42.

The quantity of x-ray photons delivered to the patient in a given exposure is primarily regulated by:
- A.
  
  MAs
- B.
  
  KVp
- C.
  
  SID
- D.
  
  Focal spot size
43.
1. An exposure was made using 200 mA, 0.05 seconds and 75 kVp. Each of the following changes will function to double the radiographic density except:
- A.
  
  Change to 0.1 seconds
- B.
  
  Change to 86 kVp
- C.
  
  Change to 20 mAs
- D.
  
  Change to 100 mA
44.

An exposure was made at 40" SID using 300 mA, 0.12 second and 70 kVp with 200 film/screen combinations and an 8:1 grid. It is desired to repeat the image and in order to produce improved detail, use 48" SID and 100 film/screen combinations. Using 0.25 second exposure and with all other factors remaining constant, what mA will be required to maintain the original radiographic density?
- A.
  
  100
- B.
  
  200
- C.
  
  300
- D.
  
  400
45.
Compared to a low-ratio grid, a higher-grid could have:
1. taller lead strips
2. more distance between lead strips
3. thicker lead strips
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
46.

The legislation that guarentees confidentiality of all patient information is:
- A.
  
  HSS
- B.
  
  HIPAA
- C.
  
  HIPPA
- D.
  
  MQSA
47.

The threat to do harm is referred to as:
- A.
  
  Assault
- B.
  
  Battery
- C.
  
  Slander
- D.
  
  Libel
48.

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found liable for:
- A.
  
  Assault
- B.
  
  Battery
- C.
  
  Intimidation
- D.
  
  Defamation
49.
Patient's rights include which of the following?
1. the right to refuse treatment
2. the right to confidentiality
3. the right ot possess one's medical records
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
50.
Which of the following refer(s) to the patient's right to privacy?
1. patient modesty must be preserved
2. patient dignity must be respected
3. patient confidentiality must be respected
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
51.
Which of the following communicate messages to the patient?
1. tone of voice
2. eye contact
3. appearance of radiographer
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
52.
When an injured patient requires assistance with dressing or undressing, the radiographer must remember to:
1. remove clothing from the uninjured side first
2. place clothing on the injured side first
3. always start with the injured side
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
53.

To reduce the back strain associated with transferring patients from stretcher to x-ray table, you should:
- A.
  
  Pull the patient
- B.
  
  Push the patient
- C.
  
  Hold the patient away from your body and lift
- D.
  
  Bend at the waist and pull
54.

The normal adult rectal temperature is:
- A.
  
  Higher than oral temperature
- B.
  
  Lower than oral temperature
- C.
  
  The same as oral temperature
- D.
  
  The same as axillary temerature
55.

The period of contraction of the heart is termed:
- A.
  
  Systole
- B.
  
  Diastole
- C.
  
  Hypertension
- D.
  
  Dyspnea
56.

A patient who is diaphoretic has:
- A.
  
  Pale, cool, clammy skin
- B.
  
  Hot, dry skin
- C.
  
  Dilated pupils
- D.
  
  Warm, moist skin
57.

A pulse can be detected only by the use of stethoscope in which of the following:
- A.
  
  Wrist
- B.
  
  Neck
- C.
  
  Groin
- D.
  
  Apex of the heart
58.
Rules for good body mechanics when transferring patients include:
1. your feet should be about 12" apart
2. your trunk should lean toward the patient
3. your pelvis should be positioned over your feet
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  2 and 3 only
59.

What number of breaths per minute represents the average rate of respiration for a normal adult?
- A.
  
  8-15
- B.
  
  10-20
- C.
  
  30-60
- D.
  
  60-90
60.
Instruments needed to access vital signs include:
1. tongue blade
2. watch w/second hand
3. thermometer
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
61.
Diseases that can be transmitted by direct contact include:
1. skin infections
2. syphilis
3. malaria
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
62.
In which of the following conditions is protective or reverse isolation indicated?
1. transplant recipient
2. burns
3. leukemia
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
63.
Which of the following are means of indirect transmission of microorganisms?
1. vector
2. fomite
3. airborne
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
64.

What is the single most-effective means of controlling the spread of infectious microorganisms?
- A.
  
  Wearing gloves
- B.
  
  Wearing masks
- C.
  
  Hand washing
- D.
  
  Sterilization
65.

What technique is practiced when all patients are treated as potential sources of infection from blood and other body fluids?
- A.
  
  Standard precautions
- B.
  
  Sterilization
- C.
  
  Disinfection
- D.
  
  Contamination precautions
66.

What is the name of the practice that serves to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria?
- A.
  
  Antisepsis
- B.
  
  Bacteriogenesis
- C.
  
  Sterilization
- D.
  
  Disinfection
67.
Which of the following diseases require(s) airborne precaution?
1. Tb
2. Varicella
3. Rubella
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
68.

Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by:
- A.
  
  Droplet contact
- B.
  
  Airborne route
- C.
  
  A vector
- D.
  
  A vehicle
69.
Which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood?
1. Tb
2. AIDS
3. HBV
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
70.
Which of the following is/are symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply?
1. diaphoresis
2. cyanosis
3. dyspnea
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
71.

A decrease in blood pressure that occurs on suddenly arising from the recumbent position is called:
- A.
  
  Orthostatic hypotension
- B.
  
  Epistaxis
- C.
  
  Vertigo
- D.
  
  Syncope
72.

Which of the following is used to relax the bronchioles and to treat anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest?
- A.
  
  Warfarin
- B.
  
  Hydrocortisone
- C.
  
  Epinephrine
- D.
  
  Nitroglycerin
73.

Which of the following gauge needles has the largest bore?
- A.
  
  12
- B.
  
  18
- C.
  
  20
- D.
  
  23
74.
Parenteral administration of drugs may be performed:
1. intrathecally
2. intravenously
3. orally
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
75.

What precaution should be taken with a vomiting patient?
- A.
  
  Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position
- B.
  
  Place the patient in the Fowler's position
- C.
  
  Turn the patient's head to the side
- D.
  
  Turn the patient prone

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