Radiography728(Cont. Again)

75 Questions | Total Attempts: 93

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Radiography Quizzes & Trivia

In yet another radiography quiz, we’ll put you to the test on the imaging technique that uses X-rays to view the internal structure of objects. Do you know all there is to know about the processes of radiography? Let’s see!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave rectified x-ray unit were underexposed, using known correct exposures. A synchronous spinning top test was performed using 100 mA, 1/20 second and 70 kVp, and a 12" arc is observed on the test film. Which of the following is most likely the problem?
    • A. 

      The 1/20 second time station is inaccurate

    • B. 

      The 100 mA station is inaccurate

    • C. 

      The rectifier is not functioning

    • D. 

      The processor needs servicing

  • 2. 
    In comparison to 60 kVp, 80 kVp will:
    1. permit greater exposure latitude
    2. produce longer scale contrast
    3. produce more scattered radiation
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 3. 
    An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the:
    1. x-ray wavelength
    2. exposure rate
    3. patient absorption
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 4. 
    All of the following are related to radiographic contrast except:
    • A. 

      Photon energy

    • B. 

      Grid ratio

    • C. 

      Object image distance

    • D. 

      Focal spot size

  • 5. 
    Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the longest scale of contrast?
    • A. 

      200 mA, 1/20 second, 70 kVp, 12:1 grid

    • B. 

      500 mA, .002 second, 80 kVp, 16:1 grid

    • C. 

      300 mA, .003 second, 90 kVp, 8:1 grid

    • D. 

      600 mA, .015 second, 70 kVp, 8:1 grid

  • 6. 
    Which of the following anatomic parts exhibits the highest subject contrast?
    • A. 

      Elbow

    • B. 

      Kidney

    • C. 

      Esophagus

    • D. 

      Lumbar spine

  • 7. 
    An x-ray image that exhibits many shades of gray from white to black may be described as having:
    • A. 

      Long-scale contrast

    • B. 

      Short-scale contrast

    • C. 

      More density

    • D. 

      Good recorded detail

  • 8. 
    The advantages of high-kilovoltage chest radiography include:
    1. greater exposure latitude
    2. longer scale  contrast
    3. reduced patient dose
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 9. 
    Which of the following exposure factors is useful to regulate radiography contrast?
    • A. 

      MA

    • B. 

      Exposure time

    • C. 

      MAs

    • D. 

      KVp

  • 10. 
    Which of the following contribute(s) to the radiographic contrast present on the finished image?
    1. tissue density
    2. pathology
    3. muscle development
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 11. 
    The use of optimum kVp for small, medium and large body parts is the premise of:
    • A. 

      Fixed kVp, variable mAs technique chart

    • B. 

      Variable kVp, fixed mAs technique chart

    • C. 

      Fixed mAs, variable body part technique chart

    • D. 

      Fixed mAs, variable SID technique

  • 12. 
    The function(s) of automatic beam limitation devices include:
    1. reducing the production of scattered radiation
    2. absorption of scattered radiation
    3. changing the quality of the x-ray beam
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 13. 
    What transforms the violet light emitted by the PSP into the image seen on the CRT?
    • A. 

      The photostimulable phosphor

    • B. 

      The scanner/reader

    • C. 

      The ADC

    • D. 

      The helium-neon laser

  • 14. 
    The characteristic curve is used to illustrate the relationship between the:
    • A. 

      Source to image receptor distance and the resulting optical density

    • B. 

      Exposure reaching the phosphors and the resulting fluorecence

    • C. 

      Exposure given the film and the resulting optical density

    • D. 

      KVp used and the resulting optical density

  • 15. 
    What portion of a CR cassette records the radiologic image?
    • A. 

      The photostimulable phosphor

    • B. 

      The scanner/reader

    • C. 

      The emulsion

    • D. 

      The helium-neon laser

  • 16. 
    That portion of a characteristic curve generally representative of the useful radiographic density range is the:
    • A. 

      Toe portion

    • B. 

      Straight-line portion

    • C. 

      Shoulder portion

    • D. 

      Solarization point

  • 17. 
    Using the fixed mAs, variable kVp exposure factor technique, a centimeter increase in patient thickness requires what adjustment in technique?
    • A. 

      Increase 2 kVp

    • B. 

      Decrease 2 kVp

    • C. 

      Increase 4 kVp

    • D. 

      Decrease 4 kVp

  • 18. 
    Which of the following can be used to determine the sensitivity of a particular film emulsion?
    • A. 

      Characteristic curve

    • B. 

      Dose-response curve

    • C. 

      Reciprocity law

    • D. 

      Inverse square law

  • 19. 
    Which of the following has (have) an effect on recorded detail?
    1. focal spot size
    2. type of rectification
    3. source image distance
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 20. 
    A wire mesh is used to test:
    • A. 

      Focal spot size

    • B. 

      For screen lag

    • C. 

      Film-screen contact

    • D. 

      Screen speed

  • 21. 
    Misalignment of the tube-part-image receptor relationship results in:
    • A. 

      Shape distortion

    • B. 

      Size distortion

    • C. 

      Magnification

    • D. 

      Blur

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is (are) considered geometric factor(s) controlling recorded detail?
    1. focal spot size
    2. screen speed
    3. object-image receptor distance
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 23. 
    Although the stated focal spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot; focal spot size really varies along the length of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the smallest?
    • A. 

      At its outer edge

    • B. 

      Along the path of the CR

    • C. 

      At the cathode end

    • D. 

      At the anode end

  • 24. 
    Which of the following will result in the best recorded detail?
    • A. 

      1.5 mm focal spot

    • B. 

      1.0 mm focal spot

    • C. 

      0.6 mm focal spot

    • D. 

      0.3 mm focal spot

  • 25. 
    All of the following are related to recorded detail except:
    • A. 

      Motion

    • B. 

      Screen speed

    • C. 

      OID

    • D. 

      Grid ratio

  • 26. 
    Foreshortening may be cause by:
    • A. 

      The radiographic object being placed at an angle to the IR

    • B. 

      Excessive distance between the object and the time receptor

    • C. 

      Insufficient distance between the focus and the IR

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 27. 
    When an intensifying screen continues to glow after the x-ray exposure has ended, the screen is said to possess:
    • A. 

      Fluorescence

    • B. 

      Incandescence

    • C. 

      Luminescence

    • D. 

      Lag

  • 28. 
    Which of the following has an effect on distortion?
    1. SID
    2. angulation of the x-ray tube
    3. angulation of the part
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 29. 
    The developer temperature in a 90 second automatic processor is usually about:
    • A. 

      75-80 degrees F

    • B. 

      80-85 degrees F

    • C. 

      85-90 degrees F

    • D. 

      90-95 degrees F

  • 30. 
    The exposed PSP is subject to a narrow laser beam:
    • A. 

      On the display monitor

    • B. 

      In the scanner/reader

    • C. 

      In the cassette

    • D. 

      On the film emulsion

  • 31. 
    The historgram demonstration of pixel value distribution can be changed/affected by the following:
    1. selection of processing algorythm
    2. processing delay
    3. centering
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 32. 
    The amount of replenishment solution added to the automatic processor is determined by:
    1. size of the film
    2. position of the film on tray feeding into processor
    3. length of time required for film to enter processor
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 33. 
    The device used to give a predetermined exposure to film emulsion to test its reponse to processing is called the:
    • A. 

      Sensitometer

    • B. 

      Densitometer

    • C. 

      Stop wedge

    • D. 

      Spinning top

  • 34. 
    What is the likely cause of films emerging from the automatic processor in a damp condition?
    • A. 

      Air velocity too high

    • B. 

      Unbalanced processing temperatures

    • C. 

      Insufficient hardening action

    • D. 

      Excessive hardening action

  • 35. 
    The invisible image is converted into a visible manifest image in the:
    • A. 

      Developer

    • B. 

      Stop bath

    • C. 

      First half of the fixer process

    • D. 

      Second half of the fixer process

  • 36. 
    Grid ratio is defined as the relationship between the height of the lead strip and the:
    • A. 

      Width of the lead strip

    • B. 

      Distance between the lead strips

    • C. 

      Number of lead strips per inch

    • D. 

      Angle of the lead strips

  • 37. 
    Of the following groups of exposure factors, which will produce the greatest radiographic density?
    • A. 

      200 mA, 0.05 second, 36" SID

    • B. 

      400 mA, 0.05 second, 72" SID

    • C. 

      400 mA, 0.10 second, 72" SID

    • D. 

      200 mA, 0.10 second, 36" SID

  • 38. 
    How is the SID related to exposure rate and optical density?
    • A. 

      As SID increases, exposure rate increases and optical density increases

    • B. 

      As SID increases, exposure rate increases and optical density decreases

    • C. 

      As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and optical density increases

    • D. 

      As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and optical density decreases

  • 39. 
    If the radiographer is unable to adjust the mAs, yet needs to double the optical density on a particular image, which of the following would best accomplish this?
    • A. 

      Increase the kVp by 50%

    • B. 

      Increase the kVp by 15%

    • C. 

      Decrease the SID by 25%

    • D. 

      Increase the grid ration

  • 40. 
    Exposure factors of 85 kBp and 10 mAs are used for a particular nongrid exposure. What should be the new mAs if a 12:1 grid is added?
    • A. 

      20 mAs

    • B. 

      30 mAs

    • C. 

      40 mAs

    • D. 

      50 mAs

  • 41. 
    An image lacking sufficient optical density may be attributable to insufficient:
    1. SID
    2. developer temperature
    3. kVp
    • A. 

      2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 42. 
    The quantity of x-ray photons delivered to the patient in a given exposure is primarily regulated by:
    • A. 

      MAs

    • B. 

      KVp

    • C. 

      SID

    • D. 

      Focal spot size

  • 43. 
    1. An exposure was made using 200 mA, 0.05 seconds and 75 kVp. Each of the following changes will function to double the radiographic density except:
    • A. 

      Change to 0.1 seconds

    • B. 

      Change to 86 kVp

    • C. 

      Change to 20 mAs

    • D. 

      Change to 100 mA

  • 44. 
    An exposure was made at 40" SID using 300 mA, 0.12 second and 70 kVp with 200 film/screen combinations and an 8:1 grid. It is desired to repeat the image and in order to produce improved detail, use 48" SID and 100 film/screen combinations. Using 0.25 second exposure and with all other factors remaining constant, what mA will be required to maintain the original radiographic density?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      200

    • C. 

      300

    • D. 

      400

  • 45. 
    Compared to a low-ratio grid, a higher-grid could have:
    1. taller lead strips
    2. more distance between lead strips
    3. thicker lead strips
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 46. 
    The legislation that guarentees confidentiality of all patient information is:
    • A. 

      HSS

    • B. 

      HIPAA

    • C. 

      HIPPA

    • D. 

      MQSA

  • 47. 
    The threat to do harm is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Assault

    • B. 

      Battery

    • C. 

      Slander

    • D. 

      Libel

  • 48. 
    A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found liable for:
    • A. 

      Assault

    • B. 

      Battery

    • C. 

      Intimidation

    • D. 

      Defamation

  • 49. 
    Patient's rights include which of the following?
    1. the right to refuse treatment
    2. the right to confidentiality
    3. the right ot possess one's medical records
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 50. 
    Which of the following refer(s) to the patient's right to privacy?
    1. patient modesty must be preserved
    2. patient dignity must be respected
    3. patient confidentiality must be respected
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 51. 
    Which of the following communicate messages to the patient?
    1. tone of voice
    2. eye contact
    3. appearance of radiographer
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 52. 
    When an injured patient requires assistance with dressing or undressing, the radiographer must remember to:
    1. remove clothing from the uninjured side first
    2. place clothing on the injured side first
    3. always start with the injured side
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 53. 
    To reduce the back strain associated with transferring patients from stretcher to x-ray table, you should:
    • A. 

      Pull the patient

    • B. 

      Push the patient

    • C. 

      Hold the patient away from your body and lift

    • D. 

      Bend at the waist and pull

  • 54. 
    The normal adult rectal temperature is:
    • A. 

      Higher than oral temperature

    • B. 

      Lower than oral temperature

    • C. 

      The same as oral temperature

    • D. 

      The same as axillary temerature

  • 55. 
    The period of contraction of the heart is termed:
    • A. 

      Systole

    • B. 

      Diastole

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Dyspnea

  • 56. 
    A patient who is diaphoretic has:
    • A. 

      Pale, cool, clammy skin

    • B. 

      Hot, dry skin

    • C. 

      Dilated pupils

    • D. 

      Warm, moist skin

  • 57. 
    A pulse can be detected only by the use of stethoscope in which of the following:
    • A. 

      Wrist

    • B. 

      Neck

    • C. 

      Groin

    • D. 

      Apex of the heart

  • 58. 
    Rules for good body mechanics when transferring patients include:
    1. your feet should be about 12" apart
    2. your trunk should lean toward the patient
    3. your pelvis should be positioned over your feet
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 59. 
    What number of breaths per minute represents the average rate of respiration for a normal adult?
    • A. 

      8-15

    • B. 

      10-20

    • C. 

      30-60

    • D. 

      60-90

  • 60. 
    Instruments needed to access vital signs include:
    1. tongue blade
    2. watch w/second hand
    3. thermometer
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 61. 
    Diseases that can be transmitted by direct contact include:
    1. skin infections
    2. syphilis
    3. malaria
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 62. 
    In which of the following conditions is protective or reverse isolation indicated?
    1. transplant recipient
    2. burns
    3. leukemia
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 63. 
    Which of the following are means of indirect transmission of microorganisms?
    1. vector
    2. fomite
    3. airborne
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 64. 
    What is the single most-effective means of controlling the spread of infectious microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Wearing gloves

    • B. 

      Wearing masks

    • C. 

      Hand washing

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 65. 
    What technique is practiced when all patients are treated as potential sources of infection from blood and other body fluids?
    • A. 

      Standard precautions

    • B. 

      Sterilization

    • C. 

      Disinfection

    • D. 

      Contamination precautions

  • 66. 
    What is the name of the practice that serves to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria?
    • A. 

      Antisepsis

    • B. 

      Bacteriogenesis

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Disinfection

  • 67. 
    Which of the following diseases require(s) airborne precaution?
    1. Tb
    2. Varicella
    3. Rubella
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 68. 
    Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by:
    • A. 

      Droplet contact

    • B. 

      Airborne route

    • C. 

      A vector

    • D. 

      A vehicle

  • 69. 
    Which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood?
    1. Tb
    2. AIDS
    3. HBV
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 70. 
    Which of the following is/are symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply?
    1. diaphoresis
    2. cyanosis
    3. dyspnea
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 71. 
    A decrease in blood pressure that occurs on suddenly arising from the recumbent position is called:
    • A. 

      Orthostatic hypotension

    • B. 

      Epistaxis

    • C. 

      Vertigo

    • D. 

      Syncope

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is used to relax the bronchioles and to treat anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest?
    • A. 

      Warfarin

    • B. 

      Hydrocortisone

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Nitroglycerin

  • 73. 
    Which of the following gauge needles has the largest bore?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      23

  • 74. 
    Parenteral administration of drugs may be performed:
    1. intrathecally
    2. intravenously
    3. orally
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 75. 
    What precaution should be taken with a vomiting patient?
    • A. 

      Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

    • B. 

      Place the patient in the Fowler's position

    • C. 

      Turn the patient's head to the side

    • D. 

      Turn the patient prone