Test Your Knowledge On Network Administrator Quiz
The role of a network administrator is to manage and ensure that everything within a computer network works well. In addition, responsible for solving any problems that may arise. Take up the quiz and test your knowledge on network administration.
- 1.
What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?
- A.
Aaa new-model global configuration command.
- B.
Change to the configuration register.
- C.
Password encryption service.
- D.
Ability to access ROMmon
Correct Answer
D. Ability to access ROMmonExplanation
The "no service password-recovery" command disables the ability to access ROMmon. ROMmon is a mode in Cisco devices that allows users to recover lost passwords or perform other troubleshooting tasks. By disabling the password-recovery service, users will no longer be able to access ROMmon and perform any related tasks.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?
- A.
All vty ports are automatically configured for SSH to provide secure management.
- B.
The general-purpose key size must be specified for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general-keys mo command.
- C.
The keys must be zeroized to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.
- D.
The generated keys can be used by SSH.
Correct Answer
D. The generated keys can be used by SSH.Explanation
After RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management, the generated keys can be used by SSH. This means that the SSH protocol can utilize the generated RSA keys for authentication and encryption purposes, ensuring secure communication between the router and the management device.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which action best describe a MAC address spoofing attack?
- A.
Altering the MAC address of an attacking host to match that of a legitimate host.
- B.
Bombarding a switch with fake source MAC addresses.
- C.
Forcing the election of a rogue root bridge
- D.
Flooding the LAN with excessive traffic
Correct Answer
A. Altering the MAC address of an attacking host to match that of a legitimate host.Explanation
A MAC address spoofing attack involves changing the MAC address of the attacking host to mimic the MAC address of a legitimate host. This allows the attacker to deceive network devices into believing that the attacking host is the legitimate host, enabling them to gain unauthorized access or perform malicious activities on the network. This technique is commonly used to bypass security measures such as MAC address filtering and gain unauthorized access to a network.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What functionality is provided by Cisco SPAN in a switched network?
- A.
It mitigates MAC address overflow attacks.
- B.
It mirrors traffic that passes through a switch port or VLAN to another port for traffic analysis.
- C.
It protects the switched network from receiving BPDUs on ports that should not be receiving them.
- D.
It inspects voice protocols to ensure that SIP, SCCP, H.323, and MGCP requests conform to voice standards.
- E.
It copies traffic that passes through a switch interface and sends the data directly to a syslog or SNMP server for analysis.
Correct Answer
B. It mirrors traffic that passes through a switch port or VLAN to another port for traffic analysis.Explanation
Cisco SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) is a functionality that allows for the mirroring of traffic passing through a switch port or VLAN to another port for traffic analysis. This feature is commonly used for network monitoring, troubleshooting, and security analysis purposes. By mirroring the traffic, network administrators can capture and analyze the data without disrupting the normal flow of network traffic. This helps in identifying and resolving network issues, monitoring bandwidth usage, and detecting any suspicious or malicious activity on the network.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What precaution should be considered when the no service password–recovery command has been issued on an IOS device?
- A.
The passwords in the configuration files are in clear text.
- B.
IOS recovery requires a new system flash with the IOS image.
- C.
When the password is lost, access to the device will be terminated.
- D.
The device must use simple password authentication and cannot have
Correct Answer
B. IOS recovery requires a new system flash with the IOS image.Explanation
When the "no service password-recovery" command is issued on an IOS device, it disables the ability to recover passwords through the usual password recovery process. This means that if the password is lost, the only way to regain access to the device is by performing a complete system flash with a new IOS image. This precaution is taken to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot easily gain access to the device by recovering the password from the configuration files, which are stored in clear text.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth. What is the effect of this setting?
- A.
Authenticates a packet using the SHA algorithm only.
- B.
Authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string.
- C.
Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method.
- D.
Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC MD5 or HMAC SHA algorithms and encrypts the packet using either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms.
Correct Answer
C. Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method.Explanation
Setting a security level of "auth" in SNMPv3 means that packets will be authenticated using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method. This ensures that the packets are not tampered with during transmission and verifies their integrity. The HMAC with MD5 method and the SHA method are both cryptographic algorithms used for packet authentication in SNMPv3.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is implemented?
- A.
Remote-access GRE VPN
- B.
Remote-access IPsec VPN
- C.
Remote-access SSL VPN
- D.
Site-to-site GRE VPN
- E.
Site-to-site IPsec VPN
- F.
Site-to-site SSL VPN
Correct Answer
B. Remote-access IPsec VPNExplanation
The given exhibit does not provide any specific information about the type of VPN implemented. Therefore, an explanation cannot be provided.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the commands that are shown on R1?
- A.
Authentication with the NTP master will be successful, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master.
- B.
Authentication with the NTP master will be successful, but R1 will not get the time from the NTP master.
- C.
Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master.
- D.
Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will not get the time from the NTP master.
Correct Answer
C. Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master.Explanation
The given answer states that authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will still be able to get the time from the NTP master. This implies that the authentication process is not mandatory for R1 to receive the time from the NTP master.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What login enhancement configuration command helps successive login DoS attacks?
- A.
Exec-timeout
- B.
Login block-for
- C.
Privilege exec level
- D.
Service password-encryption
Correct Answer
B. Login block-forExplanation
The "login block-for" command helps prevent successive login Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. This command configures the router to block further login attempts from an IP address for a specified period of time after a certain number of failed login attempts. This helps protect against brute-force attacks where an attacker tries multiple login attempts to gain unauthorized access. By blocking login attempts from a specific IP address for a specific time, it reduces the chances of a successful DoS attack.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What are access attacks?
- A.
Attacks that prevent users from accessing network services
- B.
Attacks that modify or corrupt traffic as that traffic travels across the network
- C.
Attacks that exploit vulnerabilities to gain access to sensitive information
- D.
Attacks that involve the unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems
Correct Answer
C. Attacks that exploit vulnerabilities to gain access to sensitive informationExplanation
Access attacks refer to malicious activities that exploit vulnerabilities in order to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information. These attacks target weaknesses in security systems, such as weak passwords, unpatched software, or misconfigured permissions, to gain entry into a network or system. Once inside, attackers can steal, modify, or manipulate sensitive data, causing significant harm to individuals or organizations. These attacks can have severe consequences, including financial loss, reputational damage, and compromised privacy. It is crucial for organizations to implement robust security measures to protect against access attacks and regularly update their systems to patch any vulnerabilities.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message? Nov 30 11:00:24 EST: %SYS-5-CONFIG-I: Configured from console by vty0 (10.64.2.2)
- A.
This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition
- B.
This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed
- C.
This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.
- D.
This is an error message indicating the system is unusable
Correct Answer
A. This is a notification message for a normal but significant conditionExplanation
The message in the syslog server indicates that a configuration change was made from the console by vty0 (10.64.2.2) at 11:00:24 EST on November 30th. The message is classified as a "notification message for a normal but significant condition", suggesting that the configuration change is important but not urgent or problematic.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which three major sub policies should comprise a comprehensive security policy that meets the security needs of a typical enterprise? (Choose three)
- A.
End-user policies
- B.
Departmental policies
- C.
Governing policies
- D.
Human resource policies
- E.
Organizational policies
- F.
Technical policies
Correct Answer(s)
A. End-user policies
C. Governing policies
F. Technical policiesExplanation
A comprehensive security policy for a typical enterprise should include three major sub policies: end-user policies, governing policies, and technical policies.
End-user policies focus on the actions and responsibilities of individual employees, such as password management, acceptable use of technology, and data handling procedures.
Governing policies establish the overall framework for security management, including roles and responsibilities, risk assessment and management, incident response, and compliance with laws and regulations.
Technical policies address the specific technical controls and configurations needed to protect the enterprise's information systems and infrastructure, including network security, access controls, encryption, and vulnerability management.
These three sub policies together ensure a holistic approach to security that covers both the human and technical aspects of protecting the enterprise's assets and data.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the commands that are shown on router R1. At what trap level is the logging function set? R1(config)# logging host 10.1.1.17 R1(config)# logging trap errors R1(config)# logging source-interface loopback 0 R1(config)# logging on
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
6
Correct Answer
B. 3Explanation
The trap level for the logging function is set to level 3. This is indicated by the command "logging trap errors" which sets the logging level to errors. Level 3 corresponds to the errors severity level, which means that only log messages with a severity level of errors and higher will be logged and sent to the configured logging host.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which mitigation technique can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks?
- A.
Root guard
- B.
BPDU guard
- C.
Storm control
- D.
Switchport security
Correct Answer
D. Switchport securityExplanation
Switchport security is a mitigation technique that can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks. This technique allows the network administrator to limit the number of MAC addresses allowed on a switch port, preventing an attacker from flooding the MAC table with fake addresses and causing an overflow. By configuring switchport security, the switch will only learn and allow a specified number of MAC addresses on a port, effectively preventing MAC table overflow attacks.Rate this question:
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- 15.
An organization requires that individual users be authorized to issue specific Cisco IOS commands. Which AAA protocols support this requirement?
- A.
TACACS+ because it separates authentication and authorization, allowing for more customization.
- B.
RADIUS because it supports multiple protocols, including ARA and NetBEUI.
- C.
TACACS+ because it supports extensive accounting on a per-user or per-group basis.
- D.
RADIUS because it implements authentication and authorization as one proces
Correct Answer
A. TACACS+ because it separates authentication and authorization, allowing for more customization.Explanation
TACACS+ is the correct answer because it separates authentication and authorization, which allows for more customization. This means that individual users can be authorized to issue specific Cisco IOS commands based on their authentication credentials. TACACS+ also supports extensive accounting on a per-user or per-group basis, providing additional control and monitoring capabilities. RADIUS, on the other hand, implements authentication and authorization as one process and does not offer the same level of customization and accounting features as TACACS+.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IPS configuration that is provided, which statement is true?
- A.
The signatures in all categories will be retired and not be used by the IPS.
- B.
The signatures in all categories will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.
- C.
Only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.
- D.
The signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be retired and the remaining signatures will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS
Correct Answer
C. Only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.Explanation
Based on the provided IPS configuration, only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS. The other categories of signatures will be retired and not used by the IPS.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided configuration, which traffic will be examined by the IPS that is configured on router R1?
- A.
Traffic that is initiated from LAN 1 and LAN 2
- B.
Http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1
- C.
Return traffic from the web server
- D.
Traffic that is destined to LAN 1 and LAN 2
- E.
No traffic will be inspected
Correct Answer
B. Http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1Explanation
The IPS that is configured on router R1 will only examine http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring ZPF using the SDM Basic Firewall Configuration wizard. Which command is generated after the administrator selects the Finish button?
- A.
Zone security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0
- B.
Zone security Out-zone on interface S0/0/0
- C.
Zone member security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0
- D.
Zone member security Out-zone on interface s0/0/0
Correct Answer
C. Zone member security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0 -
- 19.
Which two statements describe appropriate general guidelines for configuring and applying ACLs? (Choose two)
- A.
Multiple ACLs per protocol and per direction can be applied to an interface.
- B.
If an ACL contains no permit statements, all traffic is denied by default.
- C.
The most specific ACL statements should be entered first because of the top-down sequential nature of ACLs.
- D.
Standard ACLs are placed closest to the source, whereas Extended ACLs are placed closest to the destination.
- E.
If a single ACL is to be applied to multiple interfaces, it must be configured with a unique number for each interface.
Correct Answer(s)
B. If an ACL contains no permit statements, all traffic is denied by default.
C. The most specific ACL statements should be entered first because of the top-down sequential nature of ACLs.Explanation
The first statement is true because if an Access Control List (ACL) does not have any permit statements, it will deny all traffic by default. This means that unless explicitly allowed, all traffic will be blocked.
The second statement is also true because ACLs are processed in a top-down sequential manner. This means that the first matching statement is applied, and if there are more specific statements earlier in the ACL, they should be entered first to ensure they are evaluated before more general statements.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which three statements are characteristics of the IPsec protocol? (Choose three)
- A.
IPsec is a framework of open standards.
- B.
IPsec is implemented at Layer 4 of the OSI model.
- C.
IPsec ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm.
- D.
IPsec uses digital certificates to guarantee confidentiality
- E.
IPsec is bound to specific encryption algorithms, such as 3DES and AES.
- F.
IPsec authenticates users and devices that communicate independently
Correct Answer(s)
A. IPsec is a framework of open standards.
C. IPsec ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm.
F. IPsec authenticates users and devices that communicate independentlyExplanation
IPsec is a framework of open standards, meaning that it is not limited to a specific vendor and can be implemented by multiple organizations. It ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm, which verifies that the data has not been tampered with during transmission. Additionally, IPsec authenticates users and devices that communicate independently, providing an extra layer of security by verifying the identities of the communicating parties.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which three additional precautions should be taken when remote access is required in addition to local access of networking devices? (Choose three)
- A.
A legal notice should not be displayed when access is obtained.
- B.
All activity to the specified ports that are required for access should be unrestricted.
- C.
All configuration activities should required the use of SSH or HTTPS.
- D.
All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network.
- E.
The number of failed login attempts should not be limited, but the time between attempts should.
- F.
Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain access
Correct Answer(s)
C. All configuration activities should required the use of SSH or HTTPS.
D. All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network.
F. Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain accessExplanation
The three additional precautions that should be taken when remote access is required are:
1) All configuration activities should require the use of SSH or HTTPS. This ensures that the remote access is secure and encrypted, protecting the network devices from unauthorized access or tampering.
2) All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network. By segregating administrative traffic to a separate network, it reduces the risk of unauthorized access or interference from other network traffic.
3) Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain access. This adds an extra layer of security by allowing only specific hosts and protocols to access the network devices remotely, minimizing the risk of unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?
- A.
The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command.
- B.
The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.
- C.
The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM.
- D.
When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secure FTP location
Correct Answer
A. The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command.Explanation
The result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature is that the Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command. This means that the image file cannot be easily accessed or tampered with, providing an additional layer of security for the network device.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which statement describes a factor to be considered when configuring a zone-based policy firewall?
- A.
An interface can belong to multiple zones.
- B.
The router always filters the traffic between interfaces in the same zone.
- C.
The CBAC ip inspect command can coexist with ZPF as long as it is used on interfaces that are in the same security zones.
- D.
A zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command.
Correct Answer
D. A zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command.Explanation
When configuring a zone-based policy firewall, a zone must be configured with the "zone security global" command before it can be used in the "zone-member security" command. This means that before assigning interfaces to specific zones, the zone itself must be created and configured with the necessary security parameters. Only then can the interfaces be assigned to that zone using the "zone-member security" command.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What are three common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three)
- A.
Authenticating administrator access to the router console port, and vty ports
- B.
Authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections
- C.
Implementing public key infrastructure to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using digital certificates
- D.
Implementing command authorization with TACACS+
- E.
Securing the router by locking down all unused services
- F.
Tracking Cisco Netflow accounting statistics
Correct Answer(s)
A. Authenticating administrator access to the router console port, and vty ports
B. Authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections
D. Implementing command authorization with TACACS+Explanation
The three common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers are authenticating administrator access to the router console port and vty ports, authenticating remote users accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections, and implementing command authorization with TACACS+. These examples demonstrate the use of AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) protocols to ensure secure access control and authentication for both administrators and remote users. By implementing these measures, the router can verify the identity of users, control their access privileges, and track their activities for auditing and accounting purposes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded?
- A.
The violation mode for the port is set to restrict.
- B.
The MAC address table is cleared, and the new MAC address is entered into the table.
- C.
The port remains enabled, but the bandwidth is throttled until the old MAC addresses are aged out.
- D.
The port is shut down
Correct Answer
D. The port is shut downExplanation
When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch and the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded, the default action is to shut down the port. This means that the port will be disabled and no traffic will be allowed through it until the issue is resolved. This helps to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network and ensures network security.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three)
- A.
AH uses IP protocol 51.
- B.
AH provides encryption and integrity.
- C.
AH provides integrity and authentication.
- D.
ESP uses UDP protocol 50.
- E.
ESP requires both authentication and encryption.
- F.
ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity
Correct Answer(s)
A. AH uses IP protocol 51.
C. AH provides integrity and authentication.
F. ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrityExplanation
AH (Authentication Header) is a protocol within the IPsec framework that provides integrity and authentication. It uses IP protocol 51. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) is another protocol within IPsec that provides encryption, authentication, and integrity. Therefore, the correct statements are AH uses IP protocol 51, AH provides integrity and authentication, and ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levels for assigning command authorization? (Choose three.)
- A.
There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router.
- B.
The root user must be assigned to each privilege level defined.
- C.
Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users
- D.
Views are required to define the CLI commands that each user can access.
- E.
Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process
- F.
It is required that all 16 privilege levels be defined, whether they are used
Correct Answer(s)
A. There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router.
C. Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users
E. Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious processExplanation
The first statement is correct because using privilege levels does not provide access control to specific interfaces on a router. The second statement is correct because commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users. The sixth statement is correct because it is not required to define all 16 privilege levels, only the ones that are actually used.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which Cisco IOS configuration option instructs the IPS to compile a signature category named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic?
- A.
R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false
- B.
R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false
- C.
R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true
- D.
R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true
Correct Answer
B. R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired falseExplanation
This configuration option enables the IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) on the Cisco IOS device and specifies the signature category "ios_ips" as "basic". The "retired false" command ensures that the signatures in this category are active and not retired. This allows the IPS to compile the "ios_ips" category into memory and use it to scan traffic.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured router R1 as indicated. However, SDEE messages fail to log. Which solution corrects this problem?
- A.
Issue the logging on command in global configuration.
- B.
Issue the ip ips notify sdee command in global configuration.
- C.
Issue the ip audit notify log command in global configuration.
- D.
Issue the clear ip ips sdee events command to clear the SDEE buffer.
Correct Answer
B. Issue the ip ips notify sdee command in global configuration.Explanation
The correct solution to this problem is to issue the "ip ips notify sdee" command in global configuration. This command enables the router to generate and send SDEE messages to a management station. By enabling SDEE notifications, the administrator will be able to receive and log SDEE messages, resolving the issue of SDEE messages failing to log.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which three principles are enabled by a Cisco Self-Defending Network? (Choose three.)
- A.
Adaptability
- B.
Collaboration
- C.
Insulation
- D.
Integration
- E.
Mitigation
- F.
Scalability
Correct Answer(s)
A. Adaptability
B. Collaboration
D. IntegrationExplanation
A Cisco Self-Defending Network enables three principles: adaptability, collaboration, and integration. Adaptability refers to the network's ability to adjust and respond to changing threats and conditions. Collaboration emphasizes the network's capability to work together with other systems and devices to enhance security. Integration refers to the network's ability to incorporate various security technologies and solutions into a unified system. These three principles collectively enhance the network's ability to defend against threats and ensure a secure environment.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What are two disadvantages of using network IPS?(Choose two.)
- A.
Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful.
- B.
Network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic.
- C.
Network IPS is operating system-dependent and must be customized for each platform.
- D.
Network IPS is unable to provide a clear indication of the extent to which the network is being attacked.
- E.
Network IPS sensors are difficult to deploy whennew networks are added.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful.
B. Network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic.Explanation
One disadvantage of using a network IPS is that it has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful. This means that if an attack is conducted using fragmented packets, the network IPS may not be able to accurately detect and analyze the attack. Another disadvantage is that network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic. This means that if an attack is conducted using encrypted communication, the network IPS may not be able to inspect the traffic and detect any malicious activity.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which access list statement permits HTTP traffic that is sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 4300 and destined to host 192.168.30.10?
- A.
Access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 4300
- B.
Access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255
- C.
Access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
- D.
Access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
- E.
Access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.30.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 4300
Correct Answer
D. Access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq wwwExplanation
The correct answer is "access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www". This access list statement permits TCP traffic from the source IP address 10.1.128.0/23 (10.1.128.0 to 10.1.129.255) on port 4300 to the destination IP address 192.168.30.0/28 (192.168.30.0 to 192.168.30.15) on port www (port 80).Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which type of SDM rule is created to govern the traffic that can enter and leave the network based on protocol and port number?
- A.
NAC rule
- B.
NAT rule
- C.
IPsec rule
- D.
Access rule
Correct Answer
D. Access ruleExplanation
An access rule is created to govern the traffic that can enter and leave the network based on protocol and port number. Access rules are commonly used in network security to control and manage the flow of traffic within a network. These rules can be configured to allow or deny specific protocols and port numbers, ensuring that only authorized traffic is permitted to enter or leave the network.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Refer to the exhibit. When configuring SSH on a router using SDM from the Configure menu, which two steps are required? (Choose two.)
- A.
Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH to generate the RSA keys.
- B.
Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY to specify SSH as the input and output protocol.
- C.
Choose Additional Tasks > Router Properties > Netflow to generate the RSA keys.
- D.
Choose Additional Tasks > Router Properties > Logging to specify SSH as the input and output protocol.
- E.
Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > AAA to generate the RSA keys.
- F.
Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > Management Access to specify SSH as the input and output protocol
Correct Answer(s)
A. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH to generate the RSA keys.
B. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY to specify SSH as the input and output protocol.Explanation
To configure SSH on a router using SDM, the first step is to choose "Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH" to generate the RSA keys. This step is necessary to establish secure communication between the router and the SSH clients. The second step is to choose "Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY" to specify SSH as the input and output protocol. This step is required to enable SSH access on the virtual terminal lines of the router, allowing remote management and configuration using SSH.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the configuration on switch S1? (Choose two.)
- A.
Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth.
- B.
Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts and broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.
- C.
Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.
- D.
Port Fa0/5 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth.
- E.
Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts and multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of 2,000,000 packets per second.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth.
C. Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.Explanation
The first statement is correct because it states that storm control for broadcasts on port Fa0/5 will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth. The second statement is also correct because it states that storm control for multicasts on port Fa0/6 will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three things occur if a user attempts to log in four times within 10 seconds using an incorrect password? (Choose three.)
- A.
Subsequent virtual login attempts from the user are blocked for 60 seconds.
- B.
During the quiet mode, an administrator can virtually log in from any host on network 172.16.1.0/24.
- C.
Subsequent console login attempts are blocked for 60 seconds.
- D.
A message is generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user.
- E.
During the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.
- F.
No user can log in virtually from any host for 60 seconds.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Subsequent virtual login attempts from the user are blocked for 60 seconds.
D. A message is generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user.
E. During the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.Explanation
If a user attempts to log in four times within 10 seconds using an incorrect password, three things will occur. First, subsequent virtual login attempts from the user will be blocked for 60 seconds. Second, a message will be generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user. Lastly, during the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which type of Layer 2 attack makes a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN?
- A.
LAN storm
- B.
MAC address spoofing
- C.
MAC address table overflow
- D.
STP manipulation
- E.
VLAN attack
Correct Answer
D. STP manipulationExplanation
STP manipulation is a type of Layer 2 attack where an attacker manipulates the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to make their host appear as the root bridge for a LAN. By doing so, the attacker can control the flow of network traffic and potentially intercept or modify data. This attack can disrupt the normal operation of the network and compromise its security.Rate this question:
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- 38.
An organization has mobile workers who use corporate-owned laptops at customer sites to view inventory and place orders. Which type of VPN allows these workers to securely access all of the client/server applications of the organization?
- A.
Clientless SSL VPN
- B.
Remote-access IPsec VPN
- C.
Site-to-site IPsec VPN
- D.
HTTPS-enabled SSL VPN
Correct Answer
B. Remote-access IPsec VPNExplanation
A remote-access IPsec VPN is the correct answer because it allows mobile workers to securely access all of the client/server applications of the organization. This type of VPN establishes a secure connection between the mobile worker's laptop and the organization's network, allowing them to access resources and applications as if they were directly connected to the network. It provides encryption and authentication to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted over the VPN connection.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which two guidelines relate to in-band network management? (Choose two.)
- A.
Apply in-band management only to devices that must be managed on the production network.
- B.
Implement separate network segments for the production network and the management network.
- C.
Attach all network devices to the same management network.
- D.
Use IPSec, SSH,or SSL
Correct Answer(s)
A. Apply in-band management only to devices that must be managed on the production network.
D. Use IPSec, SSH,or SSLExplanation
The first guideline states that in-band management should only be applied to devices that need to be managed on the production network. This means that not all devices on the network need to be managed using in-band management.
The second guideline suggests implementing separate network segments for the production network and the management network. This separation helps to ensure that the management network remains isolated and secure from the production network.
Using IPSec, SSH, or SSL is also recommended for in-band network management. These protocols provide secure communication channels for managing network devices, protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which three commands are required to configure SSH on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
- A.
Ip domain-name name in global configuration mode
- B.
Transport input ssh on a vty line
- C.
No ip domain-lookup in global configuration mode
- D.
Password password on a vty line
- E.
Service password-encryption in global configuration mode
- F.
Crypto key generate rsa in global configuration mode
Correct Answer(s)
A. Ip domain-name name in global configuration mode
B. Transport input ssh on a vty line
F. Crypto key generate rsa in global configuration modeExplanation
To configure SSH on a Cisco router, three commands are required. Firstly, "ip domain-name name" is used in global configuration mode to set the domain name for the router. Secondly, "transport input ssh" is used on a vty line to allow SSH as the transport protocol for remote connections. Lastly, "crypto key generate rsa" is used in global configuration mode to generate the RSA key pair for secure SSH communication. These three commands are essential for configuring SSH on a Cisco router.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An administrator needs to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. Which privilege command is used to create this custom account?
- A.
Privilege exec level 0
- B.
Privilege exec level 1
- C.
Privilege exec level 2
- D.
Privilege exec level 15
Correct Answer
C. Privilege exec level 2Explanation
The privilege exec level 2 command is used to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. This command sets the privilege level for the user account to 2, which allows them to execute a wide range of commands, but not the most sensitive or critical commands reserved for a privilege level of 15.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured a standard ACL on R1 and applied it to interface serial 0/0/0 in the outbound direction. What happens to traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 that does not match the configured ACL statements?
- A.
The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address.
- B.
The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address and portnumber.
- C.
The source IP address is checked and, if a match is not found, traffic isrouted out interface serial 0/0/1.
- D.
The traffic is dropped
Correct Answer
D. The traffic is droppedExplanation
When a standard ACL is applied to an interface in the outbound direction, it only filters traffic based on the source IP address. If the traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 does not match any of the configured ACL statements, it will not be allowed to pass through and will be dropped. The destination IP address or port number is not considered in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which statement describes configuring ACLs to control Telnet traffic destined to the router itself?
- A.
The ACL must be applied to each vty line individually.
- B.
The ACL is applied to the Telnet port with the ip access-group command.
- C.
Apply the ACL to the vty lines without thein orout option required when applying ACLs to interfaces.
- D.
The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in thein direction to prevent anunwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port.
Correct Answer
D. The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in thein direction to prevent anunwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port.Explanation
The correct answer is that the ACL should be applied to all vty lines in the in direction to prevent an unwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port. This means that the ACL should be configured to filter incoming Telnet traffic on all virtual terminal lines (vty lines) on the router. By applying the ACL in the in direction, any Telnet traffic attempting to connect to the router will be filtered and only allowed if it meets the specified criteria in the ACL. This helps to enhance the security of the router by preventing unauthorized access through Telnet.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which three statements describe SSL-based VPNs? (Choose three.)
- A.
A symmetric algorithms are used for authentication and key exchange.
- B.
It is impossible to configure SSL and IPsec VPNs concurrently on the samerouter.
- C.
Special-purpose client software is required on the client machine.
- D.
Symmetric algorithms are used for bulk encryption.
- E.
The authentication process uses hashing technologies.
- F.
The application programming interface is used to extensively modify the SSLclient software.
- G.
The primary restriction of SSL VPNs is that they are currently supported only in hardware
Correct Answer(s)
A. A symmetric algorithms are used for authentication and key exchange.
D. Symmetric algorithms are used for bulk encryption.
E. The authentication process uses hashing technologies.Explanation
SSL-based VPNs use symmetric algorithms for authentication and key exchange, which ensures secure communication between the client and the server. Additionally, symmetric algorithms are used for bulk encryption, which protects the data during transmission. The authentication process in SSL VPNs utilizes hashing technologies, which verify the identity of the client and ensure the integrity of the data. Special-purpose client software is required on the client machine to establish the SSL connection. However, the statement about configuring SSL and IPsec VPNs concurrently on the same router is incorrect, as it is possible to configure both types of VPNs simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be obtained from the AAA configuration statements?
- A.
The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS.
- B.
The authentication method list used by the consoleport is named ACCESS.
- C.
The local database is checked first whenauthenticating console and Telnet access to the router.
- D.
If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, nousers can establish a Telnet session with the router.
Correct Answer
A. The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS.Explanation
The AAA configuration statements provide information about the authentication method list used for Telnet, which is named ACCESS. This means that when users attempt to authenticate and establish a Telnet session with the router, the router will use the authentication method list named ACCESS.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which two Cisco IPS management and monitoring tools are examples of GUI-based, centrally managed IPS solutions? (Choose two.)
- A.
Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
- B.
Cisco IPS Device Manager
- C.
Cisco Router and Security Device Manager
- D.
Cisco Security Manager
- E.
Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System.
Correct Answer(s)
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System.Explanation
The correct answer is Cisco Security Manager and Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System. These two tools are examples of GUI-based, centrally managed IPS solutions. Cisco Security Manager provides a comprehensive management platform for configuring, monitoring, and troubleshooting Cisco security devices, including IPS. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (Cisco Security MARS) is a security information and event management (SIEM) solution that provides real-time threat analysis and incident response for network security devices, including IPS.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Refer to the exhibit. Which AAA function and protocol is in use in the network?
- A.
The client is authorizing commands using the TACACS+protocol.
- B.
The client is authorizing commands using the RADIUS protocol.
- C.
The client is authenticating using the RADIUS protocol.
- D.
The client is authenticating using the TACACS+protocol
Correct Answer
D. The client is authenticating using the TACACS+protocolExplanation
The exhibit states that the client is authenticating using the TACACS+ protocol.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which three OSI layers can be filtered by a stateful firewall? (Choose three.)
- A.
Layer 2
- B.
Layer 3
- C.
Layer 4
- D.
Layer 5
- E.
Layer 6
- F.
Layer 7
Correct Answer(s)
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5Explanation
A stateful firewall can filter traffic based on Layer 3 (Network layer), Layer 4 (Transport layer), and Layer 5 (Session layer) of the OSI model. Layer 3 filtering involves examining IP addresses and making decisions based on source and destination IP addresses. Layer 4 filtering involves examining port numbers and making decisions based on the source and destination port numbers. Layer 5 filtering involves examining session information and making decisions based on session state and session identifiers. These three layers provide the necessary information for a stateful firewall to make filtering decisions and control network traffic.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen shown, which two actions will the signature take if an attack is detected?(Choose two)
- A.
Reset the TCP connection to terminate the TCP flow.
- B.
Drop the packet and all future packets from thisTCP flow.
- C.
Generate an alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server.
- D.
Drop the packet and permit remaining packets from this TCP flow.
- E.
Create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address.
Correct Answer(s)
C. Generate an alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server.
E. Create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address.Explanation
The signature will generate an alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server to notify the network administrator about the attack. Additionally, it will create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address to block any further malicious activity from that source.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which three switch security commands are required to enable port security on a portso that it will dynamically learn a single MAC address and disable the port if a host with any other MAC address is connected? (Choose three.)
- A.
Switchport mode access
- B.
Switchport mode trunk
- C.
Switchportport-security
- D.
Switchport port-security maximum 2
- E.
Switchportport-security mac-address sticky
- F.
Switchport port-security mac-addressmac-address
Correct Answer(s)
A. Switchport mode access
C. Switchportport-security
E. Switchportport-security mac-address stickyExplanation
The three switch security commands required to enable port security on a port are "switchport mode access", "switchport port-security", and "switchport port-security mac-address sticky".
The "switchport mode access" command sets the port to access mode, which means it can only connect to a single device.
The "switchport port-security" command enables port security on the port.
The "switchport port-security mac-address sticky" command allows the switch to dynamically learn a single MAC address and stick it to the port. If any other device with a different MAC address is connected, the port will be disabled.Rate this question:
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