Type Of Muscle Fibers Quiz Questions

198 Questions | Total Attempts: 32

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Muscle Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A scientific explanation of a complex phenomenon that is cast in terms of a simpler one?
    • A. 

      Rationalization

    • B. 

      Falsification

    • C. 

      Generalization

    • D. 

      Deduction

    • E. 

      Reduction

  • 2. 
    Which of the following statements is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Reduction uses simple processes to explain complicated ones

    • B. 

      The goal of science is to understan a phenomenon under study

    • C. 

      Gerenalization and reduction are important tools in science

    • D. 

      Scientists only use reductionistic explanations

    • E. 

      All of the above statements are true

  • 3. 
    Rene Descartes would be considered to hold a _____ view of the mind-body problem.
    • A. 

      Monist

    • B. 

      Reductionist

    • C. 

      Pluralist

    • D. 

      Dualist

    • E. 

      Animist

  • 4. 
    A reflex is considered to be an_____ movement elicited by a____.
    • A. 

      Involuntary; external stimulus

    • B. 

      Volunatry; internal stimulus

    • C. 

      Conscious; external stimulus

    • D. 

      Unconscious; internal stimulus

    • E. 

      None of the aboe

  • 5. 
    A________is a simple system that works on known principles that can be used to explain a complex system.
    • A. 

      Model

    • B. 

      Assumption

    • C. 

      Hypothesis

    • D. 

      Prototype

    • E. 

      Syllogism

  • 6. 
    The belief that the natural characteristics of an organism exert useful effects is termed
    • A. 

      Reductionsim

    • B. 

      Positivism

    • C. 

      Functionalism

    • D. 

      Consolidation

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 7. 
    Charles Darwin proposed the principles of___.
    • A. 

      Speciif nerve energy

    • B. 

      Natural selection

    • C. 

      Experimental ablation

    • D. 

      Communism

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 8. 
    Mutations involve
    • A. 

      Adverse neural development caused by drug ingestion in adulthood

    • B. 

      Accidental changes in the genetic information of the chromosomes

    • C. 

      Poor adaptation to the environment

    • D. 

      Improved reporductive success

    • E. 

      Only beneficial changes in the characteristics of an organism

  • 9. 
    The principle of natural selection proposes that certain characteristics that_____ will become  more prevalent in a species
    • A. 

      Are associated with multiple genetic mutations

    • B. 

      Inhibit reproductive behaviors

    • C. 

      Increase reproductive success

    • D. 

      Impair adaption to the local environment

    • E. 

      A and B are correct

  • 10. 
    The procee of evolution
    • A. 

      Does not invovle gentic mutations

    • B. 

      Does not include natural selection

    • C. 

      Restes on the doctrine of specific nerve energies

    • D. 

      Refers to a gradual change in the structure and function of a species

    • E. 

      Was proven by experimental ablation experiments

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is correct with regard to the relation between brain size and body size?
    • A. 

      Humans brains are larger than other species when expressed relative to total body weight

    • B. 

      Human brains are larger that elephant brains in terms of absolute size

    • C. 

      The human brain is more than 5% of total body weight

    • D. 

      The elephant braind is larger than the human brain in terms of percent of body weight

    • E. 

      Larger brains require smaller bodies

  • 12. 
    Which of the following was a characteristic of humans that allowed them to effectively compete with other species?
    • A. 

      Color vision allows for the detection of ripe fruit and game

    • B. 

      Mastery of fire allowed for provision of warmth in shelters

    • C. 

      Agile hands allow for the creation and use of tools

    • D. 

      Mastery of fire allowed food to be cooked

    • E. 

      All of the above are correct

  • 13. 
    The common structures or regions that form a motor neuron include the
    • A. 

      Soma

    • B. 

      Axon

    • C. 

      Dendrites

    • D. 

      Axon terminals

    • E. 

      All of the above are correct

  • 14. 
    The nucleus of the nerve cell is located within the
    • A. 

      Soma

    • B. 

      Axon

    • C. 

      Axon terminals

    • D. 

      Dendrites

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 15. 
    The physical gap that carries a neural message between two nerves cells is the
    • A. 

      Glial junction

    • B. 

      Axon contact

    • C. 

      Synapse

    • D. 

      Dendritic apposition

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 16. 
    The membrane of a nerve cell consists of
    • A. 

      Protein molecules

    • B. 

      Vesicle remnants

    • C. 

      A single layer of lipid molecules

    • D. 

      Cytoplasm

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 17. 
    Neurotransmitter molecules are most commonly secreted from the
    • A. 

      Glial cell

    • B. 

      Dendrite

    • C. 

      Axon terminal

    • D. 

      Dendritic apposition

    • E. 

      Soma

  • 18. 
    Neurons of the central nervous system are provided nutrients, oxygen, and physical support by___ cells.
    • A. 

      Schwann

    • B. 

      Glial or neuroglial

    • C. 

      Golgi

    • D. 

      Stem

    • E. 

      Microtubule

  • 19. 
    A key function of an astrocyte is to
    • A. 

      Provide physical support of nerve cells

    • B. 

      Provide nourishment to neurons

    • C. 

      Clean up debris within the brain

    • D. 

      Regulate the chemicals in the fluid surrounding neurons

    • E. 

      All of the above are correct

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Schwann cells provide myelin for peripheral nerve cells

    • B. 

      Schwann cells are found within the brain

    • C. 

      A single Schwann cell wraps multiple segments around a pheripheral nerve cell

    • D. 

      A singel Shcwann cells can myelinate up to 50 segments of axon membrane

    • E. 

      Schwann cells remove the cellular debris left by ded neurons in the brain

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is true of the blood brain barrier?
    • A. 

      The barrier is uniform, protecting all brain structures

    • B. 

      The barrier pumps glucose out of the brain into the bloodstream

    • C. 

      The barrier functions to regulate the chemical composition of the extracellular fluid surrounding the brain cells

    • D. 

      The barrier is formed by a special layer of cells that surround the arteies of the brain

    • E. 

      The ventricles have a blood-brain barrier

  • 22. 
    The normal order of activation during neuronal transmission is
    • A. 

      Axon-->dendrite-->soma-->axon terminals

    • B. 

      Axon terminals--->soma--->axon--->dendrite

    • C. 

      Dendrite-->soma-->axon-->termial button

    • D. 

      Soma-->axon-->dendrite-->axon terminal

    • E. 

      Dendrite-->axon terminal-->soma-->axon

  • 23. 
    The interior of a neuron at rest
    • A. 

      Has the same ionic concentrations as the outside

    • B. 

      Is at the same voltage potential as the outside

    • C. 

      Has a higher sodium concentration tht outside

    • D. 

      Is negatively charged relative to the outside

    • E. 

      Has a lower postassium concentration that outside

  • 24. 
    Sodium ions move out of the axon because of
    • A. 

      The openign of sodium channels

    • B. 

      The opening of voltage-gated channels

    • C. 

      Kinesin

    • D. 

      Electrostatic pressure

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is consistent with the “all or none” law?
    • A. 

      The action potential will diminish to near 0 mV when transmitted down a long axon.

    • B. 

      A series of action potentials occures at the same rate regardless of the imputs to the neuron

    • C. 

      The actoin pontential gains speed as it travels down the axon

    • D. 

      The action potential is produced whenever the membrane potential reaches threshold

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 26. 
    Which of the following lists include terms matched with their antonyms? (note: al terms in the list must be correctly matched)?
    • A. 

      Rostral-dorsal, ventraal-caudal, medial-lateral

    • B. 

      Rostral-ventral, medial-dorsal, caudal-lateral

    • C. 

      Rostral-caudal, dorsal-ventral, medial-lateral

    • D. 

      Dorsal-caudal, rostral-medial, lateral-ventral

    • E. 

      Non of the above

  • 27. 
    Which term below refers to structures that are found on opposite sides of the body
    • A. 

      Contralateral

    • B. 

      Transverse

    • C. 

      Ipsilateral

    • D. 

      Bilateral

    • E. 

      Parasagittal

  • 28. 
    Assume that electrical stimulation of the right motor cortex elicits limb movements on the left side of the body. In this instance, we would describe this as a ___ organization of the motor cortex and the muscles of the body
    • A. 

      Contralateral

    • B. 

      Contramedial

    • C. 

      Ipsilaterla

    • D. 

      Bilateral

    • E. 

      Contrasagittal

  • 29. 
    A ___section made through the human brain is parallel to the ground, and a ___section through the spinal cord is parallel to the ground
    • A. 

      Transverse; horizontal

    • B. 

      Horizontal; cross

    • C. 

      Sagittal; midsagittal

    • D. 

      Frontal; coronal

    • E. 

      Parasagittal; midsagittal

  • 30. 
    The___ is formed by the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves plus the peripheral ganglia
    • A. 

      Enteric nervous system

    • B. 

      Automatic nervous system

    • C. 

      Peripheral nervous system

    • D. 

      Somatic nervous system

    • E. 

      Central nervous system

  • 31. 
    The brain and the spinal cord form the
    • A. 

      Enteric nervous system

    • B. 

      Automatic nervous system

    • C. 

      Peripheral nervous syttem

    • D. 

      Somatic nervous system

    • E. 

      Central nervous system

  • 32. 
    From the skull inward, what is the correct order for the three layers of the meninges?
    • A. 

      Pia meter, arachniod membrane, dura mater

    • B. 

      Arachniod membrane, pia mater, dura mater

    • C. 

      Dura mater, acrachnoid memebrance, pia mater

    • D. 

      Dura mater, pia pater, arachnoid membrane

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 33. 
    The ___ is the middle layer of the brain meninges
    • A. 

      Dura mater

    • B. 

      Pia mater

    • C. 

      Dorsa mater

    • D. 

      Arachnoid membrane

    • E. 

      Midsagittal sinus

  • 34. 
    The brain floats within___fluid, which is contained within the___
    • A. 

      Intracellular; pia mater

    • B. 

      Cerebrospinal; subarachniod space

    • C. 

      Cerebrospinal; blood vessels

    • D. 

      Interstitial; subarachnoid space

    • E. 

      Extracellular; dura mater

  • 35. 
    The four hollow interconnected spaces within the brain are the
    • A. 

      Choroid plexi

    • B. 

      Supra-arachnoid spaces

    • C. 

      Ventricles

    • D. 

      Meninges

    • E. 

      Spinal aqueducts

  • 36. 
    CSF is reabsorbed into the blood supply at the
    • A. 

      Arachnoid granulations

    • B. 

      Choroid plexus

    • C. 

      Foramen of Magendie

    • D. 

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • E. 

      Dura mater

  • 37. 
    Brain CSF is produced by the
    • A. 

      Choroid plexus

    • B. 

      Subarachnoid space

    • C. 

      Neurons of the hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Meaninges

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 38. 
    The rostral en of the neural tube a 28 days will eventually form 3 chambers known as the
    • A. 

      Telencephalon

    • B. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • C. 

      Mesencephalon

    • D. 

      Myelencephalon

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 39. 
    The process of___ refers to the production of new neurons
    • A. 

      Apoptosis

    • B. 

      Neurogenesis

    • C. 

      Mitogenesis

    • D. 

      Mutagenesis

    • E. 

      Killer gene activation

  • 40. 
    The metencephalon consists of the
    • A. 

      Thamalus and hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Tectum and tegmentum

    • C. 

      Superior colliculus and inferior colliculus

    • D. 

      Dorsal horn and ventral horn

    • E. 

      Pons and cerebellum

  • 41. 
    The___ is the most caudal portion of the brain stem
    • A. 

      Sinal cord

    • B. 

      Pons

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • E. 

      Metencephalon

  • 42. 
    The___ branch of the nervous system is involved with receiving sensory information and the conscious control of skeletal muscles
    • A. 

      Central

    • B. 

      Autonomic

    • C. 

      Vagal

    • D. 

      Somatic

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 43. 
    The___ compose the autonomic nervous system.
    • A. 

      Sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

    • B. 

      Dorsal and ventral divisions

    • C. 

      Ventral and dorsal spinal roots

    • D. 

      Hypoglossal and cranial nerves

    • E. 

      Tectum and tegmentum

  • 44. 
    The transmitter___ is secreted by the terminal button of the preganglionic sympathetic fibers, whereas most postganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete___.
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine; acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Glutamate; acetylcholine

    • C. 

      Serotonin; norepinephrine

    • D. 

      Acetylcholine; acetylcholine

    • E. 

      Acetylcholine; norepinephrine

  • 45. 
    The key functions of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system relate to
    • A. 

      The control of the somatic nervous system

    • B. 

      The inhibition of digestive function during a fight

    • C. 

      The increase of digestion and energy storage within the body

    • D. 

      Acceleration of heart rate and increased blood flow to the muscles

    • E. 

      Inhibtion of sweating and salivation

  • 46. 
    Which of the following terms is not one of the 4 regions of the spinal cord.
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Lumbar

    • D. 

      Medulla

    • E. 

      All of the above are regions of the spinal cord

  • 47. 
    Which of the following is true of the spinal nerves?
    • A. 

      The spinal nerves contain both sensory and motor signals

    • B. 

      Incoming sensory signals arrive via te vental roots of the spinal cord

    • C. 

      Outgoing motor signals travel via the dorsal roots of the spinal cord

    • D. 

      The cell boides of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord white matter

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 48. 
    ___ axons conduct sensory information toward the brain
    • A. 

      Afferent

    • B. 

      Efferent

    • C. 

      Porjection

    • D. 

      Somatic

    • E. 

      Callosal

  • 49. 
    The term “neuraxis” refers to
    • A. 

      The cross-sectional diamter of the spinal cord

    • B. 

      A plane tht divides the two hemispheres into right and left halves

    • C. 

      An imagianry line drawn through the spinal cord up to the front of the brain

    • D. 

      A plane that divides the brain into top and bottom halves

    • E. 

      The frontal portions of the brain

  • 50. 
    The term “rostral” means?
    • A. 

      Toward the tail

    • B. 

      Superior

    • C. 

      Toward the beak or snout

    • D. 

      Away form the midline

    • E. 

      Toward the midline

  • 51. 
    We would classify a drug as a ___ if that drug acted to block the capacity of the vesicles to be filled with neurotransmitter molecules.
    • A. 

      Agonist

    • B. 

      Facilitator

    • C. 

      Antagonist

    • D. 

      Autoreceptor agonist

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 52. 
    Administering a molecules or drug that is a precursor for the synthesis of a neurotransmitter would be expected to
    • A. 

      Reduce the avaiablity of that neurotransmitter

    • B. 

      Increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter

    • C. 

      Immediately alter the nubmer of postsynaptic receptors

    • D. 

      Act as an antagoist at autoreceptors

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 53. 
    If a patient who has overdosed on heroin enter an emergency room, he will need immediate treatment with naloxone, a drug that blocks the opioid receptor. Which of the following is the best choice for naloxone administration, given the urgency of these circumstances?
    • A. 

      Oral

    • B. 

      Topical

    • C. 

      Intravenous

    • D. 

      Intramuscular

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 54. 
    ___refers to the reduced effect of a drug with repeated administration
    • A. 

      Dynamic capacity

    • B. 

      Sensitization

    • C. 

      Inactivation

    • D. 

      Tolarance

    • E. 

      Binding capacity

  • 55. 
    A___ is a drug that blocks or inhibits postsynaptic receptor effects
    • A. 

      Protagonist

    • B. 

      Ligand

    • C. 

      Synergist

    • D. 

      Antagonist

    • E. 

      Agonist

  • 56. 
    A drug that binds witha postsynapitc receptor at the same site as the neurotransmitter, but does not open ion channels would be termed a(n)
    • A. 

      Direct agonist

    • B. 

      Indirect ligand

    • C. 

      Direct synergist

    • D. 

      Direct antagonist

    • E. 

      Indirect antgonist

  • 57. 
    A drug that binds at a postynaptic receptor at a site is different from the neurotransmitter and faclitates the opening of ion channels would be termed a (n)
    • A. 

      Indirect antagonist

    • B. 

      Ligand

    • C. 

      Direct synergist

    • D. 

      Indirect agonist

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 58. 
    A drug that activates a presynaptic autoreceptor will typically
    • A. 

      Reduce the release of the neurotransmitter from the terminal button

    • B. 

      Alter the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal

    • C. 

      Block the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane

    • D. 

      Increase the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal

    • E. 

      Be expected to act as an agonist for this synapse

  • 59. 
    In the brain, the primary excitatory neurotransmitter is ______, wheras the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter is_____.
    • A. 

      Glutamate; acetylcholine

    • B. 

      GABA; glycine

    • C. 

      Glycine; acetycholine

    • D. 

      Glutamate; GABA

    • E. 

      Actylcholine; dopamine

  • 60. 
    A drug that blocks acetylcholinerase in the brain would be expected to
    • A. 

      Increases the rate of acetylcholine synthesis

    • B. 

      Decrease the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse

    • C. 

      Increase the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse

    • D. 

      Decrease the activity of the cholingerci autoreceptors

    • E. 

      Reduce the reate of acetylchonline reuptake

  • 61. 
    Which of the following would be the most desirable therapeutic index for a drug?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      50

    • E. 

      100

  • 62. 
    Which pair below represents the types of the receptors for acetylcholine?
    • A. 

      Cholinegic; adrenergic

    • B. 

      Muscarinic; adrenergic

    • C. 

      Alpha-cholinergic; beta-cholinergic

    • D. 

      Nicotinic; muscarinic

    • E. 

      Beta-cholinergic; delta-cholinergic

  • 63. 
    In terms of drug effectiveness, what does “high affinity” mean?
    • A. 

      No effects will be produced by the drug

    • B. 

      A high dose/concentration is necessary to produce effects

    • C. 

      The does concentration does not influence the drug's effects

    • D. 

      A low dose/concentration is sufficient to produce effects

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 64. 
    Which of the following is classified as an indolamine?
    • A. 

      Histamine

    • B. 

      Serotonin

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Acetylcholine

    • E. 

      Norepinephrine

  • 65. 
    ___is an increase in the effectiveness of a drug that is administered repeatedly
    • A. 

      Sensitizatoin

    • B. 

      Affinity

    • C. 

      Tolerance

    • D. 

      Placebo

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 66. 
    A drug that causes the dopamine transporters to run in reverse would
    • A. 

      Increases the synthesis of dopmine

    • B. 

      Decreases the amount of dopamine in the synapse

    • C. 

      Antagonize the postsynaptic receptors for dopamine

    • D. 

      Increases the amount of dopamine in the synapse

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 67. 
    Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is produced from
    • A. 

      Polyamines

    • B. 

      Butyric acid

    • C. 

      Glutamic acid

    • D. 

      Glycine

    • E. 

      Lysergic acid

  • 68. 
    Benzodiazepines and barbiturates are indirect agonists for the GABA-A receptor. These drugs would thus be expected to produce which of the following events?
    • A. 

      Increase the amount of GABA in the synapse

    • B. 

      Decrease the release of GABA from the terminal button

    • C. 

      Increase the synthesis of GABA

    • D. 

      Facilitate the effects of GABA on postsynaptic receptors

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is a true statement?
    • A. 

      Herion is an example of an opioid receptor agonist

    • B. 

      Opioids can induce euphoria and reward

    • C. 

      Opioids can reduce the unpleasantness of pain

    • D. 

      Naloxone is an example of an opioid receptor antagonist

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 70. 
     Blockade of the adenosine receptors would be expected to
    • A. 

      Inhibit the reuptake of dopamine

    • B. 

      Increase alertness

    • C. 

      Directly stimulate GABA receptors

    • D. 

      Produce hallucinations

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 71. 
    Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT a catecholamine?
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Serotonin

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Dopamine

    • E. 

      All of the above ar catecholamines

  • 72. 
    A drug that blocks the production of dopamine would decrease which of the following?
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine

    • B. 

      L-dopa

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      Acetycloline

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 73. 
    Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors affect the levels of which neurotransmitter?
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Opioids

    • C. 

      Acatecholamines

    • D. 

      GABA

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 74. 
    A drug, such as PCPA, that blocks the activity of tryptophan hydroxylase would be expected to directly impair the production of___.
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Serotin

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine

    • D. 

      GABA

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 75. 
    An advantage of chemical stimulation over electrical stimulation is___.
    • A. 

      It requires less equipment

    • B. 

      It activites cell bodies, not axons

    • C. 

      It is non-invasive

    • D. 

      Stereotaxic surgery is not required

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 76. 
    What drug can be injected into the brain and produce a non-permanent lesion?
    • A. 

      Muscimol

    • B. 

      Kainic acid

    • C. 

      Cresyl violet

    • D. 

      PHA-L

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 77. 
    A PET scanner can localize substances that emit
    • A. 

      Positrons

    • B. 

      X-rays

    • C. 

      Magnetism

    • D. 

      Brain waves

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 78. 
    Which of the following is an advantage of the functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) technique?
    • A. 

      FMRI scanners can be built cheaply

    • B. 

      Oxygen has a long-half life in brain

    • C. 

      The fMRI technique has a moderate degree of inherent danger

    • D. 

      The fMRI scan has a higher resolution, relavtive to the PET scan

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 79. 
    Which is not part of the histological methods?
    • A. 

      Fixation

    • B. 

      Staining

    • C. 

      Lesion

    • D. 

      Slicing

    • E. 

      All of the above are part of histological methods

  • 80. 
    ___ is used to produce excitotoxic lesions in the brain
    • A. 

      Cresyl violet

    • B. 

      Staining

    • C. 

      Kainic acid

    • D. 

      Methylene blue

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
    The ___ technique is used to visualize axon bundle in living human brains
    • A. 

      Computerized tomography

    • B. 

      Diffusor tension imaging

    • C. 

      Magnetic resonance imaging

    • D. 

      Confocal scanning microscope

    • E. 

      PET scan

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is a rationale for lesion studies?
    • A. 

      A change in behavior that follows a particular brain lesion can give importatn clues about the function of that brain area

    • B. 

      Lesions are easily made withing the brain

    • C. 

      Brain lesions are specific fo fibers of passage

    • D. 

      Brain lesions reliably produce marked changes in behaviors

    • E. 

      Brain lesions allow for activation of behavioral circuts

  • 83. 
    1. What is the source of the electrical potential recorded from the scalp of a human subject (by macroelectrodes)
    • A. 

      The natural current found in skin

    • B. 

      The signals generated by the contraction of muscle fibers that lie under the scalp

    • C. 

      The postynaptic potentials of many neurons in the area of the electrode

    • D. 

      The signals generated by the activity of the sweat glands

    • E. 

      The movements of our eyes

  • 84. 
    Single unit recordings
    • A. 

      Represent the postsynapti potentials of many neurons

    • B. 

      Are made using macroelectodes placed on the skull surface

    • C. 

      Involve placing a microelectrode close enough to record the activity of a singe cell

    • D. 

      Suggest that serotonin-containing neurons induce REM sleep

    • E. 

      Do not require elabroate amplifiers and equipement

  • 85. 
    The___ technique takes advantage of the requirement of active nerve cells to take up the highest concentrations of fuel.
    • A. 

      Neuromagnetometer

    • B. 

      Microdialysis

    • C. 

      Electroencephalograph

    • D. 

      C-Fos

    • E. 

      2-deoxyglucose (2-DG) autoradiography

  • 86. 
    Metabolic activity of regions of the rat brain can be revealed by all of the following except
    • A. 

      CT scans

    • B. 

      FMRI scans

    • C. 

      2-DG autoradiography

    • D. 

      Measurement of Fos protein

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 87. 
    Lesion studies typically compare the behavioral performance of a lesion group to a control group. To exclude the possibility that incidental damage to other brain regions produced the observed deficits, the control group typically receive a ____.
    • A. 

      Excitotoxic lesion

    • B. 

      Electorlytic lesion

    • C. 

      Neurotoxic lesion

    • D. 

      Radio-frequency lesion

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 88. 
    Bregma is used as ___.
    • A. 

      A pressure point

    • B. 

      A reference point

    • C. 

      The fontanelle

    • D. 

      An opening through which a cannula can be inserted

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 89. 
    Imagine that feeding behavior was eliminated when a radio frequency lesion was used to damage the lateral hypothalamus of a rat. Which suggested that cells within this region initiate feeding. If a subsequent study failed to observe a change in feeding after injection of kainic acid into the later hypothalamus, what conclusion would be appropriate?
    • A. 

      Glial cells within the lateral hypothalamus are key fo rthe control of eating

    • B. 

      The changes in eating are due to damage to fibers that are passing through the later hypothalamus

    • C. 

      The changes in eating are due to damage to cell bodies within the lateral hypothalamus, and these act to initiate eating

    • D. 

      The lateral hypothalamus functions to inhibit eating

    • E. 

      The investigator should have chosen a different inhibitory amino acid

  • 90. 
    Which of the following is strong evidence for a genetic contribution to a behavior?
    • A. 

      Dizygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do monozygotic twins

    • B. 

      Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do dizygotic twins

    • C. 

      Dizygotic twins have a lower concordance rate than do monoazygotic twins

    • D. 

      Adopted children resemble theri adopted families with regard to a trait

    • E. 

      Family members are less similar for a trait than are members of the general population.

  • 91. 
    The ___ procedure uses magnetic waves to alter brain neural activity
    • A. 

      Magnetic cytochemistry

    • B. 

      Microiontophoresis

    • C. 

      Endocytontic

    • D. 

      In situ hybridization

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 92. 
    A key advantage of the microdialysis technique is
    • A. 

      It cna asses brain function on a moment-by-moment basis

    • B. 

      The ability to sample transmitter substances in an awake living organism

    • C. 

      That is uses radioactive molecules that brea down quickly

    • D. 

      That it can be easily used humans

    • E. 

      That only very small computers are needed for this technique to monitor brain function

  • 93. 
    Which of the following is strong evidence for an environmental contribution to a behavior?
    • A. 

      Dizygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do monozygotic twins

    • B. 

      Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do dizygotic twins

    • C. 

      Mononzygotic twins have a lower concordance rate than do dizygotic twins

    • D. 

      Adopted children resemble their adopted families with regard to a trait

    • E. 

      None of the above are correct

  • 94. 
    Targeted mutation involve
    • A. 

      Injecting chemicals that block the production of transmitters in the brain

    • B. 

      Inserting genes to overproduce a funtional protein

    • C. 

      Manipulating genes to impair the production of a protein

    • D. 

      The induction of random genetic mutations

    • E. 

      Altering genetic material to allow an organism to more readily adapt to its niche

  • 95. 
    If we want to measure the amount of a particular neurotransmitter that is present in a particular brain region, we would use
    • A. 

      Optogenetic methods

    • B. 

      PET

    • C. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    • D. 

      Microdialysis

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 96. 
    The functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) techinique is used to
    • A. 

      Record the electical activity of individual neurons

    • B. 

      Induce the secretion of neurotransmitters from neurons

    • C. 

      Indirectly detect the neural activity of particular brain regions

    • D. 

      Localize receptors within brain tissue sections

    • E. 

      Electrically stimulate neurons

  • 97. 
    An experimenter wants to test whether cholinergic cells –which are located in the basal forebrain-are necessary for learning and memory function. He therefore decided to inject 192 igG-saporin, a neurotoxin that selectively destroys cholinergic neurons, into the basal forebrain of rats before testing their ability to learn to solve radiol arm maze taks. After the radial arm maze take is complete, the brains are removed and sections containing the basal forebrain are evaluated for the presence of cholinergic cells. The cholinergic cells are the counter. Which of the following is appropriate for this study?
    • A. 

      Silver stain (Golgi method)

    • B. 

      Anterograde tracer

    • C. 

      Electrophysiology

    • D. 

      Immunocytochemistry

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 98. 
    1. Referring to the experiment described in "#23", which of the following techniques is also used in the study?
    • A. 

      Stereotaxic surgery

    • B. 

      Antisense oligonucleotides

    • C. 

      Photostimulation

    • D. 

      Radio frequency lesion

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 99. 
    The ___ of a color refers to the __ of the light
    • A. 

      Hue, brightness

    • B. 

      Brigthness, saturation

    • C. 

      Hue, purity

    • D. 

      Saturtion, purity

    • E. 

      Brightness, contrast

  • 100. 
    ___ contribute to high visual acuity and encode color, while___ have low visual acuity and do not detect different colors
    • A. 

      Cones, rods

    • B. 

      Rods, cones

    • C. 

      LGN, retina

    • D. 

      Retian, LGN

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 101. 
    Axons of ganglion cells located in the nasal half of the retina travel to the lateral geniculate nucleus on which side of the brain?
    • A. 

      Contralateral side

    • B. 

      Ipsilateral side

    • C. 

      Both ipsilateral and contralateral sides

    • D. 

      Neither side

    • E. 

      They do not travel to the lateral geniculate nucleus

  • 102. 
    How does activation of the fusiform face area different between an autistic person and a typical person?
    • A. 

      Less active in typical person (when the person views faces)

    • B. 

      Less active in autistic person (when the person view faces)

    • C. 

      Equally active in autistic and typical people (when the person view faces)

    • D. 

      Fuisfomr face area does not exist in the autistic person

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 103. 
    Most of the output from the striate cortex goes to:
    • A. 

      Area V2

    • B. 

      Frontal Cortex

    • C. 

      Area V4

    • D. 

      Area V5

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 104. 
    The order of signal conduction by cells in the retina is:
    • A. 

      Photoreceptor-->ganglion cell-->bipolar cell

    • B. 

      Ganglion cell-->bipolar cell--->photoreceptor

    • C. 

      Biopolar cell-->ganglion-->photoreceptor

    • D. 

      Photoreceptor-->biopolar cell-->ganglion cell

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 105. 
    The process by which stimuli are detected by sensory receptors is called __.
    • A. 

      Singal transfer

    • B. 

      Receptor potential

    • C. 

      Transmitter release

    • D. 

      Sensory transduction

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 106. 
    Which of the following is correct
    • A. 

      Medium wave length is related to blue colors

    • B. 

      Long wave length is related to red colors

    • C. 

      Long wave length is related to blue colors

    • D. 

      Short wave length is related to green colors

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 107. 
    What kind of movements of the eye work to keep both eyes focused on a single object?
    • A. 

      Saccadic

    • B. 

      Pursuit

    • C. 

      Vergenece

    • D. 

      Conjunctiva

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 108. 
    The area of the retina with the least convergence of photo receptors to ganglion cells is the ___.
    • A. 

      Fovea

    • B. 

      Conjunction

    • C. 

      Sclera

    • D. 

      Pupil

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 109. 
    Which of the following statements is true regarding cytochrome oxidase (CO) blobs in V1?
    • A. 

      CO blobs mostly process visual information that was detected by the rods

    • B. 

      CO blobs mostly process visual information that was carried by the magnocellular layers of LGN

    • C. 

      LGN layers 3-6 carry information that is processed by CO blobs

    • D. 

      LGN koniocellular provide the only input to CO blobs

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 110. 
    In general, visual information is processed by two cortical streams, the ___ and ___.
    • A. 

      Frontal, parietal

    • B. 

      Occipital, temoral

    • C. 

      Anterior, posterior

    • D. 

      Medial, lateral

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 111. 
    Neurons in primary visual cortex(V1) consist of
    • A. 

      Complex cells

    • B. 

      Simple cells

    • C. 

      Hypercomplex cells

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Ganglion cells

  • 112. 
    The fovea contains which type of receptor cell?
    • A. 

      Rods

    • B. 

      Mirror neurons

    • C. 

      Cones

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Non of the above

  • 113. 
    Which of the following statements is not true
    • A. 

      The rapid, jerky eye movements are known as saccadic eye movements

    • B. 

      The visual system is organized hierarchically

    • C. 

      The region of the retina that mediates acute vision is known as the fovea

    • D. 

      Red-green and yellow-blue are two types of color-sensitive ganglion cells found in the retina

    • E. 

      All of the above statments are true

  • 114. 
    When light reaches the rhodopsin molecule it splits into rod opsin and retinal. This splitting of the photopigment causes cell’s membrane potential to become
    • A. 

      Hyperpolarized

    • B. 

      Equal to the extracellular fluid

    • C. 

      Potentiated

    • D. 

      Depolarizated

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 115. 
    What is the result of having no receptors located on the optic disc?
    • A. 

      Inability to perceive colors

    • B. 

      Blind spot

    • C. 

      Increased color saturation

    • D. 

      Optical illusions

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 116. 
    The fact that colors of familiar objects remain consistent across different conditions is known as ___.
    • A. 

      Color stream

    • B. 

      Color blindness

    • C. 

      Color constancy

    • D. 

      Color normalization

    • E. 

      All the above

  • 117. 
    What moves the eyes
    • A. 

      Cardiac muscles

    • B. 

      Smooth muscles

    • C. 

      Biceps brachii

    • D. 

      Rectus abdominus

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 118. 
    Signals from the cones are represented in the ___.
    • A. 

      The interblob regions of V1

    • B. 

      LGN layers 1 and 2

    • C. 

      Rods

    • D. 

      Thin stripes in area V2

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 119. 
    Which type of movement invovles jerky and rapid movements used to scan a visual scene vergence
    • A. 

      Vergance

    • B. 

      Saccade

    • C. 

      Pursuit

    • D. 

      Fast

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 120. 
    In general, the “where” pathway would be necessary for abilities such as ___.
    • A. 

      Perceiving faces

    • B. 

      Carrying a backpack

    • C. 

      Standing upright

    • D. 

      Catching a ball

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 121. 
    In general, the “what” pathway would be necessary for the abilities such as ___.
    • A. 

      Identifying faces

    • B. 

      Carrying a backpack

    • C. 

      Standing upright

    • D. 

      Catching a ball

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 122. 
    ___ outnumber the ___
    • A. 

      Cones, rods

    • B. 

      LGN cells, V1 cells

    • C. 

      Photoreceptors, retinal ganglion cells

    • D. 

      Retinal ganglion cells, photoreceptors

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 123. 
    Axons that compose the optic nerve leave the eye at the ___.
    • A. 

      Fovea

    • B. 

      Pupil

    • C. 

      Cornea

    • D. 

      Sclera

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 124. 
    Which of the following are layers of the skin [as described in your text]?
    • A. 

      Subcutaneous tissue, epidermis, dermis

    • B. 

      Epidermis, dermis, bipolar layer

    • C. 

      Glabrous, dermis, ruffini

    • D. 

      Dermis, subdermis, Pacinian

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 125. 
    What type of information is provided by proprioception and kinesthesia?
    • A. 

      Sensations from the skin

    • B. 

      Sensations from the organs

    • C. 

      Sensations of body position and movement

    • D. 

      Sensations of temperature

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 126. 
    ___ is a function of the auditory system.
    • A. 

      Detecting sound

    • B. 

      Determining location of sound

    • C. 

      Recognizing identity of source of sound

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 127. 
    In general, the outer layer hair cells of the cochlea ___.
    • A. 

      Detect gravity and linear acceleration

    • B. 

      Detect detailed properties of sounds

    • C. 

      Modulate the movements of the basilar membrane

    • D. 

      Detect angular acceleration

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 128. 
    In general, the inner hair cells of the cochlea ___.
    • A. 

      Detect gravity and linear acceleration

    • B. 

      Are responsible for the detection of sounds

    • C. 

      Modulate the movements of the basilar membrane

    • D. 

      Detect angular acceleration

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 129. 
    The first cortical structure to receive auditory information (from the medial geniculate nucleus) is the
    • A. 

      Primary auditory cortex

    • B. 

      Auditory association cortex

    • C. 

      Inferior frontal cortex

    • D. 

      Cerebellum

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 130. 
    Which of the following is responsible for detecting painful stimuli and changes in temperature?
    • A. 

      The semicircular canals

    • B. 

      The otolith organs

    • C. 

      The basilar membrane

    • D. 

      Outer hair cells

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 131. 
    What is the correct sequence in which sound waves travel to the cochlea?
    • A. 

      Stapes, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, pinna

    • B. 

      Pinna, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes

    • C. 

      Pinna, incus, stapes, tympanic membrane, malleus

    • D. 

      Stapes, incus, malleus, eardrum, auditory canal, pinna

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 132. 
    ___ is a function of the vestibular systems.
    • A. 

      Detection of gravity

    • B. 

      Informing the brain head orientation

    • C. 

      Adjustment of eye movement to compensate for head movements

    • D. 

      Detection of angular and linear acceleration

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 133. 
    Somatosensory axons from the face and head primarily arrive at the central nervous system through
    • A. 

      Dorsal root ganglion

    • B. 

      Ventral horn

    • C. 

      The dorsal columns and the dorsal root ganglia

    • D. 

      The trigeminal nerve

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 134. 
    Which characteristic of sound is determined by a sound wave’s amplitude?
    • A. 

      Pitch

    • B. 

      Loudness

    • C. 

      Timbre

    • D. 

      Complexity

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 135. 
    Which of the following is not a part of the organ of Corti?
    • A. 

      Basilar membrane

    • B. 

      Lateral superior olivary nucleus

    • C. 

      Hair cells

    • D. 

      Tectorial membrane

    • E. 

      All of the above compose the organ of Corti

  • 136. 
    ___ receives input from the cochlear nucleus.
    • A. 

      Superior olivary nucleus

    • B. 

      Medial lemniscus

    • C. 

      Auditory cortex of the temporal lobe

    • D. 

      Medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 137. 
    Which neurotransmitter is released by auditory hair cells?
    • A. 

      Glutamate

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine

    • C. 

      Adenosine triphosphate

    • D. 

      GABA

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 138. 
    What is the function of the posterior auditory stream?
    • A. 

      Analysis of complex sounds

    • B. 

      Sound localization

    • C. 

      Intensity

    • D. 

      Sound reducation

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 139. 
    How can our movements directly contribute to our ability to use our sense of touch to detect the physical characteristics of objects?
    • A. 

      Our movement allows us to aviod potential threats, and this allows us to focus our vision on the object

    • B. 

      Our movements allow us to hold the object in front of our face, so we can see the object

    • C. 

      Our movement allows us to move our skin(and thus our sensory receptors) along the object's edges

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 140. 
    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the antereior cingulate cortex (ACC)
    • A. 

      ACC contributes to the emotional aspect of pain

    • B. 

      ACC would not be activated when a painful stimulus is applied to the back of the hands

    • C. 

      Hypnotized peopel who reported decreased unpleasantness of painful stimulus showed less activation of ACC

    • D. 

      ACC can be activated when subjects hear words that are associated with pain

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 141. 
    Hair cells of the vestibular system send axons to ___.
    • A. 

      The auditory nucleus

    • B. 

      The vestibular nucleus

    • C. 

      The vestibular (Scarpa's) ganglion

    • D. 

      The nucleus prepositus

    • E. 

      None the above

  • 142. 
    The vestibule-ocular reflex (VOR) allows ___.
    • A. 

      The eyes to track a moving object

    • B. 

      The eyes to focus on an object that is near the observer

    • C. 

      The eyes to focus on an object that is far from the observer

    • D. 

      The eyes to focus on a fixed object during head movements

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 143. 
    The first point of action potentials in the auditory systems is the ___.
    • A. 

      Cochlear (auditory) nerve

    • B. 

      Inner hair cells

    • C. 

      Auditory nucleus

    • D. 

      Superior olivary nucleus

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 144. 
    ____ is to high frequency sounds as ___ is to low frequency sounds
    • A. 

      Inner hair cells, outer hair cells

    • B. 

      Outer hair cells, inner hair cells

    • C. 

      Timbre, pitch

    • D. 

      Place coding, rate coding

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 145. 
    Hair cells in the otolith organs respond to ____.
    • A. 

      Velocity

    • B. 

      Sound

    • C. 

      Temperature

    • D. 

      Touch

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 146. 
    How do olfactory receptors come in contact with the stimulus?
    • A. 

      The stimulus is carried to the receptors through the air

    • B. 

      The stimulus delfects cilia on the receptors

    • C. 

      The stimulus stretches tip links, whihc hyperpolarizes the receptor

    • D. 

      The stimulus presses against the receptor, depoarizing the receptor

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 147. 
    At which location do somatosensory signals from the body enter the  central nervous system?
    • A. 

      At the skin, near the receptors

    • B. 

      At the medulla

    • C. 

      At the thalamus

    • D. 

      At the spinal nerves

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 148. 
    What is the first location where somatosentosry signals reach the cerebral cortex?
    • A. 

      Thalamus

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Parietal lobe

    • D. 

      Frontal lobe

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 149. 
    What is released from the stomach to tell you that you are hungry?
    • A. 

      AGRP

    • B. 

      Gherlin

    • C. 

      Germlins

    • D. 

      Cholecystokinin (CCK)

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 150. 
    Which type of thirst is detected when blood flow to the kidneys is reduced?
    • A. 

      Hypotonic

    • B. 

      Volumetric

    • C. 

      Osmometric

    • D. 

      Cardiac

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 151. 
    A process such as eating or drinking, whereby the effect produced by an action serves to diminish or terminate that action, is termed ___ mechanism.
    • A. 

      Positive feedback

    • B. 

      Negative feedback

    • C. 

      Ground loop

    • D. 

      Set point

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 152. 
    Thirst is detected by osmorecpetprs when ___
    • A. 

      The volume of the blood decreases

    • B. 

      The volume of the blood increases

    • C. 

      The solute concentration of the interstitial fluid increases

    • D. 

      The solute concentration of the interstitial fluid decreases

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 153. 
    ___ is secreted by well-nourishe adipose tissue
    • A. 

      Renin

    • B. 

      Angiotensin I

    • C. 

      Angiotensin II

    • D. 

      Leptin

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 154. 
    Most or all of the signal for osmometric and volumetric thirst are integrated in the  ___, which is part of the lamina terminalis
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Spinal cord

    • C. 

      Median preoptic nucleus

    • D. 

      Gall bladder

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 155. 
    If you have a leptin deficiency, you would be expected to be
    • A. 

      Underweight

    • B. 

      Overweight

    • C. 

      Healty weight

    • D. 

      Leptin has no effect on weight

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 156. 
    Those who suffer from anorexia typically ___.
    • A. 

      Have a fear of becoming obese

    • B. 

      Tend to overeat

    • C. 

      Have a fear of animanls

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 157. 
    Cell bodies of neurons that secrete neuropeptide Y (NPY) are located in the ___.
    • A. 

      Tectum

    • B. 

      Arcuate nucleus

    • C. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • D. 

      Stomach

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 158. 
    Most of the body’s fluid consists of ___.
    • A. 

      Intracellular fluid (within the cells)

    • B. 

      Intracellular fluid (between the cells)

    • C. 

      Cerebrospinal fluid

    • D. 

      Intravascular fluid

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 159. 
    Where is insulin produced?
    • A. 

      Kidneys

    • B. 

      Duodenum

    • C. 

      Pancreas

    • D. 

      Gastrointestial system

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 160. 
    After eating a meal, you can expect ___.
    • A. 

      An icrease in leptin and a decrease in ghrelin

    • B. 

      A decrease in leptin and an increase in ghrelin

    • C. 

      Increases in leptin and ghrelin

    • D. 

      Decreases in leptinan ghrelin

    • E. 

      Inhibtion of insulin release

  • 161. 
    Neuropeptide y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AGRP) neurons of the arcuate nucleus excite melanin concentrating hormone (MCH) and orexin neurons in the lateral hypothalamuc. This increase ctivity in MCH and orexin neurons ___.
    • A. 

      Suppresses hunger

    • B. 

      Suppresses food intake

    • C. 

      Increases metabolic rate

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 162. 
    Leptin inhibits NPY and AGRP neurons but excites CART and alpha-MSH of the arcuate nucleus by binding to the MC4 receptor. CART and alpha-MSH neuron inhibit MCH and orexin neurons in the lateral hypothalamus and inhibit neurons in the paraventricular nucleus. Thus, CART and alph-MSH
    • A. 

      Suppress hunger

    • B. 

      Suppress food intake

    • C. 

      Increase metabolic rate

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 163. 
    What physical property of angiotensin II (AII) suggests that it may produce thirst through one of the circumventricular organs instad of via direct action in other parts of the brain?
    • A. 

      It is produced form angiotesin I

    • B. 

      It is derived from renin

    • C. 

      It does not cross the blood braind barrier

    • D. 

      It detects hypovolemia

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 164. 
    The vagus nerve sends signals to which part of the brain?
    • A. 

      Medulla (brain stem)

    • B. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • C. 

      Thtalamus

    • D. 

      Hippocampus

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 165. 
    Glucoprivation is detected by both the brain and the liver. The location where the brain detects glucoprivation is obviously in the brain, but the liver must send this signal to the brain. How does this glucoprivic signal reach the brain?
    • A. 

      Via the hepatic portal vein cord

    • B. 

      Via hormones released into the veins

    • C. 

      Via the vagus nerve

    • D. 

      Via text message

    • E. 

      Via the internet

  • 166. 
    Why does evaporation produce both osmometric and volumetric thirst?
    • A. 

      Evaporation directly removes fluid from the capillaries and cells

    • B. 

      Intersitial fluid becomes hypertonic, causing the cells and capillaries to lose water by osmosis

    • C. 

      Water is drawn from the cells into the capillaiers, producing hypotonic capillaries

    • D. 

      Water is drawn from the cells into the capillaries, which is detected by the renin-angiotensin system

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 167. 
    If a normal mice were given injections of insulin, what would likely occur?
    • A. 

      They would become hypoglycemic

    • B. 

      They would become hyperglyemic

    • C. 

      They would experience volumetric thirst

    • D. 

      They would experience osmometric thirst

    • E. 

      None the above

  • 168. 
    Which type of thirst occurs after a salty meal?
    • A. 

      Osmometric

    • B. 

      Volumetric

    • C. 

      Osmometric and volumetric

    • D. 

      Neither osmonometric nor volumetric

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 169. 
    Why does ghrelin release persist for a period of time after eating, even though the stomach is full?
    • A. 

      Ghrelin release is controlled by insulin

    • B. 

      Ghrelin release is controlled by leptin

    • C. 

      Ghrelin release is controlled by the brain

    • D. 

      Ghrelin release is controlled by the duodenum

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 170. 
    Cholecystokinin (CKK) is secreted by the duodenum when fats are present. What effect on eating would be expected after injection of CCK?
    • A. 

      Suppression of eating

    • B. 

      Increase of eating

    • C. 

      No effect on eating

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 171. 
    Which of the following is thought to be beneficial in the treatment of obesity?
    • A. 

      Intraventricular ghrelin injection

    • B. 

      Tetrhydrocannabinol (THC) or other cannabinoid receptor agonists

    • C. 

      Regular exercise

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of above

  • 172. 
    Based on your understanding of the neural mechanism that control feeding, mutant mice that lack melanin-concentrating hormone (MCH) neurons in the lateral hypothalamus would be expected to ______.
    • A. 

      Eat less and be underweight

    • B. 

      Eat more nad be overweight

    • C. 

      Eat less but be overweight

    • D. 

      Eat more but be underweight

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 173. 
    Decerebrate rats are able to distingish between tastes, and can respond to hunger and satiety signals.  This finding suggests that at least some of the neural circuits responsible for hunger and satiety are located____.
    • A. 

      In the heart

    • B. 

      In the cerebral cortex

    • C. 

      In the brain stem

    • D. 

      In the olfactory system

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 174. 
    The two types of skeletal muscles are ____and______.
    • A. 

      Intrafusal, extrafusal

    • B. 

      Intrafusal, capsular

    • C. 

      Supercapsular, extrafusal

    • D. 

      Striated, extrafusal

    • E. 

      Capsular, supercapsular

  • 175. 
    Which muscle fibers form muscle spindles?
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle fibers

    • B. 

      Extrafusal muscle fibers

    • C. 

      Intrafusal muscle fibers

    • D. 

      Cardiac muscle fibers

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 176. 
    The corticobulbar tract terminates at the ______
    • A. 

      Spinal cord

    • B. 

      Motor cortex

    • C. 

      Supplementary motor area

    • D. 

      Brain stem

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 177. 
    Which muscles are responsible for our [body] movements?
    • A. 

      Eye muscles

    • B. 

      Tendons

    • C. 

      Skeletal muscles

    • D. 

      Cardiac muscles

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 178. 
    Parkinson's disease is caused by degeneration of the ______.
    • A. 

      Striatum

    • B. 

      VA/VL thalamus (thalamic motor nuclei)

    • C. 

      Flocculonodular node

    • D. 

      Vermis

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 179. 
    Which of the following refers to an inablity to draw objects?
    • A. 

      Constructional apraxia

    • B. 

      Oral apraxia

    • C. 

      Apraxic agraphia

    • D. 

      Limb apraxia

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 180. 
    During a muscular contraction, which neurotransmiter is released by the terminalsof alpha motor neurons?
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Dopamine

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      Epinephrine

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 181. 
    Huntington's disease invovles degeneration of part of the ______?
    • A. 

      Motor cortex

    • B. 

      Somatosensory cortex

    • C. 

      Spinal cord

    • D. 

      Brainstem

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 182. 
    Which type of apraxia would cause you to have difficulty in writing?
    • A. 

      Constuctional apraxia

    • B. 

      Limb apraxia

    • C. 

      Oral apraxia

    • D. 

      Apraxic agraphia

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 183. 
    Where does the ventral anterior/ventral lateral (VA/VL) thalamus send excitatory axons?
    • A. 

      Motor cortex

    • B. 

      Auditory cortex

    • C. 

      Substantia nigra

    • D. 

      Ventral hippocampus

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 184. 
    Motor cortical areas are located ______.
    • A. 

      In the frontal lobe

    • B. 

      In the perietal lobe

    • C. 

      In teh occipital lobe

    • D. 

      In the temporal lobe

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 185. 
    Overalapping strands of actin and mysoin form_____.
    • A. 

      Extrafusal muscle fibers

    • B. 

      Intrafusal muscle fibers

    • C. 

      Myofibrils

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular junction

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 186. 
    What activates mirror neurons?
    • A. 

      Watching a particluar behavior

    • B. 

      Imitating a particluar behavior

    • C. 

      Performing a particular behavior

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 187. 
    How are skeletal muscles attached to bones
    • A. 

      Ligaments

    • B. 

      Tendons

    • C. 

      Interpositus tissue

    • D. 

      Super glue-like substance

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 188. 
    Which type of muscle fibers is directly responsible for moving limbs?
    • A. 

      Intrafusal

    • B. 

      Extrafusal

    • C. 

      Smooth

    • D. 

      Cardiac

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 189. 
    The stretch reflex invovles activation of the ______.
    • A. 

      Golgi tendon organ

    • B. 

      Muscle spindles

    • C. 

      Myofibrils

    • D. 

      Extrafusal fibers

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 190. 
    Muscle contraction can be inhibited by the ______, as occurs during the clasp-knife reflex.
    • A. 

      Golgi tendon organ

    • B. 

      Muscle spindles

    • C. 

      Myofibrils

    • D. 

      Extrafusal fibers

    • E. 

      Noneof the above

  • 191. 
    Muscle fiber contraction, or twitch, occurs when voltage-gated ion channels open.  Which ion enters the cyotplasm when these channels open?
    • A. 

      Sodium

    • B. 

      Potassium

    • C. 

      Cloride

    • D. 

      Calcium

    • E. 

      None the above

  • 192. 
    The motor cortex is organized in a ________manner.
    • A. 

      Retinotopic

    • B. 

      Tonotopic

    • C. 

      Somatotopic

    • D. 

      Sequential

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 193. 
    ______is the standard treatment for Parkinson's disease.
    • A. 

      L-tryptophan

    • B. 

      Dopamine B-hydroxylase

    • C. 

      Methylphenidate

    • D. 

      Fluoxetine

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 194. 
    Cell bodies of neurons that give rise to the corticobulbar tract are located in the_______.
    • A. 

      Medulla

    • B. 

      Motor cortex

    • C. 

      Midbrain

    • D. 

      Spinal cord

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 195. 
    The ventromedial patheway is primarily responsible for ________.
    • A. 

      The control of posture

    • B. 

      Control of the trunk and proximal limb muscles

    • C. 

      Coordinating head and trunk movements with eye movements

    • D. 

      Walking

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 196. 
    The cell bodies of lower motor neurons are located in ________.
    • A. 

      The primary motor cortex

    • B. 

      The premotor cortex

    • C. 

      The muscles

    • D. 

      The spinal cord

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 197. 
    The golgi tendon organ is located in______.
    • A. 

      In the intrafusal fibers

    • B. 

      The extra fusal fibers

    • C. 

      The tendons

    • D. 

      The spinal cord

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 198. 
    Which of the following stements is true regarding the primary motor cortex?
    • A. 

      The primary motor cortex receives direct input form the thalamus

    • B. 

      The primary motor cortex receives direct input form the somatosensory cortex

    • C. 

      The primary motor cortex receives input form the premotor cortex

    • D. 

      The primary motor cortex directly activates alpha motor neurons

    • E. 

      All of hte above are true