CVS Product Related Test - 10 September 2012
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following statements is true?
- A.
Indapamide is a thiazide diuretic
- B.
Indapamide is a thiazide-related diuretic
- C.
Indapamide is a calcium channel blocker
- D.
Indapamide is a NaCl inhibitor
Correct Answer
B. Indapamide is a thiazide-related diureticExplanation
Indapamide is classified as a thiazide-related diuretic. Thiazide-related diuretics have similar mechanisms of action to thiazide diuretics, but they are chemically different. These medications work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys, leading to increased urine production and decreased fluid retention. Indapamide is commonly used to treat hypertension and edema associated with heart failure.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following statements is false?
- A.
Indapamide SR 1,5 mg lowers BP similarly to indapamide IR 1.25 mg
- B.
Indapamide SR 1,5 mg lowers BP similarly to amlodipine 5 mg
- C.
Indapamide SR 1,5 mg lowers BP similarly to amlodipine 5 mg
- D.
Indapamide SR 1,5 mg lowers BP similarly to enalapril 20 mg
Correct Answer
A. Indapamide SR 1,5 mg lowers BP similarly to indapamide IR 1.25 mgExplanation
The statement "Indapamide SR 1,5 mg lowers BP similarly to indapamide IR 1.25 mg" is false because the two medications have different formulations. Indapamide SR (sustained-release) is designed to release the medication slowly over time, while indapamide IR (immediate-release) releases the medication quickly. Therefore, the two formulations may have different effects on blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
- A.
Indapamide lowers BP by blocking alpha receptors in the vasculature
- B.
Indapamide lowers BP by inhibiting the production of renin
- C.
Indapamide lowers BP by slowing the heart rate
- D.
Indapamide lowers BP primarily through a direct vasodilatory effect.
Correct Answer
D. Indapamide lowers BP primarily through a direct vasodilatory effect.Explanation
Indapamide is a medication that belongs to the thiazide-like diuretic class. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys, leading to increased urine production and decreased fluid volume in the body. This reduction in fluid volume helps to lower blood pressure. Additionally, indapamide has been shown to have a direct vasodilatory effect, meaning it relaxes and widens the blood vessels, further contributing to the lowering of blood pressure. Therefore, the statement that indapamide lowers blood pressure primarily through a direct vasodilatory effect is correct.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following statements are true
- A.
Hyperkalaemia refers to an abnormally low concentration of potassium in the blood
- B.
Hypokalaemia refers to an abnormally high concentration of potassium in the blood
- C.
Hypokalaemia refers to an abnormally low concentration of potassium in the blood
- D.
Hypokalaemia refers to an abnormally low concentration of calcium in the blood
Correct Answer
C. Hypokalaemia refers to an abnormally low concentration of potassium in the bloodExplanation
Hypokalaemia refers to an abnormally low concentration of potassium in the blood. This is the correct answer because "hypo" means low or below normal, and "kalaemia" refers to the concentration of potassium in the blood. Therefore, hypokalaemia specifically indicates a lower than normal level of potassium in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Is the following statement true or false? Major concerns with the use of thiazide-type diuretics revolve around sodium and potassium depletion and uric acid and glucose accumulation.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true. Thiazide-type diuretics are known to cause sodium and potassium depletion, as they increase the excretion of these ions in the urine. This can lead to electrolyte imbalances and related complications. Additionally, thiazide diuretics can cause an increase in uric acid levels, which may contribute to gout attacks in susceptible individuals. Furthermore, these diuretics can also lead to an increase in blood glucose levels, which can be problematic for individuals with diabetes or insulin resistance. Therefore, the major concerns with the use of thiazide-type diuretics do revolve around sodium and potassium depletion, as well as uric acid and glucose accumulation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
True or false: Indapamide SR 1,5 mg reduces LVH similarly to enalapril 20 mg
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because Indapamide SR 1.5 mg and enalapril 20 mg are different medications with different mechanisms of action. Indapamide is a diuretic that helps to reduce blood pressure and fluid retention, while enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that also helps to lower blood pressure. While both medications may have some effect on reducing left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH), they do so through different pathways and may have different levels of efficacy. Therefore, it cannot be concluded that they reduce LVH similarly.Rate this question:
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- 7.
True or false: Indapamide SR 1,5 mg seems to be the only agent in the diuretic class proven in large numbers to provide efficient blood pressure control without any associated adverse events on glycaemia, or serum lipid or uric acid levels.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Indapamide SR 1,5 mg has been proven in large numbers to provide efficient blood pressure control without any associated adverse events on glycaemia, serum lipid, or uric acid levels.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Dyna Indapamide SR will be listed as the single generic on MMAP with the reference price of R35.00 from 1 September 2012
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because it states that Dyna Indapamide SR will be listed as the single generic on MMAP with a reference price of R35.00 from 1 September 2012. This means that Dyna Indapamide SR is the only generic version available on the MMAP and it will be sold at a fixed price of R35.00 starting from 1 September 2012.Rate this question:
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- 9.
True or false: Diuretics are included as first line options for the treatment of hypertension according to the South African Hypertension guidelines
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
According to the South African Hypertension guidelines, diuretics are included as first line options for the treatment of hypertension. This means that diuretics are recommended as the initial medication to be prescribed for patients with high blood pressure. Diuretics help to lower blood pressure by increasing urine production and reducing the amount of fluid in the body. They are considered effective and safe for the treatment of hypertension, and are widely used in clinical practice. Therefore, the statement "Diuretics are included as first line options for the treatment of hypertension according to the South African Hypertension guidelines" is true.Rate this question:
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- 10.
True or false: Diuretics should only be used as add on therapy to ACE inhibitors or ARBs according to the South African Hypertension guidelines.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
According to the South African Hypertension guidelines, diuretics can be used as standalone therapy or in combination with ACE inhibitors or ARBs for the treatment of hypertension. Therefore, the statement that diuretics should only be used as add on therapy to ACE inhibitors or ARBs is false.Rate this question:
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- 11.
True or false: Dyna Indapamide SR is manufactured in Europe and has been available for sale in the EU since 2006.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Dyna Indapamide SR is manufactured in Europe and has been available for sale in the EU since 2006.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is a key selling point for Pearinda?
- A.
Within Reference pricing
- B.
Effective 24 hour blood pressure control
- C.
Outcome studies in a broad range of patients
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The key selling point for Pearinda is that it offers all of the mentioned features. It provides effective 24-hour blood pressure control, which is an important aspect for patients with hypertension. Additionally, Pearinda has conducted outcome studies in a broad range of patients, indicating its effectiveness and safety. Moreover, within reference pricing, Pearinda offers a competitive advantage by providing cost-effective options for patients. Overall, Pearinda stands out as a comprehensive solution that encompasses all these key selling points.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How much more cost-effective is Pearinda 4 mg vs Prexum 4 mg despite their recent price reduction??
- A.
14%
- B.
20%
- C.
24%
- D.
34%
Correct Answer
C. 24%Explanation
Pearinda 4 mg is 24% more cost-effective than Prexum 4 mg despite their recent price reduction. This means that Pearinda provides a greater value for the price compared to Prexum, with a cost savings of 24%. This could be due to factors such as lower manufacturing costs, more efficient production processes, or a higher dosage strength that allows for lower overall consumption. Overall, choosing Pearinda over Prexum would result in a 24% cost reduction while still achieving the desired effects.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the cost saving of Fedaloc SR 30 mg vs Adalat XL 30 mg, 30 tablets?
- A.
30%
- B.
38%
- C.
42%
- D.
45%
Correct Answer
C. 42%Explanation
The cost saving of Fedaloc SR 30 mg vs Adalat XL 30 mg, 30 tablets is 42%. This means that by choosing Fedaloc SR over Adalat XL, one can save 42% of the cost. This suggests that Fedaloc SR is significantly cheaper than Adalat XL, making it a more cost-effective option for individuals looking to save money on their medication expenses.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Compared to the originator, Fedaloc SR has shown the same ?
- A.
Active release rate
- B.
Bioequivalence
- C.
Heart rate
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Fedaloc SR has shown the same active release rate, bioequivalence, and heart rate as the originator. This means that Fedaloc SR releases the active ingredient at the same rate as the originator, it is bioequivalent to the originator in terms of safety and efficacy, and it does not affect heart rate differently than the originator. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which once-daily brands are the major competitors for Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg based on IMS data?
- A.
Diamicron MR 30 mg
- B.
Diaglucide MR 30 mg
- C.
Diaran MR 30 mg
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The major competitors for Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg based on IMS data are Diamicron MR 30 mg, Diaglucide MR 30 mg, and Diaran MR 30 mg. This means that all three of these brands are considered to be significant competitors in the market for this medication.Rate this question:
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- 17.
According to 2010 estimates, what is the prevalence of Type 2 diabetes in South Africa?
- A.
Between 5 and 30%
- B.
Between 3 and 28.7%
- C.
Between 25 and 28%
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Between 3 and 28.7%Explanation
The correct answer is "Between 3 and 28.7%". This answer range suggests that the prevalence of Type 2 diabetes in South Africa, according to 2010 estimates, falls somewhere between 3% and 28.7%.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When a non-diabetic person eats, glucose is removed from the bloodstream as follows:-
- A.
The pancreas automatically produces the right amount of insulin to move glucose from the blood stream into our cells.
- B.
The liver automatically produces the right amount of glucagon to move glucose from the blood stream into our cells.
- C.
Fat cells take in glucose from the bloodstream
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The pancreas automatically produces the right amount of insulin to move glucose from the blood stream into our cells.Explanation
The pancreas is responsible for producing insulin, a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When a non-diabetic person eats, the pancreas automatically produces the right amount of insulin to move glucose from the bloodstream into our cells. This process ensures that glucose is properly utilized by the body for energy and keeps blood sugar levels within a normal range.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following takes place in a Type I or Type II diabetic patient
- A.
The pancreas produces little or no insulin.
- B.
The cells do not respond appropriately to the insulin that is produced
- C.
Blood glucose builds up and overflows into the urine where it is excreted
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
In Type I or Type II diabetic patients, all of the mentioned conditions take place. The pancreas produces little or no insulin, which is necessary for regulating blood glucose levels. Additionally, the cells in the body do not respond properly to the insulin that is produced, leading to insulin resistance. As a result, blood glucose levels increase and can overflow into the urine, causing it to be excreted.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the incidence of Type II diabetes, compared to other subtypes
- A.
2 - 5%
- B.
5 - 10%
- C.
90 - 95%
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 90 - 95%Explanation
The incidence of Type II diabetes is estimated to be between 90-95%, which means that it is the most common subtype of diabetes compared to others. This high percentage suggests that Type II diabetes is a prevalent condition, affecting a significant portion of the population.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Type I diabetic patients differ from Type II diabetic patients in that they:-
- A.
Have no endogenous insulin
- B.
Require insulin injections
- C.
Are thin to normal in body weight
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Type I diabetic patients differ from Type II diabetic patients in three main ways. Firstly, they have no endogenous insulin, meaning their bodies do not produce insulin naturally. Secondly, they require insulin injections to regulate their blood sugar levels. Lastly, they are typically thin to normal in body weight, whereas Type II diabetic patients are often overweight or obese. Therefore, all of the given statements are true for Type I diabetic patients.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Type II diabetes is associated with:-
- A.
Individuals aged < 30 years
- B.
Thin to normal body weight
- C.
Family history of diabetes mellitus
- D.
Ketosis
Correct Answer
C. Family history of diabetes mellitusExplanation
Type II diabetes is commonly associated with a family history of diabetes mellitus. This means that individuals who have a family member, such as a parent or sibling, with diabetes are more likely to develop the condition themselves. Other risk factors for Type II diabetes include obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet. However, the given options specifically mention individuals aged less than 30 years, thin to normal body weight, and ketosis, which are not typically associated with Type II diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Type II diabetes is characterised by:-
- A.
Chronic hyperglycaemia
- B.
Microvascular and macrovascular complications
- C.
A combination of insulin resistance and Beta cell dysfunction
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Type II diabetes is a chronic condition that is characterized by several key features. One of these features is chronic hyperglycemia, which refers to consistently high levels of blood sugar. Additionally, individuals with Type II diabetes are at risk for developing both microvascular and macrovascular complications, such as damage to the small blood vessels in the eyes and kidneys, as well as an increased risk for heart disease and stroke. Finally, Type II diabetes is caused by a combination of insulin resistance, meaning the body's cells do not respond properly to insulin, and beta cell dysfunction, which leads to a decrease in insulin production. Therefore, all of the given options accurately describe the characteristics of Type II diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When a Type II diabetic patient is diagnosed, what % of beta cell function has already been lost.
- A.
30%
- B.
40%
- C.
50%
- D.
60%
Correct Answer
C. 50%Explanation
When a Type II diabetic patient is diagnosed, it is estimated that approximately 50% of their beta cell function has already been lost. Beta cells are responsible for producing and releasing insulin in the body. As Type II diabetes progresses, the beta cells become less effective and the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels decreases. This loss of beta cell function is one of the factors contributing to the development of diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Above which HbA1c level is intervention suggested
- A.
6.0
- B.
7.0
- C.
8.0
- D.
9.0
Correct Answer
C. 8.0 -
- 26.
Which of the following is included in the triad of treatment of diabetes
- A.
Diet
- B.
Medication
- C.
Exercise
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The triad of treatment for diabetes includes diet, medication, and exercise. Diet plays a crucial role in managing blood sugar levels by controlling the intake of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Medication, such as insulin or oral medications, may be prescribed to regulate blood sugar levels. Exercise helps improve insulin sensitivity, aids in weight management, and lowers blood sugar levels. Therefore, all three components - diet, medication, and exercise - are essential for comprehensive diabetes treatment.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Glucagon is secreted by:
- A.
Alpha cells
- B.
Beta cells
- C.
Delta cells
- D.
Gamma cells
Correct Answer
A. Alpha cellsExplanation
Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells. Alpha cells are a type of endocrine cell found in the pancreas. They are responsible for producing and releasing glucagon, a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. Glucagon acts opposite to insulin, as it raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This hormone is crucial in maintaining glucose homeostasis and preventing hypoglycemia.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Sulphonylureas like gliclazide are classified as?
- A.
Biguanides
- B.
Insulin secretagogues
- C.
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
- D.
Thiazolidinediones (TZD's)
Correct Answer
B. Insulin secretagoguesExplanation
Sulphonylureas like gliclazide are classified as insulin secretagogues because they work by stimulating the release of insulin from the beta cells in the pancreas. Insulin secretagogues help to lower blood sugar levels by increasing the amount of insulin in the body. This is different from other classes of antidiabetic medications like biguanides, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, and thiazolidinediones, which work through different mechanisms to control blood sugar levels.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What generation of sulphonylurea is gliclazide
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fourth
Correct Answer
B. SecondExplanation
Gliclazide is a second-generation sulphonylurea. This classification is based on the time of development and the specific characteristics of the drug. Second-generation sulphonylureas have a more selective action on pancreatic beta cells, leading to a lower risk of hypoglycemia compared to first-generation drugs. Gliclazide is commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes and helps to lower blood sugar levels by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the glucose lowering range observed with most sulphonylureas?
- A.
0.5 - 0.8%
- B.
0.5 - 1.0%
- C.
0.5 - 1.5%
- D.
1.0 - 2.0%
Correct Answer
D. 1.0 - 2.0%Explanation
Most sulphonylureas are known to lower glucose levels within a range of 1.0 - 2.0%.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is the half-life of gliclazide?
- A.
6 - 8 hours
- B.
8 - 10 hours
- C.
10 - 12 hours
- D.
24 hours
Correct Answer
C. 10 - 12 hoursExplanation
The half-life of a drug refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In the case of gliclazide, the correct answer is 10 - 12 hours, indicating that it takes approximately 10 to 12 hours for half of the drug to be cleared from the body. This information is important for determining the dosing frequency and duration of action of the drug.Rate this question:
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- 32.
According to SEMDSA 2012 guidelines, what is Step 1 following the diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes?
- A.
Lifestyle modification plus sulphonylurea
- B.
Lifestyle modification plus Metformin
- C.
Introduce basal insulin
- D.
Introduce Pioglitazone
Correct Answer
B. Lifestyle modification plus MetforminExplanation
According to the SEMDSA 2012 guidelines, the recommended Step 1 following the diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes is lifestyle modification plus Metformin. Metformin is an oral medication commonly used as a first-line treatment for Type 2 diabetes. It helps to lower blood glucose levels by reducing the production of glucose in the liver and improving the body's sensitivity to insulin. Lifestyle modifications, such as a healthy diet, regular exercise, and weight management, are also crucial in managing Type 2 diabetes. Combining these lifestyle changes with Metformin can effectively control blood sugar levels and improve overall health.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which brand is the unit market leader in the once daily gliclazide market according to IMS, Dec 2011
- A.
Diamicron MR 30mg
- B.
Diaglucide MR 30 mg
- C.
Diaran MR 30 mg
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Diamicron MR 30mgExplanation
Diamicron MR 30mg is the unit market leader in the once daily gliclazide market according to IMS, Dec 2011.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which three brands in the BD gliclazide 80mg market are the unit market leaders?
- A.
Glucomed, Glygard, Glycron
- B.
Diamicron, Diaglucide, Glucomed
- C.
Glucomed, Glygard, Diaglucide
- D.
Diamicron, Arrow Gliclazide, Glucomed
Correct Answer
C. Glucomed, Glygard, DiaglucideExplanation
The correct answer is Glucomed, Glygard, Diaglucide. This is because these three brands are mentioned in the answer option and are identified as the unit market leaders in the BD gliclazide 80mg market.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the cost saving of Dyna Gliclazide SR 30mg vs the pseudo-generic ?
- A.
49%
- B.
40%
- C.
24%
- D.
19%
Correct Answer
C. 24%Explanation
The cost saving of Dyna Gliclazide SR 30mg compared to the pseudo-generic is 24%. This means that by choosing Dyna Gliclazide SR 30mg, one can save 24% of the cost compared to the pseudo-generic option.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is the starting dose of Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg? ?(1)
- A.
1 tablet with breakfast
- B.
2 tablet with breakfast
- C.
3 tablet with breakfast
- D.
4 tablet with breakfast
Correct Answer
A. 1 tablet with breakfastExplanation
The starting dose of Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg is 1 tablet with breakfast.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A patient taking 1 x gliclazide 80 mg tablet in the morning and 1 x gliclazide 80 mg in the evening can be switched to Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg as folllows (1)
- A.
Take 1 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg tablet with breakfast and 1 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg with dinner
- B.
Take 2 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg tablets with breakfast
- C.
Take 2 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg tablets with dinner
- D.
Take 4 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg tablets with breakfast
Correct Answer
B. Take 2 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg tablets with breakfastExplanation
The correct answer is to take 2 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg tablets with breakfast. This is because the patient is currently taking 160 mg of gliclazide daily (80 mg in the morning and 80 mg in the evening). To switch to Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg, the total daily dose of gliclazide needs to be maintained. Taking 2 x Dyna Gliclazide SR 30 mg tablets with breakfast would provide a total dose of 60 mg in the morning, which is equivalent to the patient's current morning dose of 80 mg.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Efferflu C Immune Booster contains which ingredients?
- A.
Vitamin C and Zinc
- B.
Vitamin C, Vitamin B and Zinc
- C.
Vitamin C, Zinc and Echinacea
- D.
Vitamin C, Vitamin B, Zinc and Echinacea
Correct Answer
C. Vitamin C, Zinc and EchinaceaExplanation
Efferflu C Immune Booster contains Vitamin C, Zinc, and Echinacea. These ingredients are commonly used to support and boost the immune system. Vitamin C is known for its antioxidant properties and its role in immune function. Zinc is essential for the development and function of immune cells. Echinacea is a herb that is believed to enhance the immune system and help fight off infections. Therefore, the combination of these three ingredients in Efferflu C Immune Booster can help strengthen the immune system and support overall health.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The new registered brand name for Texa is
- A.
Texa 10
- B.
Texa Allergy
- C.
Texa 10 mg
Correct Answer
B. Texa AllergyExplanation
The correct answer is Texa Allergy because it is mentioned as a new registered brand name for Texa. This implies that Texa has rebranded itself specifically for allergy-related products. Texa 10 and Texa 10 mg are not mentioned as registered brand names, so they are not the correct answers.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the flavour of Texa Allergy Syrup
- A.
Banana
- B.
Peach
- C.
Apricot
- D.
Strawberry
Correct Answer
A. BananaExplanation
The correct answer is Banana because the question asks for the flavor of Texa Allergy Syrup, and out of the given options, Banana is the only flavor mentioned.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the flavour of Pollentyme Syrup?
- A.
Banana
- B.
Peach
- C.
Apricot
- D.
Strawberry
Correct Answer
B. PeachExplanation
The correct answer is Peach because the question asks for the flavor of Pollentyme Syrup, and out of the given options, Peach is the only flavor mentioned.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What would describe the Pollentyme ND position the best?
- A.
Non drowsy, acute treatment allergy treatment
- B.
Non drowsy, nasal decongestive, chronic treatment that assists with allergic inflammation
- C.
Non drowsy, nasal decongestive, acute treatment
Correct Answer
B. Non drowsy, nasal decongestive, chronic treatment that assists with allergic inflammationExplanation
The Pollentyme ND position is best described as a non drowsy nasal decongestive chronic treatment that assists with allergic inflammation. This means that it is a medication that helps with allergies by reducing nasal congestion, is non drowsy, and is meant for long-term use to manage chronic allergic inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 43.
True or false: Pollentyme ND helps relieve nasal decongestion
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Pollentyme ND is a medication that is specifically designed to relieve nasal decongestion. Therefore, the statement "Pollentyme ND helps relieve nasal decongestion" is true.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What time does it take for Indapamide SR to reach its maximum concentration in the blood (Cmax)?
- A.
10
- B.
11
- C.
12
- D.
14
Correct Answer
B. 11Explanation
Indapamide SR takes 11 hours to reach its maximum concentration in the blood (Cmax).Rate this question:
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- 45.
According to the article: “Indapamide Sustained Release- A review of its use in the treatment of hypertension” How many large, randomised, comparative, double-blind, multicentre trails examined the efficacy of Indapamide SR 1,5 mg?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
The article "Indapamide Sustained Release- A review of its use in the treatment of hypertension" examined the efficacy of Indapamide SR 1.5 mg in the treatment of hypertension through 5 large, randomised, comparative, double-blind, multicentre trials. These trials provided evidence and data to support the effectiveness of Indapamide SR 1.5 mg in managing hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What time does it take for Indapamide IR to reach its maximum concentration in the blood (Cmax)?
- A.
8hrs
- B.
0.08hrs
- C.
0.8hrs
- D.
1hr
Correct Answer
C. 0.8hrsExplanation
Indapamide IR reaches its maximum concentration in the blood (Cmax) in 0.8 hours. This means that it takes approximately 48 minutes for the drug to reach its peak concentration in the bloodstream.Rate this question:
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- 47.
According to the article:” Metabolic profile of Indapamide Sustained release in patients with hypertension” how many patients were included in the 3 studies reviewed?
- A.
1190
- B.
1192
- C.
1195
- D.
None of above
Correct Answer
C. 1195Explanation
The article "Metabolic profile of Indapamide Sustained release in patients with hypertension" reviewed 3 studies and included a total of 1195 patients.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Adco-Dapmax is the Indapamide IR market leader
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement "Adco-Dapmax is the Indapamide IR market leader" is false. This means that Adco-Dapmax is not the leading product in the market for Indapamide IR.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the saving Dyna Indapamide offers over the originator?
- A.
45%
- B.
55%
- C.
65%
- D.
70%
Correct Answer
C. 65%Explanation
Dyna Indapamide offers a saving of 65% over the originator. This means that the cost of Dyna Indapamide is 65% lower than the cost of the original product. This significant price difference makes Dyna Indapamide a more affordable option for consumers who need this medication.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The main symptoms of Type II diabetes are: Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphasia,Glycosuria or Glucosuria
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The main symptoms of Type II diabetes include polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyphagia (excessive hunger), and glycosuria or glucosuria (presence of glucose in the urine). These symptoms occur due to the body's inability to properly regulate blood sugar levels. Therefore, the statement "The main symptoms of Type II diabetes are polyuria, polydipsia, polyphasia, glycosuria or glucosuria" is true.Rate this question:
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