1.
A patient has the following test results: Serum Urea Nitrogen (BUN) - 42 mg/dL Serum Creatinine - 0.9 mg/dL After calculating the BUN/Creatinine ratio, one would suspect the patient has a:
Correct Answer
A. Prerenal azotemia
2.
If an arterial blood sample had a bicarbonate of 25 mmol/L and a pCO2 of 58 mmHg, which of the following conditions most likely exists in this patient?
Correct Answer
C. Respiratory acidosis
3.
You are trying to determine which glucose method is the most PRECISE in your laboratory. After running the same QC material for one month, method A gives a mean +/- 2 standard deviation of 120 +/- 12 mg/dL and method B gives a mean +/- 2 standard deviation of 135 +/- 12 mg/dL. Which method is more precise and why?
Correct Answer
E. None of the above are true
4.
The selective membrane of the potassium ISE is most commonly composed of:
Correct Answer
C. Valincomycin
5.
A patient being evaluated for diabetes mellitus is given a two-hour OGTT. The patient is diagnosed as having severe diabetes if the serum glucose:
Correct Answer
B. Elevates 60-120 minutes after ingestion and remains elevated
6.
Hemolytic jaundice will give which of the following results? 1. increased direct bilirubin 2. normal direct bilirubin 3. increased indirect bilirubin 4. normal indirect bilirubin 5. increased urine urobilinogen 6. normal urine urobilinogen 7. decreased urine urobilinogen 8. increased fecal urobilin 9. decreased fecal urobilin 10. increased urine bilirubin
Correct Answer
D. 2, 3, 5, 8
7.
A patient's blood gas results are: pH: 7.5, pCO2: 55 mmHg, HCO2: 40 mmol/L These results indicate:
Correct Answer
A. Metabolic acidosis
8.
A serum osmolality done in the emergency toom is 326 mOsm/kg. Two hours later, chemistry results are: sodium: 135 mmol/L, BUN: 18 mg/dL, glucose: 72 mg/dL, osmlolality: 318 mOsm/kg What do these results suggest?
Correct Answer
C. Drug or alcohol intoxication
9.
A patient's urine protein from a 24-hour collection was 320 mg/L. If the patient's 24-hour urine volume was 650 mL, the patient's urine protein should be reported as:
Correct Answer
A. 208 mg / 24 hours
10.
The percentage of values that will fall between +/- 2 SD in a Gaussian (normal) distribution is:
Correct Answer
B. 95%
11.
The presence of increased CKMB and MCMM activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from:
Correct Answer
A. Myocardial infarction
12.
Cirrhosis results in which of the following electrophoretic serum protein patterns?
Correct Answer
C. Beta-gamma bridging
13.
A 2 month old child is suffering from chronic respiratory problems. The child is small and appears very ill. The attending pediatrician orders a sweat chloride test. If the result is 110 mmol/L, the pediatrition suspects the child is suffering from:
Correct Answer
B. Cystic Fibrosis
14.
The reagent blank corrects for absorbance caused by:
Correct Answer
A. The color of reagent
15.
When should blood samples for trough drug levels be collected?
Correct Answer
C. Immediately before the next dose is given
16.
A 23-year old woman enters the hospital with dark urine and yellow eyes. She has complained of tiredness and of not feeling well for two previous weeks. Her total serum bilirubin level is 9.5 mg/dL, direct bilirubin is 6.0 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase is 200 mu/mL (normal up to 150). The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer
B. Biliary obstruction
17.
Sixty to seventy-five percent of plasma cholesterol is transported as:
Correct Answer
C. LDL
18.
Which of the following disorders is best characterized by these laboratory results? serum iron: decreased, total iron binding capacity: increased, transferrin saturation: decreased, serum ferritin: decreased, free erythrocyte protoporphyrin: increased
Correct Answer
C. Iron deficiency anemia
19.
Using the key below, you would expect the following results in a hyperthyroid patient: 1 = increased Total T4 6 = decreased Total T4 2 = increased T-Uptake 7 = decreased T-Uptake 3 = increased TSH 8 = decreased TSH 4 = increased Free T4 9 = decreased Free T4 5 = increased FTI 10 = decreased FTI
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 8
20.
Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?
Correct Answer
B. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 38% Hgb A2: 2%
21.
Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures?
Correct Answer
C. 1:9
22.
The following results are obtained: PT: normal, APTT: abnormal, mixed with serum corrects APTT Possible factor deficiencies are:
Correct Answer
A. IX, XI, XII
23.
Which of the following is the most common cause of an abnormality in hemostasis?
Correct Answer
D. Quantitative abnormality of platelets
24.
A manual WBC count gave a total of 36 cells counted in all 9 mm of a Neubauer ruled hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. What is the WBC count?
Correct Answer
B. 0.4 x 10^9/L
25.
If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 5.5% and a RBC count of 1.5 x 106/uL, what is the absolute reticulocyte count?
Correct Answer
A. 82.5 x 10^9/L
26.
An increased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
27.
Given the following values, which set of RBC indices suggests spherocytosis?
Correct Answer
C. MCV 76 um; MCH 36.5 pg; MCHC 39.0 g/dL
28.
Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia?
Correct Answer
B. Thalassemia syndrome
29.
In myeloid metaplasia, the characteristic abnormal red cell morphology is that of:
Correct Answer
A. Teardrop cells
30.
Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia?
Correct Answer
C. Normocytic, normochromic
31.
In manual or visual endpoint coagulation tests, duplicates are needed because:
Correct Answer
C. High precision is less attainable in manual methodology
32.
Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by:
Correct Answer
A. Total iron binding capacity
33.
What is the most likely explanation of the following results from an EDTA sample? WBC's 4.9 x 109/L; MCV 113 um; Hct 31.5%; MCHC 38.7 g/dL; Hgb 12.2 g/dL; RBC's 2.80 x 106/uL; MCH 43.6 pg
Correct Answer
D. High titer of cold agglutinins
34.
WBC's 6.0 x 103/uL; RBC's 1.90 x 106/uL; platelets 130,000/uL; Hgb 6.0 g/dL; Hct 18.5%; serum B12 and folic acid normal Differential: 6% PMN's, 40% lymphocytes, 4% monocytes, 50% blasts Bone Marrow: 40% myeloblasts, 60% megaloblastoid pronormoblasts, 40 megaloblastoid NRBC's/100 WBC's These results are most characteristic of:
Correct Answer
B. Erythroleukemia (M6)
35.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following FAB designations of acute leukemia?
Correct Answer
B. M3
36.
Toxic granulation is most commonly observed as a cytoplasmic inclusion of:
Correct Answer
D. Neutrophils
37.
Given the following data: segs 56%; bands 2%; lymphs 30%; monos 6%; eos 6%; WBC 8.5 x 103/mL What is the absolute lymphocyte count?
Correct Answer
B. 2,550
38.
The laboratory values are seen. WBC's 76 x 10/uL; RBC's 4.20 x 10/uL; platelets 398,000/uL; Hgb 12.5 g/dL; Hct 36.8% Differential: 60% PMNs, 10% bands, 12% lymphocytes, 7% monocytes, 2% eosinophils, 1% basophils, 8% metamyelocytes RBC morphology: normocytic, normochromic, moderate toxic granulation, occasional dohle body Which test helps establish a diagnosis?
Correct Answer
A. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain
39.
The most sensitive and specific treponemal test is the:
Correct Answer
B. FTA-ABS
40.
Which disease is likely to show a rim (peripheral) pattern in an immunofluorescence (IF) test for antinuclear antibodies (ANA)?
Correct Answer
C. Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)
41.
Interpret the following quantitative rapid plasma reagin test results. RPR titer: weakly reactive 1:8, reactive 1:8 - 1:64.
Correct Answer
A. Excess antibody, prozone effect
42.
Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection?
Correct Answer
A. HBsAg
43.
Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause a false-positive result when testing for syphilis?
Correct Answer
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
44.
Interpret the following results for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection. IgG and IgM antibodies to viral capsid antigen (VCA): positive.
Correct Answer
C. Current infection
45.
Which statement concerning non-forssman antibody is true?
Correct Answer
A. Is not absorbed by guinea pig antigen
46.
What is the endpoint for the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test?
Correct Answer
D. Highest serum dilution that shows no hemolysis
47.
Which increase in antibody titer (dilution) best indicates an acute infection?
Correct Answer
C. From 1:16 to 1:256
48.
Which complement component is found in both classical and alternative pathways?
Correct Answer
D. C3
49.
Presence of anti-VCA, anti-EA and anti-EBNA indicate what type of EBV infection?
Correct Answer
C. Recovery
50.
What is the titer in tube 8 if tube 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?
Correct Answer
A. 1:128