Science Quiz: Physics And Chemistry! Trivia

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Science Quiz: Physics And Chemistry! Trivia - Quiz

Are you thirsty for knowledge? Do you want to unravel the scientific mysteries? If you want, then take this quiz to test your understanding of physics and chemistry. This quiz contains questions from all the topics. Learn and assess your science concepts. Let's give it a try. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The strain is defined as the ratio of:

    • A.

      Change in length to the original length

    • B.

      Change in volume to the original volume

    • C.

      Change in cross-sectional area to original cross-sectional area

    • D.

      Any one of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Change in length to the original length
    Explanation
    The strain is defined as the change in length to the original length. This means that it is a measure of how much a material deforms or stretches when subjected to a force or load. By comparing the change in length to the original length, we can determine the extent of deformation and quantify the strain experienced by the material.

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  • 2. 

    The unit of Young’s modulus is:

    • A.

      Mm/mm

    • B.

      Kg/cm

    • C.

      Kg

    • D.

      Kg/cm2

    Correct Answer
    D. Kg/cm2
    Explanation
    Young's modulus is a measure of the stiffness of a material and is defined as the ratio of stress to strain. Stress is force per unit area, and strain is the change in length per unit length. Therefore, the unit of Young's modulus is the same as the unit of stress, which is force per unit area. In the given options, "kg/cm2" is the only unit that represents force per unit area, making it the correct answer.

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  • 3. 

    The impact strength of a material is an index of its:

    • A.

      Toughness   

    • B.

       tensile strength

    • C.

      The capability of being cold worked

    • D.

      Hardness

    Correct Answer
    A. Toughness   
    Explanation
    The impact strength of a material refers to its ability to withstand sudden forces or shocks without breaking or fracturing. It measures the toughness of the material, which is its ability to absorb energy and deform without breaking. Tensile strength, on the other hand, refers to the maximum amount of tensile stress a material can withstand before breaking. The capability of being cold worked refers to the material's ability to be shaped or formed at low temperatures. Hardness, on the other hand, refers to the material's resistance to indentation or scratching. Therefore, the correct answer is toughness, as it directly relates to the material's ability to withstand impact forces.

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  • 4. 

    Several forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if:

    • A.

      Some of the forces are zero

    • B.

      The algebraic sum of the forces is zero

    • C.

      Some of the resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions are both zero

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above." This is because for several forces acting at a point to be in equilibrium, the algebraic sum of the forces must be zero, not just some of the forces. Additionally, the resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions must also be zero for equilibrium to be achieved. Therefore, none of the options provided in the question accurately describe the condition for equilibrium.

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  • 5. 

    Two forces of 6 and 8 kg act at right angles to each other, the resultant force will be (use parallelogram)  

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      58

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    When two forces act at right angles to each other, the resultant force can be found using the parallelogram law. According to this law, the magnitude of the resultant force is equal to the diagonal of the parallelogram formed by the two forces. In this case, the diagonal of the parallelogram can be calculated using the Pythagorean theorem. The magnitude of the resultant force is therefore √(6^2 + 8^2) = √(36 + 64) = √100 = 10.

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  • 6. 

    The flow of the refrigerant in a refrigeration cycle is controlled by:

    • A.

      Compressor

    • B.

      Condenser

    • C.

      Evaporator

    • D.

      Expansion valve

    Correct Answer
    D. Expansion valve
    Explanation
    The expansion valve controls the flow of the refrigerant in a refrigeration cycle. It is responsible for regulating the amount of refrigerant that enters the evaporator, where it absorbs heat from the surroundings and cools the area. The expansion valve acts as a metering device, maintaining a constant and controlled flow of refrigerant into the evaporator. This helps to ensure efficient cooling and proper functioning of the refrigeration system.

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  • 7. 

    Sub-cooling is

    • A.

      Cooling a part of the liquid

    • B.

      Differential cooling of a liquid

    • C.

      Removing latent heat from a gas

    • D.

      Removing sensible heat from a liquid

    Correct Answer
    A. Cooling a part of the liquid
    Explanation
    Sub-cooling refers to the process of cooling a part of the liquid below its boiling point temperature. It involves reducing the temperature of the liquid further after it has already reached its boiling point. This is done by removing additional heat from the liquid, causing it to condense and become even colder. Sub-cooling is commonly used in refrigeration systems to enhance the efficiency and performance of the cooling process.

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  • 8. 

      A flange coupling is

    • A.

      Used for non-collinear shafts

    • B.

      Used for collinear shafts

    • C.

      Flexible

    • D.

      Used only on small shafts rotating at slow speeds

    Correct Answer
    B. Used for collinear shafts
    Explanation
    A flange coupling is used for collinear shafts because it allows for the connection of two shafts that are aligned in a straight line. This type of coupling is designed to transmit torque between the shafts while maintaining alignment and providing flexibility to accommodate any misalignment or movement between the shafts. Flange couplings are commonly used in applications where the shafts need to be connected securely and efficiently, such as in industrial machinery and equipment. They are capable of handling high torque loads and are suitable for use with both large and small shafts rotating at various speeds.

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  • 9. 

    In the case of a knuckle joint the pin is likely to fail in

    • A.

      Compression

    • B.

      Crushing

    • C.

      Tension

    • D.

      Double shear

    Correct Answer
    D. Double shear
    Explanation
    In a knuckle joint, the pin is subjected to forces that are trying to pull it apart from two different directions. This is known as double shear. When a pin is loaded in double shear, it distributes the load more evenly across its cross-sectional area, reducing the stress concentration and preventing failure. Therefore, the pin is more likely to fail in double shear rather than in compression, crushing, or tension.

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  • 10. 

    The rivet diameter should be:

    • A.

      Half the plate thickness

    • B.

      Less than the plate thickness

    • C.

      Equal to the strap thickness

    • D.

      More than the plate thickness

    Correct Answer
    D. More than the plate thickness
    Explanation
    The rivet diameter should be more than the plate thickness because a larger diameter provides a stronger connection between the plates. A larger rivet diameter increases the contact area between the plates, distributing the load more evenly and reducing the risk of failure. Additionally, a larger diameter allows for a deeper and wider rivet head, which further enhances the strength and stability of the joint.

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  • 11. 

    The accuracy depends upon

    • A.

      Precision of instrument

    • B.

      Precision of method

    • C.

      Good planning

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The accuracy of a measurement depends on multiple factors, including the precision of the instrument used, the precision of the method employed, and good planning. The precision of the instrument refers to its ability to provide consistent and reliable measurements. The precision of the method refers to the level of detail and control in the procedure followed. Good planning involves careful consideration of variables, potential errors, and appropriate techniques to minimize them. Therefore, all of these factors contribute to the overall accuracy of a measurement.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an indirect pressure measuring device?

    • A.

      Bourdon tube

    • B.

      Flat diaphragm

    • C.

      Ionization gauge

    • D.

      Manometer

    Correct Answer
    C. Ionization gauge
    Explanation
    An ionization gauge is an indirect pressure measuring device because it measures pressure indirectly by detecting the ionization of gas molecules in a vacuum. When gas molecules enter the gauge, they are ionized by a filament or electrode, and the resulting ions are collected and measured to determine the pressure. Unlike direct pressure measuring devices like Bourdon tubes or manometers, which directly measure the force exerted by the gas, the ionization gauge relies on the ionization process to indirectly measure the pressure.

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  • 13. 

    In a car the fuel level is measured by:

    • A.

      Electronic transducer

    • B.

      Float method

    • C.

      Dip stick

    • D.

      Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Float method
    Explanation
    The correct answer is float method. In a car, the fuel level is measured using a float method. This method involves a float attached to a sensor inside the fuel tank. As the fuel level changes, the float moves up and down, sending a signal to the fuel gauge on the dashboard to indicate the current fuel level. This method is commonly used in most vehicles to accurately measure the fuel level and provide the driver with information about the amount of fuel remaining in the tank.

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  • 14. 

    Which motorcycle has a maximum power rating?

    • A.

      Jawa

    • B.

      Rajdoot

    • C.

      Yezdi

    • D.

      Yamaha

    Correct Answer
    D. Yamaha
    Explanation
    Yamaha is the correct answer because it is a well-known motorcycle brand that offers a wide range of powerful motorcycles. Yamaha motorcycles are known for their high-performance engines and cutting-edge technology, which allows them to have a higher maximum power rating compared to other brands like Jawa, Rajdoot, and Yezdi.

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  • 15. 

    In a four-stroke engine, each cylinder has:

    • A.

      One valve

    • B.

      Two valves

    • C.

      Three valves

    • D.

      Four valves

    Correct Answer
    B. Two valves
    Explanation
    A four-stroke engine is a type of internal combustion engine that completes four separate strokes (intake, compression, combustion, and exhaust) in each cycle. In this type of engine, each cylinder typically has two valves: an intake valve and an exhaust valve. The intake valve allows the fuel-air mixture to enter the cylinder during the intake stroke, while the exhaust valve allows the combustion gases to exit the cylinder during the exhaust stroke. Having two valves per cylinder is a common configuration in four-stroke engines, providing efficient intake and exhaust processes for optimal engine performance.

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  • 16. 

    The purpose of the dynamo in an automobile is to:

    • A.

      Supply electric power

    • B.

      Convert mechanical energy into electrical energy

    • C.

      Act as a reservoir of electrical energy

    • D.

      Continually recharge the battery

    Correct Answer
    D. Continually recharge the battery
    Explanation
    The purpose of the dynamo in an automobile is to continually recharge the battery. The dynamo, also known as an alternator, converts mechanical energy from the engine into electrical energy, which is then used to recharge the battery. This ensures that the battery remains charged and provides a continuous supply of electric power to various components of the automobile.

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  • 17. 

    Solar cells are made of:

    • A.

      Silica

    • B.

      Steel

    • C.

      Sulphur

    • D.

      Antimony

    Correct Answer
    A. Silica
    Explanation
    Solar cells are made of silica, also known as silicon dioxide. Silica is a key component in the production of solar cells because it is a semiconductor material. When light hits the solar cell, the silica absorbs the photons and releases electrons, creating an electric current. Silica is abundant, inexpensive, and has excellent electrical properties, making it an ideal material for solar cell production.

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  • 18. 

    One calorie is the same as:

    • A.

      1 dyne

    • B.

      1 dyne-sec

    • C.

      1 watt

    • D.

      4.18 joules

    Correct Answer
    D. 4.18 joules
    Explanation
    One calorie is equivalent to 4.18 joules. This is because a calorie is defined as the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius. The joule is the standard unit of energy in the International System of Units (SI), and it is equal to the amount of work done when a force of one newton is applied over a distance of one meter. Therefore, 4.18 joules is the correct conversion for one calorie.

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  • 19. 

    Metals are good conductors of heat because:

    • A.

      They contain free electrons

    • B.

      Their atoms are relatively far apart

    • C.

      Their atoms collide frequently

    • D.

      They have reflecting surfaces

    Correct Answer
    A. They contain free electrons
    Explanation
    Metals are good conductors of heat because they contain free electrons. These free electrons are not bound to any specific atom and are able to move freely through the metal lattice. When heat is applied to a metal, these free electrons gain kinetic energy and move rapidly, transferring the heat energy throughout the material. This movement of free electrons allows metals to efficiently conduct heat, making them good conductors.

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  • 20. 

    Which one of the following will have the least value of thermal conductivity?

    • A.

      Copper

    • B.

      Silver

    • C.

      Glass

    • D.

      Air

    Correct Answer
    D. Air
    Explanation
    Air will have the least value of thermal conductivity because it is a poor conductor of heat. Unlike copper and silver, which are metals and have high thermal conductivity, air is a gas and has low thermal conductivity. Glass, although a solid, also has higher thermal conductivity compared to air. Therefore, air is the correct answer as it has the least value of thermal conductivity among the given options.

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