Phys1 Exam Prep

51 Questions | Total Attempts: 63

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Physiology Quizzes & Trivia

Let’s talk physiology, shall we? Physiology is the scientific study of normal mechanisms and their interactions, which works within a living system. What do you know about this particular subject? Let’s take a look in this quiz!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The thalamus is
    • A. 

      The source of nearly all the axons that project to the cerebral cortex.

    • B. 

      Concerned mainly with vision.

    • C. 

      Concerned manly with hearing.

    • D. 

      Concerned with autonomic regulation.

  • 2. 
    Wernicke's area is necessary for
    • A. 

      Motivation.

    • B. 

      Understanding and formulating coherent speech.

    • C. 

      Initiating the muscular movements of speech.

    • D. 

      Processing visual images.

  • 3. 
    A bird hits the windshield of your car and you reflexly duck and close your eyes. Which of the following is responsible for this action?
    • A. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • B. 

      Superior colliculus

    • C. 

      Primary visual cortex

    • D. 

      Thalamus

  • 4. 
    Destruction of the ventral horn cells of the spinal cord results in loss of
    • A. 

      Integrating impulses.

    • B. 

      Sensory impulses.

    • C. 

      Voluntary motor impulses.

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 5. 
    The only cranial nerve to innervate abdominal viscera is the
    • A. 

      Accessory.

    • B. 

      Glossopharyngeal.

    • C. 

      Trigeminal.

    • D. 

      Vagus.

  • 6. 
    Golgi tendon organs
    • A. 

      Are silenced when a muscle is stretched.

    • B. 

      Inhibit the discharge of muscle spindles.

    • C. 

      Produce inhibition of the motor neurons of their own muscle when they are activated.

    • D. 

      Behave as receptors in parallel with contracting muscle fibres

  • 7. 
    Which of the following occurs in a crossed extensor reflex but NOT in a stretch reflex?
    • A. 

      Sense organs are stimulated

    • B. 

      Sensory neurones are stimulated

    • C. 

      Commissural interneurones are stimulated

    • D. 

      Motor neurones are stimulated

  • 8. 
    John sees Martha; the pupils of his eyes dilate. It is “love at first sight”. What division of the autonomic nervous system is involved?
    • A. 

      Sympathetic division

    • B. 

      Parasympathetic division

    • C. 

      Neither a or b

    • D. 

      Somatic nervous system

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is not an effector (target) of autonomic nervous system (ANS) motor neurons?
    • A. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • C. 

      Endocrine glands

    • D. 

      Smooth muscle

  • 10. 
    Which statement regarding autonomic sympathetic neurons is false?
    • A. 

      They are usually activated as a single unit (mass activation).

    • B. 

      They emerge from the brain and sacral regions.

    • C. 

      They form white and grey rami communicantes fibres.

    • D. 

      They may have ganglia located along the spinal cord.

  • 11. 
    The ‘fight-or-flight’ response includes all of these EXCEPT __________.
    • A. 

      Hunger

    • B. 

      Pounding heart

    • C. 

      Sweating palms

    • D. 

      All of these are part of the fight-or-flight response

  • 12. 
    Which of the following occurs when the parasympathetic system is stimulated?
    • A. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • B. 

      Increased motility of the digestive tract

    • C. 

      Increased metabolism in skeletal muscle

    • D. 

      Increased heart rate

  • 13. 
    Cutaneous receptor fields are smallest in the
    • A. 

      Fingerips

    • B. 

      Back

    • C. 

      Thighs

    • D. 

      Arms

  • 14. 
    Free nerve endings respond to
    • A. 

      Temperature change and pain

    • B. 

      Pressure and vibration

    • C. 

      Light touch and two-point discrimination

    • D. 

      Temperature change and pressure

  • 15. 
    Which is not a characteristic of olfactory sensation?
    • A. 

      Olfactory receptors can be classified as chemoreceptors and exteroceptors.

    • B. 

      Olfactory receptors are bipolar neurons that are unique, dividing by mitosis to replace themselves every month or two.

    • C. 

      Olfactory information (smell) is perceived in the limbic system region of the cerebral cortex.

    • D. 

      Smells can affect both memory and emotion.

    • E. 

      All of these are characteristic of olfactory sensation.

  • 16. 
    Put these structures in the correct order in which sound waves are transmitted for hearing 1.malleus 2.oval window 3.tympanic membrane 4.stapes 5.endolymph 6.perilymph 7.incus
    • A. 

      1-7-4-3-2-5-6

    • B. 

      3-1-7-4-2-6-5

    • C. 

      2-1-7-4-3-6-5

    • D. 

      3-2-1-7-4-6-5

  • 17. 
    Hair cells, ampulla, and cupula are located in the
    • A. 

      Utricle and saccule

    • B. 

      Vestibular apparatus

    • C. 

      Semicircular canals

    • D. 

      Cochlea

  • 18. 
    The louder the sound intensity entering the ear, the greater the
    • A. 

      Amplitude of action potentials formed by sensory hair cells

    • B. 

      Frequency of action potentials formed by sensory hair cells

    • C. 

      Displacement of the basilar membrane

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

    • E. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 19. 
    The ability of the lens to increase its curvature and maintain a focus at close distances is called
    • A. 

      Convergence

    • B. 

      Accommodation

    • C. 

      Astigmatism

    • D. 

      Ambylopia

  • 20. 
    Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect
    • A. 

      Accommodation

    • B. 

      Refraction

    • C. 

      Convergence

    • D. 

      Pupil constriction

  • 21. 
    Arrange the following events in correct sequence (1) retinal cells generate action potential (2) person becomes aware of the information obtained by CNS (3) visual cortex translates action potential (4) bright light is shone into the eye (5) optic nerve conducts action potential to CNS
    • A. 

      4-5-1-3-2

    • B. 

      4-1-2-3-5

    • C. 

      4-1-5-3-2

    • D. 

      4-2-1-5-3

  • 22. 
    Each of the following statements concerning vision is true EXCEPT one. Identify the exception
    • A. 

      Fibres in each optic nerve cross to the opposite sides of the brain at the optic chiasm

    • B. 

      Fibres of the optic nerve synapse at the lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

    • C. 

      The image that is formed on the retina is inverted

    • D. 

      Depth perception is improved when one eye is closed

  • 23. 
    The pitted portion of the retina upon which the image of the objects we look at falls, and which contains almost all cones for greatest visual acuity, is called the
    • A. 

      Ganglion cell layer

    • B. 

      Optic disc

    • C. 

      Fovea centralis

    • D. 

      Pigmented epithelium

    • E. 

      Choroid layer

  • 24. 
    The endocrine system
    • A. 

      Releases neurotransmitters into ducts.

    • B. 

      Secretes chemicals that reach their targets through the bloodstream.

    • C. 

      Communicates via frequency-modulated signals.

    • D. 

      Contains organs called exocrine glands.

  • 25. 
    Which of the following correctly associates an endocrine gland with the hormone it produces
    • A. 

      Pancreas – glucagon

    • B. 

      Neurohypophysis – growth hormone

    • C. 

      Anterior pituitary – corticotrophin releasing hormone

    • D. 

      Adrenal medulla – cortisol

  • 26. 
    Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
    • A. 

      Oestrogen

    • B. 

      Aldosterone

    • C. 

      Adrenaline

    • D. 

      Testosterone

  • 27. 
    Which of the following events is NOT involved in thyroid hormone action?
    • A. 

      Binding of hormone to it’s receptor

    • B. 

      Dimerisation with a receptor of the same type

    • C. 

      Binding of receptor to a hormone response element

    • D. 

      Binding of the hormone to a cytoplasmic carrier protein

  • 28. 
    Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?
    • A. 

      Extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone.

    • B. 

      An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP.

    • C. 

      A hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cells DNA.

    • D. 

      Second messenger systems.

    • E. 

      Plasma membrane bound hormone receptors.

  • 29. 
    G-protein coupled receptors:
    • A. 

      Are ligand activated transcription factors

    • B. 

      Directly control membrane channels

    • C. 

      May involve activation of phospholipase C

    • D. 

      Become activated kinases upon receptor binding

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is NOT a hormone of the anterior pituitary gland?
    • A. 

      Growth hormone

    • B. 

      Follicle-stimulating hormone

    • C. 

      Oxytocin

    • D. 

      Prolactin

  • 31. 
    Growth hormone
    • A. 

      Increases amino acid uptake in cells.

    • B. 

      Decreases the use of fat as an energy source.

    • C. 

      Decreases the synthesis and storage of glycogen.

    • D. 

      Increases the use of glucose for energy.

  • 32. 
    Oxytocin is responsible for
    • A. 

      Preventing release of insulin from the pancreas.

    • B. 

      Preventing the formation of goitres.

    • C. 

      Causing contractions of uterine smooth muscle during labour.

    • D. 

      Regulating blood calcium levels.

  • 33. 
    The major secretory products of the zona glomerulosa are
    • A. 

      Glucocorticoids

    • B. 

      Mineralocorticoids

    • C. 

      Androgens

    • D. 

      Catecholamines

  • 34. 
    Secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone would be greatest when:
    • A. 

      The diet is deficient in iodine

    • B. 

      Secretion of ACTH is minimal

    • C. 

      The adrenal glands are removed

    • D. 

      Thyroxine is injected

  • 35. 
    Which of the following would cause a rapid rise in blood calcium levels?
    • A. 

      Removal of the kidneys

    • B. 

      Removal of the parathyroid glands

    • C. 

      Injection of parathyroid hormone

    • D. 

      Injection of calcitonin

  • 36. 
    Secretion of insulin would be highest:
    • A. 

      During a fast

    • B. 

      When pancreatic β cells are congenitally absent

    • C. 

      When glucose is injected intravenously

    • D. 

      When there is a need to mobilise energy reserves into the blood

  • 37. 
    Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) regulates the release of
    • A. 

      Prolactin and oxytocin.

    • B. 

      Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone.

    • C. 

      Oestrogen and testosterone.

    • D. 

      Progesterone and prolactin.

  • 38. 
    The abnormal growth of the thyroid gland, called goitre, is
    • A. 

      Caused by the oversecretion of thyroxine

    • B. 

      Caused by abnormally high levels of TSH secretion

    • C. 

      Successfully treated with radioactively labelled iodine

    • D. 

      Caused by abnormally low levels of TRH secretion

  • 39. 
    Which of these types of muscle cells are NOT capable of spontaneous depolarisation?
    • A. 

      Single-unit smooth muscle.

    • B. 

      Multi-unit smooth muscle.

    • C. 

      Cardiac muscle.

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • E. 

      Both b and d.

  • 40. 
    The amount of tension generated by a skeletal muscle
    • A. 

      Is greatest when the muscle is between 100 and 120% of its optimal resting length.

    • B. 

      Is increased by recruiting more motor units.

    • C. 

      Is increased by summation.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 41. 
    During prolonged (90 or more minutes) exercise the preferred energy source for skeletal muscle is
    • A. 

      Plasma glucose.

    • B. 

      Muscle glycogen.

    • C. 

      Plasma fatty acids.

    • D. 

      Muscle triglycerides.

  • 42. 
    Within a muscle the fibers are divided into larger bundles called ____, each surrounded by its own connective tissue sheath.
    • A. 

      Sarcomeres

    • B. 

      Sarcolemmas

    • C. 

      Myofibers

    • D. 

      Fascicles

  • 43. 
    The term ____ is synonymous with muscle cell.
    • A. 

      Myofiber

    • B. 

      Sarcomere

    • C. 

      Myofibril

    • D. 

      Fascicle

  • 44. 
    A muscle is stimulated and exhibits a contraction (twitch). Before this twitch is over, it is stimulated again, and a second twitch occurs "piggyback" on the first one and causes a higher contraction strength. This phenomenon is called
    • A. 

      tetanus

    • B. 

      graded contraction

    • C. 

      summation

    • D. 

      isometric contraction

  • 45. 
    When a muscle is stimulated at such high frequency there is no visible relaxation between stimuli, the muscle is said to be in a state of
    • A. 

      Treppe

    • B. 

      Complete tetanus

    • C. 

      Isotonic contraction

    • D. 

      Summation

  • 46. 
    If enough muscle fibers contract to make the muscle as a whole shorten in length, the muscle is said to exhibit
    • A. 

      Complete tetanus

    • B. 

      Graded contraction

    • C. 

      Isometric contraction

    • D. 

      Isotonic contraction

  • 47. 
    The series elastic component of muscle action refers to the
    • A. 

      Necessity of numerous myofibers to contract if the muscle is to shorten

    • B. 

      Connection between electrical excitation of a myofiber and its contraction

    • C. 

      Sliding filament interaction between thick and thin filaments

    • D. 

      Ability of tendons to stretch and absorb some of the force of contraction

  • 48. 
    A muscle contracts because its
    • A. 

      Protein molecules get shorter

    • B. 

      Thick filaments get shorter

    • C. 

      Thin filaments slide between the thick filaments

    • D. 

      Tendons pull on it from opposite ends

  • 49. 
    At what stage of muscle contraction is ATP split into ADP and Pi?
    • A. 

      Before the cross bridges of myosin can attach to actin

    • B. 

      During the power stroke when the myosin cross bridge flexes

    • C. 

      At the end of the power stroke before myosin lets go of the actin filament

    • D. 

      At the end of the power stroke after myosin lets go

  • 50. 
    The stiffness of muscles in a corpse (rigor mortis) results from the fact that
    • A. 

      all the neurotransmitter is used up.

    • B. 

      all the calcium ion is used up.

    • C. 

      thick filaments cannot let go of the thin filaments without ATP.

    • D. 

      motor neurons can no longer function.

  • 51. 
    ATP is required by two different processes that are necessary to the contraction and relaxation of a muscle: the interaction between the thick and thin filaments of the sarcomeres, and the
    • A. 

      Binding of acetylcholine to the motor end plate.

    • B. 

      Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

    • C. 

      Movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex.

    • D. 

      Reuptake of calcium by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.