Ultimate Phlebotomy Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz

185 Questions | Total Attempts: 295

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Ultimate Phlebotomy Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which laboratory department performs test to identify bacteria in blood or urine?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis

  • 2. 
    Which of the following tests is not performed in the coagulation department?
    • A. 

      Blood urea nitrogen

    • B. 

      Bleeding Time

    • C. 

      APPT

    • D. 

      Prothrombin time

  • 3. 
    What department would perform serum pregnancy test?
    • A. 

      Hematology

    • B. 

      Cytology

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis

  • 4. 
    Electrolyte testing includes:
    • A. 

      Bilirubin and creatinine

    • B. 

      BUN and cholesterol

    • C. 

      Glucose and uric acid

    • D. 

      Sodium and potassium

  • 5. 
    A pap smear is examined for the presence of cancer cells in this department.
    • A. 

      Cytology

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Histology

    • D. 

      Microbiology

  • 6. 
    A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to:
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Coagulation

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis

  • 7. 
    A pathogen is:
    • A. 

      A communicable virus

    • B. 

      A microbe capable of causing disease

    • C. 

      Any microorganism anywhere

    • D. 

      Normal floral of the skin

  • 8. 
    The most common type of nosocomial infection in laboratory is:
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B

    • B. 

      Respiratory infection

    • C. 

      UTI

    • D. 

      Wound infection

  • 9. 
    Additive in a red/gray tube:
    • A. 

      Lithium heparin

    • B. 

      Thixotropic gel for serum separation

    • C. 

      EDTA

    • D. 

      Sodium citrate

  • 10. 
    which of the following tubes does not contain plasma?
    • A. 

      Gold

    • B. 

      Lavender

    • C. 

      Light blue

    • D. 

      Green

  • 11. 
    What maintains glucose stability in the tube:
    • A. 

      Clot activator

    • B. 

      Lithium heparin

    • C. 

      SPS

    • D. 

      Sodium fluoride

  • 12. 
    The last choice vein for venipuncture is:
    • A. 

      Cephalic vein

    • B. 

      Basilic vein

    • C. 

      Median cubital vein

    • D. 

      Brachial vein

  • 13. 
    Additive in tube used for APTT/PT:
    • A. 

      Sodium citrate

    • B. 

      Sodium heparin

    • C. 

      Sodium fluoride

    • D. 

      EDTA

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is a Serum Separator Tube (SST):
    • A. 

      Red/gray

    • B. 

      Yellow

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Green

  • 15. 
    The contractile layer of the heart is:
    • A. 

      Endocardium

    • B. 

      Myocardium

    • C. 

      Epicardium

    • D. 

      Pericardium

  • 16. 
    Additive in tube used for ammonia level:
    • A. 

      Potassium oxalate

    • B. 

      EDTA

    • C. 

      SPS

    • D. 

      Sodium/lithium heparin

  • 17. 
    Additive in a pink/lavender tube is:
    • A. 

      EDTA

    • B. 

      SPS

    • C. 

      No additive

  • 18. 
    What is the othe name ofr platelets?
    • A. 

      Leukocytes

    • B. 

      Erythrocytes

    • C. 

      Thrombocytes

    • D. 

      Fibrinogen

  • 19. 
    Which of the following has the smallest lumen?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      22

    • D. 

      16

  • 20. 
    The group of tests referring to one organ or body system is called?
    • A. 

      Profile/panel

    • B. 

      Menu

    • C. 

      Stat

    • D. 

      Asap

  • 21. 
    Which department of the laboratory will perform test on the blood collected in black tube?
    • A. 

      Hematology

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Pathology

  • 22. 
    What is a tube of choice for ESR testing?
    • A. 

      Light blue

    • B. 

      Lavender

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      Gray

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not a part of the CBC?
    • A. 

      WBC's count

    • B. 

      Erythrocyte count

    • C. 

      Hematocrit

    • D. 

      Hemolysis

  • 24. 
    Coumadin therapy is tested by:
    • A. 

      PT

    • B. 

      PTT

    • C. 

      APTT

    • D. 

      BT

  • 25. 
    Heparin therapy is tested by:
    • A. 

      PTT/APTT

    • B. 

      BT

    • C. 

      PT

    • D. 

      GTT

  • 26. 
    Tube of choice for GTT testing:
    • A. 

      Green

    • B. 

      Gray

    • C. 

      Light blue

    • D. 

      Royal blue

  • 27. 
    All of the following is true about blood culture collection except:
    • A. 

      SPS tube is used

    • B. 

      Determines presents of microbes in blood

    • C. 

      Tube is drawn at the end in multi-collection procedure

    • D. 

      Test is done in the presence of FUO

  • 28. 
    This complication may happen when a phlebotomist vigorously shakes the tubes:
    • A. 

      Hemolysis

    • B. 

      Hemoconcentration

    • C. 

      HEMATOMA

    • D. 

      HOMEOSTASIS

  • 29. 
    HEMOCONCENTRATION occurs while:
    • A. 

      Tourniquet application exceeds 60 seconds

    • B. 

      Not enough pressure is applied to the site after needle withdraw

    • C. 

      Band aid is taken off too soon

    • D. 

      When patient has bleeding problems

  • 30. 
    Stat electrolytes are drawn in:
    • A. 

      Green tube

    • B. 

      Gray tube

    • C. 

      Pink tube

    • D. 

      Brown tube

  • 31. 
    The phlebotomis identifies the patient in an outpatient laboratory by:
    • A. 

      Checking ID bracelet

    • B. 

      Asking the family

    • C. 

      Asking the patient his/her name

    • D. 

      Looking at the requisition

  • 32. 
    The best ways to prevent hematoma are all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Remove the needle after tourniquet and tube wre removed

    • B. 

      Apply direct pressure to the site with the gauze for few minutes

    • C. 

      Use butterfly needle

    • D. 

      Palpate the site well to avoid probing

  • 33. 
    During incision of the needle the bevel should be facing:
    • A. 

      To the left

    • B. 

      To the right

    • C. 

      Upward

    • D. 

      Downward

  • 34. 
    What is the best way to dispose of the needle?
    • A. 

      Remove, recap, dispose in the sharp container

    • B. 

      Remove, recap, dispose in the trash can

    • C. 

      Remove without recapping, dispose straight to the sharps

    • D. 

      Remove without recapping and leave on the table until done with patient

  • 35. 
    Which of the following test cannot be performed by microcapillary collection?
    • A. 

      Blood culture

    • B. 

      Bleeding time

    • C. 

      Glucose level

    • D. 

      Hematocrit

  • 36. 
    At what angle should the venipuncture needle be inserted:
    • A. 

      30*-45*

    • B. 

      15*-45*

    • C. 

      30*-90*

    • D. 

      15*-30*

  • 37. 
    Which of the following steps are in appropriate order?
    • A. 

      Insert needle, place tourniquet, label tube

    • B. 

      Assess site, cleanse site, insert needle

    • C. 

      Identify patient, cleanse site, assess site

    • D. 

      Draw blood, remove needle, remove tourniquet

  • 38. 
    How does the heparin work?
    • A. 

      It inhibits thrombin

    • B. 

      It binds calcium

    • C. 

      It activates thrombin

    • D. 

      It inhibits glycolysis

  • 39. 
    Which department would perform CMP test?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Serology

  • 40. 
    The phlebotomist must perform a blood draw on a patient with an IV on a right side, and there has been a mastectomy on a left side. Where should the phlebotomist perform the venipuncture:
    • A. 

      Left median cubital vein

    • B. 

      Above the IV

    • C. 

      Left dorsal vein

    • D. 

      Below the IV

  • 41. 
    Tube of chioice for cardiac enzymes testingis:
    • A. 

      Green

    • B. 

      Gray

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Tiger

  • 42. 
    Which suffix means "inflammation"?
    • A. 

      -ectomy

    • B. 

      -emia

    • C. 

      -itis

    • D. 

      -pathy

  • 43. 
    What is the meaning of the prefix Hypo-?
    • A. 

      Slow

    • B. 

      Fast

    • C. 

      Increased

    • D. 

      Decreased

  • 44. 
    Which of the following prefixes means "vein"?
    • A. 

      Phlebo-

    • B. 

      Mega-

    • C. 

      Poly-

    • D. 

      Post-

  • 45. 
    Which suffix means "surgical removal"?
    • A. 

      -ectomy

    • B. 

      -emia

    • C. 

      -itis

    • D. 

      -pathy

  • 46. 
    What is the medical term for white blood cell?
    • A. 

      Cyanosis

    • B. 

      Erythrocyte

    • C. 

      Leukocyte

    • D. 

      Thrombocyte

  • 47. 
    Which root means "Kidney"?
    • A. 

      Nephro-

    • B. 

      Necro-

    • C. 

      Neuro-

    • D. 

      Pneu-

  • 48. 
    Which abbreviation means "immediately"?
    • A. 

      STAT

    • B. 

      ER

    • C. 

      NPO

    • D. 

      ASAP

  • 49. 
    What does the abbreviation "NPO" on a patient's door mean?
    • A. 

      Bedridden

    • B. 

      Check with the nurses station.

    • C. 

      Nothing by mouth

    • D. 

      No personal visitors

  • 50. 
    Which prefix means "blue"?
    • A. 

      Albi-

    • B. 

      Cyan-

    • C. 

      Melano-

    • D. 

      Rube-

  • 51. 
    What prefix means "increased"?
    • A. 

      Dys-

    • B. 

      Hyper-

    • C. 

      Hypo-

    • D. 

      Neo-

  • 52. 
    The primary duty of a phlebotomist is to:
    • A. 

      Access specimens

    • B. 

      Collect blood specimens

    • C. 

      Collect and document workload

    • D. 

      Perform skin tests

  • 53. 
    Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and blood-forming tissues?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis

  • 54. 
    Which of the following test is performed in the coagulation department?
    • A. 

      Blood urea nitrogen

    • B. 

      Complete blood count

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Protime

  • 55. 
    What department would perform blood cultures?
    • A. 

      Hematology

    • B. 

      Microbiology

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis

  • 56. 
    Which of the following is not a part of the CBC?
    • A. 

      RBC's count

    • B. 

      Erythrocyte count

    • C. 

      Hematocrit

    • D. 

      Hemolysis

  • 57. 
    Continuing education units (CEUs) are:
    • A. 

      Certificates awarded for teaching skills courses

    • B. 

      College credit for taking healthcare courses

    • C. 

      Documentation of passing a national certification exam

    • D. 

      Proof of participation in workshops to upgrade skills of knowledge

  • 58. 
    What does the term phlebotomy actually mean?
    • A. 

      Removal of a vein

    • B. 

      Incision of a vein

    • C. 

      Testing of blood

    • D. 

      Withdrawal of red blood cells

  • 59. 
    The term informed consent means:
    • A. 

      A patient must be informed of all intended treatments and risks before the treatment is performed.

    • B. 

      A patient must inform the doctors concerning what procedures they need.

    • C. 

      A nurse informed by the phlebotomis can overrule a patient's refusal.

    • D. 

      As long as the patient is informed, they cannot refuse a treatment.

  • 60. 
    What is the term for invasion and growth of a disease-causing microorganism in the human body?
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Infection

    • C. 

      Isolation

    • D. 

      Reservoir

  • 61. 
    What is the term for unanimated object that is contaiminated by bacteria?
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Host

    • C. 

      Vomite

    • D. 

      Reservoir

  • 62. 
    What does the term reservoir mean?
    • A. 

      A contaiminated piece of equipment

    • B. 

      An airborne droplet

    • C. 

      A person who carries a disease agent but is not sick

    • D. 

      A vector

  • 63. 
    What is the term for infections contracted in the health-care settings?
    • A. 

      Work related infections

    • B. 

      Communicable infections

    • C. 

      Non-transmitted infections

    • D. 

      Nosocomial infections

  • 64. 
    The pathogen West Niles Virus is carried by mosquitoes. What type of transmission is this?
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Vector

    • C. 

      Contact

    • D. 

      Vehicle

  • 65. 
    What is the most frquent and important transmission route for hospitial infections?
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Contact

    • C. 

      Vehicle

    • D. 

      Vector

  • 66. 
    What is the single most important means of preventingf infections?
    • A. 

      Handwashing

    • B. 

      Wearing a mask

    • C. 

      Wearing gloves

    • D. 

      Isolation of infectious patients

  • 67. 
    All of the following body fluids require Standard Precautions, except:
    • A. 

      Saliva

    • B. 

      Spinal Fluid

    • C. 

      Sweat

    • D. 

      Synovial Fluid

  • 68. 
    The first, in correct order of removing PPE, is the......
    • A. 

      Mask

    • B. 

      Gown

    • C. 

      Gloves

    • D. 

      Respirator

  • 69. 
    What is the term for infection control measures that use barrier protection and work practice controls to prevent contact with infectious body fluids from all patients?
    • A. 

      Hospital precautions

    • B. 

      Isolation precautions

    • C. 

      Patient precautions

    • D. 

      Standard precautions

  • 70. 
    When removing personal protective equipmentt, what is the last thing you do?
    • A. 

      Remove gloves

    • B. 

      Remove mask

    • C. 

      Remove gown

    • D. 

      Wash hands

  • 71. 
    The first action to take in the event of fire is:
    • A. 

      Call the fire department

    • B. 

      Close windows and doors

    • C. 

      Use fire distinguisher

    • D. 

      Remove the patients from the vicinity of the fire

  • 72. 
    According to the Blood Borne Pathogen Standard rules, which patients are considered to be potentially infectious?
    • A. 

      Only patients with HIV or hepatitis B

    • B. 

      Patients with any known infection

    • C. 

      Patients a doctor has indicated are infectious

    • D. 

      All patients

  • 73. 
    Which of tthe following is the term for separation of an infectious source from its susceptible hosts?
    • A. 

      Contact precautions

    • B. 

      Infection

    • C. 

      Isolation

    • D. 

      Protective environment

  • 74. 
    The continuous links in the chain of infection are, in order:
    • A. 

      Means of transmission, susceptible host, source

    • B. 

      Source, means of transmission, susceptible host

    • C. 

      Susceptible host, source, means of transmission

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 75. 
    What type of precautions should be used for patients with TB?
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Bloodborne

    • C. 

      Isolation

    • D. 

      Droplet

  • 76. 
    What type of precautions should be used for patients with syphilis?
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Bloodborne

    • C. 

      Isolation

    • D. 

      Droplet

  • 77. 
    Infectious agents such as HBV are which type of safety hazard?
    • A. 

      Biological

    • B. 

      Chemical

    • C. 

      Flammable

    • D. 

      Physical

  • 78. 
    Which of the following is the first action you should take if youi have been stuck with a used needle that has been in contact with blood?
    • A. 

      Flood the exposed area with water and clean the wound with soap and water or distinfectant

    • B. 

      Call 91

    • C. 

      Report the injury to your supervisor

    • D. 

      Seek medical attention

  • 79. 
    Which of the following is the first action you should take if you splash a chimical in your eye?
    • A. 

      Report the incident to your supervisor

    • B. 

      Flush the eyes for 15 minutes at an eyewash station

    • C. 

      Go to the emergency department

    • D. 

      Clean up the spill on the lab counter or floor

  • 80. 
    All of the following are symptoms of shock except:
    • A. 

      Cold, clammy skin

    • B. 

      Fast, strong pulse

    • C. 

      Increased shallow breathing

    • D. 

      Expressionless face

  • 81. 
    What laboratory department test a type and cross-match?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Cytology

    • C. 

      Immunohematology

    • D. 

      Microbiology

  • 82. 
                    Therapeutic phlebotomy is performed as a treatment for patients with:
    • A. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • B. 

      Hepatitis

    • C. 

      Lymphocytic leukemia

    • D. 

      Polycythemia vera

  • 83. 
    The hematocrit test is performed in what department of the laboratory?
    • A. 

      Hematology

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Urinalysis

    • D. 

      Microbiology

  • 84. 
    What hospital department cares for patients with cancer?
    • A. 

      Oncology

    • B. 

      Orthopedics

    • C. 

      Nephrology

    • D. 

      Neonatal

  • 85. 
    Which of the following in NOT a preananlytical variable of specimen collection?
    • A. 

      Patient identification

    • B. 

      Specimen transport

    • C. 

      Skin preparation

    • D. 

      Specimen testing

  • 86. 
    Which disease requires the use of respiratory (airborne) precxautions?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B

    • B. 

      Salmonella

    • C. 

      Staphylococcal skin abscess

    • D. 

      Tuberculosis

  • 87. 
    The primary purpose of infection control is to:
    • A. 

      Determine the source of a communicable disease

    • B. 

      Isolate patients from other patients and visitors

    • C. 

      Protect the patient from outside contamination

    • D. 

      Prevent the spread of communicable diseases within health care facilities

  • 88. 
    The name given to an infection that a patient acquires after admission to a health care facility is:
    • A. 

      Nosocomial

    • B. 

      Antibiotic resistant

    • C. 

      Communicable

    • D. 

      HBV vaccine

  • 89. 
    A person who has a buildup of fluids in their entire body is known to be:
    • A. 

      Fat

    • B. 

      Anemic

    • C. 

      Edematous

    • D. 

      Comatose

  • 90. 
    Anatomy is the study of the:
    • A. 

      Shape and structure of the body

    • B. 

      Function of a body part

    • C. 

      Formation of a body part

    • D. 

      Formation of red blood cells

  • 91. 
    The study of the function of each body part and how the functions coordinate is called.
    • A. 

      Hematology

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Physiology

    • D. 

      Anatomy

  • 92. 
    When the body systems work together to form a steady state, it is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Anabolism

    • B. 

      Homeostasis

    • C. 

      Metabolism

    • D. 

      Catabolism

  • 93. 
    The function of the leukocyte is to:
    • A. 

      Carry oxygen

    • B. 

      Carry nutrients

    • C. 

      Fight infection

    • D. 

      Stop bleeding

  • 94. 
    What is the difference between plasma and serum?
    • A. 

      Serum comes from anticoagulated blood; plasma does not

    • B. 

      Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not

    • C. 

      Serum contains fibrinogen, plasma does not

    • D. 

      Plasma is found only inside the body

  • 95. 
    The life span of the red blood cell is approximately:
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      9-12 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 96. 
    The function of the erythrocyte is to:
    • A. 

      Carry oxygen

    • B. 

      Carry nutrients

    • C. 

      Fight infection

    • D. 

      Stop bleeding

  • 97. 
    The buffy coat consists of
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes and leukocytes

    • B. 

      Leukocytes only

    • C. 

      Leukocytes and thrombocytes

    • D. 

      Leukocytes and plasma

  • 98. 
    What is the substance in erythrocytes that carries oxygen?
    • A. 

      Albumin

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Sodium chloride

  • 99. 
    Which cells contribute most to blood clotting?
    • A. 

      Lymphocytes

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      Red blood cells

    • D. 

      White blood cells

  • 100. 
    Which blood vessels in pulmonary circlation carry blood that is high in oxygen?
    • A. 

      Arteries

    • B. 

      Veins

    • C. 

      Venules

    • D. 

      All are equally oxygenated

  • 101. 
    Blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle. From this point, it is pumped through the:
    • A. 

      Aorta to the rest of the body

    • B. 

      Pulmonary artery to the lungs

    • C. 

      Pulmonary artery to the rest of the body

    • D. 

      Pulmonary vein to the lungs

  • 102. 
    When a patient has had a mastectomy, venipuncture should be aboided on the affected side because the:
    • A. 

      Patient may be embarrassed

    • B. 

      Patient is more susceptible to infection

    • C. 

      Venipuncture is more painful

    • D. 

      It is acceptable to collect blood from either arm

  • 103. 
    Why does the left ventricle of the heart have such a thick muscular wall?
    • A. 

      To pump blood to the lungs

    • B. 

      To expel air form it

    • C. 

      To pump blood to all parts of the body

    • D. 

      Both A and B

  • 104. 
    The ventricles of the heart are principally responsible for:
    • A. 

      Lubrication

    • B. 

      Portal circulation

    • C. 

      Pumping blood

    • D. 

      Receiving blood

  • 105. 
    Unoxygenated blood from the head and neck region returns to the heart via the:
    • A. 

      Pulmonary artery

    • B. 

      Aorta

    • C. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • D. 

      Superior vena cava

  • 106. 
    Which does NOT carry oxygenated blood?
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Pulmonary artery

    • C. 

      Pulmonary vein

    • D. 

      All of the above carry oxygenated blood.

  • 107. 
    What is the function of the coronary arteries?
    • A. 

      They carry oxygenated blood back to the heart.

    • B. 

      They cause the blood to become oxygenated in the lungs.

    • C. 

      They supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 108. 
    The fluid portion of anticoagulated whole blood that contains fibrinogen is calld the:
    • A. 

      Buffy coat

    • B. 

      Serum

    • C. 

      Plasma

    • D. 

      Fluid portion

  • 109. 
    The formed elements make up about ____ percent of the whole blood volume.
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      45

    • C. 

      55

    • D. 

      60

  • 110. 
    Five components that are found in a CBC are:
    • A. 

      WBC, RBC, platelet, bilirubin, LDH

    • B. 

      WBC, RBC, hemoglobin, glucose, hematocrit

    • C. 

      WBC, RBC, cholesterolm triglyceride, hematocrit

    • D. 

      WBC, RBC, hemoglobin, hematocrit, PLT

  • 111. 
    Which of the following is NOT a leukocyte?
    • A. 

      Neutrophil

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Thrombocyte

    • D. 

      Monocyte

  • 112. 
    All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Gray-stoppered tubes are used for blood glucose tests.

    • B. 

      Gray-stoppered tubes are used for CBC and WBC tests.

    • C. 

      Lavendestoppered tubes are used for CBC, WBC, and platelet testing.

    • D. 

      Red-stoppered tubes are used for many tests, including serum enzyme testing.

  • 113. 
    The anticoagulant heparin is used for blood gases and other chemistry tests. It works by.
    • A. 

      Binding calcium ions

    • B. 

      Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

    • C. 

      Preventing the conversion of plasmingen to plasmin

    • D. 

      Activating tissue thromboplastin

  • 114. 
    Which anticoagulant does not prevent coagulation of blood by removing calcium through the formation of insoluble calcium salt?
    • A. 

      EDTA

    • B. 

      Lithum heparin

    • C. 

      Oxalate

    • D. 

      Citrate

  • 115. 
    In general, a syringe is used when drawing specimens and/or patients, EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Arterial blood gases

    • B. 

      Persons with fragile vein walls

    • C. 

      Persons with rolly veins

    • D. 

      Requests for multiple testing, requiring different anticoagulants and multiple tubes

  • 116. 
    The gauge of the needle indicates the following relationship the larger the guage number, the:
    • A. 

      Larger the diameter of the bore

    • B. 

      Longer the needle

    • C. 

      Shorter the needle

    • D. 

      Smallest the diameter of the bore

  • 117. 
    The common needle gauges used for drawing blood with an evacuated system are:
    • A. 

      10, 12, or 14 gauge

    • B. 

      16, 17, or 18 gauge

    • C. 

      20, 21, or 22 gauge

    • D. 

      24, 25, or 26 gauge

  • 118. 
    Which bore (diameter) of the needle is the smallest?
    • A. 

      16-gauge needle

    • B. 

      21-gauge needle

    • C. 

      20-gauge needle

    • D. 

      23-gauge needle

  • 119. 
    Blood is needed for routine bleeding and coagulation studies (PT, PTT) Which color tube top is to be used?
    • A. 

      Light blue

    • B. 

      Gold

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Red

  • 120. 
    To fill an evacuated tube with blood from a syringe, the phlebotomis should.
    • A. 

      Puncture the diphragm of the stoppered tube with the needle and push the blood quickly into the tube with the plunger of the syringe.

    • B. 

      Remove the stopper of the tube and carefully pour the blood into the tube, after removing the needle from the syringe.

    • C. 

      Use a transfer device to transport blood from syringe to the tube.

    • D. 

      Remove the stopper of the tube, and push the blood into the tube with the syringe needle still on the syringe.

  • 121. 
    When serum is needed for testing, blood should be collected in which color stoppered tube?
    • A. 

      Light blue

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Red

  • 122. 
    The anticoagulant preferred for hematology testing is
    • A. 

      Citrate

    • B. 

      EDTA

    • C. 

      Fluoride

    • D. 

      Heparin

  • 123. 
    An arterial puncture is more likely to result in a hematoma than a venipuncture is because of:
    • A. 

      Higher pressure in the arteries

    • B. 

      The lack of caogulation factors

    • C. 

      The lack of elastic tissue in the arterial wall

    • D. 

      The anticoagulant in the arterial syringe

  • 124. 
    Which artery is best suitable for drawing blood gases?
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Brachial

    • C. 

      Femoral

    • D. 

      Ulnar

  • 125. 
    Which statement is not true about arterial punctures?
    • A. 

      Collateral circulation should be checked before drawing

    • B. 

      Heparin is the anticoagulant of choice.

    • C. 

      The site must be held at least 5 minutes after completing the puncture

    • D. 

      Blood is collected in green tube

  • 126. 
    The artery that lies on the thumb side of the wrist is the:
    • A. 

      Popliteal

    • B. 

      Radial

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Ulnar

  • 127. 
    Under which of the following conditions would you avoid a site for venipuncture?
    • A. 

      Edematous arm

    • B. 

      Arm with IV

    • C. 

      Hematoma

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 128. 
    When drawing blood samples, which of the following should be performed first?
    • A. 

      Clean the site

    • B. 

      Find the vein

    • C. 

      Apply the tourniquet

    • D. 

      Identify the patient.

  • 129. 
    Benipuncture is usually performed inthe antecubital area. Which vein is usually the best to draw from?
    • A. 

      Cephalic

    • B. 

      Basilic

    • C. 

      Median cubital

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 130. 
    The doctor orders a CBC, serum drug level, PT, and a set of blood cultures. What is the order of draw?
    • A. 

      Red, light blue, blood culture, lavender

    • B. 

      Blood culture, light blue, lavender, red

    • C. 

      Blood culture, light blue, red, lavender

    • D. 

      Blood culture, green, light blue red

  • 131. 
    What can happen if the tourniquet is left on too long before drawing blood?
    • A. 

      Hematoma

    • B. 

      Hemolysis

    • C. 

      Hemoconcentration

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 132. 
    Once an arterial blood sample is obtained, the puncture site should have pressure held for at least.
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      5 minutes

    • C. 

      30 minutes

    • D. 

      60 minutes

  • 133. 
    Once an arterial blood sample is obtained,, the puncture site should have pressure held for at least.
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      5 minutes

    • C. 

      30 minutes

    • D. 

      60 minutes

  • 134. 
    Serum is decribed as lipemic in the presence of increased
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, causing jaundice

    • B. 

      Carbon dioxide from cell metabolism

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin from ruptured RBCs

    • D. 

      Lipids in a nonfasting sample

  • 135. 
    Serum is described as lipemic in the presence of increased:
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, causing jandice

    • B. 

      Carbon dixide from cell metabolism

    • C. 

      Hemoglobing from ruptured RBCs

    • D. 

      Lipids in a nonfasting sample

  • 136. 
    Serum is described as hemolyzed in the presence of increased.
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, causing jaundice

    • B. 

      Carbon dioxide from cell metabolism

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin from ruptured RBCs

    • D. 

      Lipids in a nonfasging sample

  • 137. 
    The following items are minimum requirements for specimen labeling:
    • A. 

      The patient's complete name, the identification number, date time of collection, and physician

    • B. 

      The patient's complete name, the identification number, date, time of collection, and collector;s initials

    • C. 

      The patient's complete name and the identification number

    • D. 

      The patient's complete name, date, and time of collection

  • 138. 
    Which is genearally the most common complication from phlebotomy?
    • A. 

      Convulsions

    • B. 

      Fainting

    • C. 

      Hematoma

    • D. 

      Hyperventilation

  • 139. 
    An unconscious, unidentified man is admitted to an emergency trauma center. What would be the system of choice to ensure patient identification?
    • A. 

      Assign a name to the patient, such as John Doe, and use the name for identification.

    • B. 

      Assign a number to the patient until the patien can be identified.

    • C. 

      Wait to process any samples until the patient can be identified.

    • D. 

      Use a threepart identification system that utilizes a temporary armband and labels for specimens and blood to be transfused.

  • 140. 
    The most common cause of blood culture contamination is:
    • A. 

      Collection of too much blood

    • B. 

      Collection of the sample from below the IV

    • C. 

      Improper skin preparation

    • D. 

      The use of a needle and syringe for collection

  • 141. 
    What is the purpose of the bleeding time test?
    • A. 

      To test the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

    • B. 

      To perform platelet counts

    • C. 

      To assess platelet function

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 142. 
    A test performed after a meal is called:
    • A. 

      Posttest

    • B. 

      Peak test

    • C. 

      Postprandial

    • D. 

      NPO

  • 143. 
    You receive an order to draw a STAT CBC. Your responsibility is to:
    • A. 

      Draw blood in a lavender tube and send it to the lab promptly

    • B. 

      Use any color tube and send it to the lab promptly

    • C. 

      Draw blood in a gray tube and wait until you finish your work to take it to the lab

    • D. 

      Draw blood in a heparinized tube and give it to the nurse

  • 144. 
    Warming the skin puncture site:
    • A. 

      Increase the blood flow through the arterioles and capillaries sevenfold

    • B. 

      Results in hemolysis of the blood sample

    • C. 

      Should be performed with a hot towel (100 degrees Celsius)

    • D. 

      Should not be done routinely because it will alter the chemical values in the blood

  • 145. 
    You are to collect by fingerstick a green top, a lavender top, and a red top microcollection container. What microcontainer do you collect first?
    • A. 

      Green top

    • B. 

      Lavender top

    • C. 

      Red top

    • D. 

      Any container

  • 146. 
    What can happen if you squeeze the patient's finger too vigorously diuring a capillary puncture?
    • A. 

      The specimen will be diluted with tissue fluid.

    • B. 

      Hemolysis can occur

    • C. 

      The blood will clot sooner.

    • D. 

      Both A and B

  • 147. 
    The depth of cut made by a lancet for a heelstick should be no more than:
    • A. 

      1.5 mm

    • B. 

      2.0 mm

    • C. 

      2.8 mm

    • D. 

      3.0 mm

  • 148. 
    Which of the following is true about microcappillary collection?
    • A. 

      It is not necessary to wear gloves.

    • B. 

      One can usually collect as much blood as in venipuncture

    • C. 

      The first drop of blood should be wiped away.

    • D. 

      The tourniquet needs to be tighter than for venipuncture

  • 149. 
    A conscious patient does not have an identification armband. The name and room number on the door agree with the information on the request. What should the phlebotomist do?
    • A. 

      Ask the patient for verbal berification of his or her name.

    • B. 

      Draw the patient and take the specimen to the lab

    • C. 

      Do not draw the patient until an armband has been applied.

    • D. 

      Draw the patient and then ask the nurse to identify the patient.

  • 150. 
    Specimens may be rejected for testing if:
    • A. 

      The specimen was drawn above a running IV

    • B. 

      The specimen was not labeled with the patient's complete name

    • C. 

      An anticoagulated specimen had a clot

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 151. 
    Protectin a specimen from light is best done by:
    • A. 

      Placing the specimen in an amber colored tube

    • B. 

      All tubes protect the specimen from light

    • C. 

      Wrapping aluminum foil around the specimen

    • D. 

      Both A and C

  • 152. 
    When drawing blood to monitor the therapy of a specific antibiotic, the peak level is drawn 1 hour after administering the antibiotic. The term used to refer to the antibiotic level drawn right before the antibiotic is given is called the:
    • A. 

      Half-life level

    • B. 

      Threshold level

    • C. 

      Trough level

    • D. 

      Toxicity level

  • 153. 
    In which test should alchol never be used to cleanse the venipuncture site?
    • A. 

      Blood culture

    • B. 

      AIDS test

    • C. 

      ETHOHl

    • D. 

      Toxicity level

  • 154. 
    What is the approximate blood volume of a average 150 lb adult?
    • A. 

      2 liters

    • B. 

      5 liters

    • C. 

      15 liters

    • D. 

      10 liters

  • 155. 
    Bilirubin is produced from the breakdwon of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Red blood cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Platelets

    • D. 

      Epithelial cells

  • 156. 
    What is the term for a buldup of bilirubin in the blood and skin?
    • A. 

      Anemia

    • B. 

      Edema

    • C. 

      Hematoma

    • D. 

      Jaundice

  • 157. 
    United States law requires states to test for a minimum of two inherited conditions:
    • A. 

      Hypothyrodism and PKU

    • B. 

      PKU and diabetes

    • C. 

      Hypothyrodidism

    • D. 

      PKU and multiple sclerosis

  • 158. 
    How are neonatal screening samples ususally collected?
    • A. 

      By dermal puncture absorbed onto filter paper

    • B. 

      By dermal puncture into a microtainer

    • C. 

      By routine venipuncture into a vacuum tube

    • D. 

      By venipuncture with butterfly needle and syringe

  • 159. 
    How long should pressure be applied to the venipuncture site of a geriatric patients?
    • A. 

      Less time than usual

    • B. 

      More time than usual

    • C. 

      The same amount of time as usual

    • D. 

      No pressure should be applied

  • 160. 
    Which of the following is ued for dialysis patients to connect to the dialysis machine?
    • A. 

      Fistula

    • B. 

      Central venous line

    • C. 

      Heparin lock

    • D. 

      PICC

  • 161. 
    How long should pressure be applied to the venipuncture site of a geriatric patient?
    • A. 

      Less time than usual

    • B. 

      More time than usual

    • C. 

      The same amount of time as usual

    • D. 

      No pressure should be applied

  • 162. 
    If a patient has an IV drip in one arm, what is the preferred site for venipuncture?
    • A. 

      The opposite arm

    • B. 

      Above the IV

    • C. 

      Below the IV

    • D. 

      Arterial collection

  • 163. 
    How long should the heel of a neonate be warmed prior to a heel stick?
    • A. 

      30 to 45 seconds

    • B. 

      1 to 2 minutes

    • C. 

      3 to 5 minutes

    • D. 

      8 to 10 minutes

  • 164. 
    Which of he following is the totoal blood bvolume of a 3.3 kg infant?
    • A. 

      350-390 ml

    • B. 

      125-230 ml

    • C. 

      240-330 ml

    • D. 

      405-450 ml

  • 165. 
    You may not be able to obtain blood from an elderly patient because:
    • A. 

      The tourniquet was on too tight

    • B. 

      An excessive pull from the vacuum tube causing a collapsed vein

    • C. 

      Patient's posture

    • D. 

      Improper site prep

  • 166. 
    Which artery is most commonly used for arterial blood gas collection?
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Ulnar

    • C. 

      Brachial

    • D. 

      Femoral

  • 167. 
    After drawing an ABG specimen, check the pulse:
    • A. 

      Distal to the puncture site

    • B. 

      In the ulnar artery

    • C. 

      Medial to the puncture site

    • D. 

      Proximal to the puncture site

  • 168. 
    Which of the following is the best way to tell if a specimen is arterial? The blood:
    • A. 

      Appears bright cherry red

    • B. 

      Contains air bubbles

    • C. 

      Looks dark bluish red in color

    • D. 

      Pumps into the syringe

  • 169. 
    An arterial blood gases sample must be delivered to the laboratory for analysis within:
    • A. 

      5 minutes

    • B. 

      15 minutes

    • C. 

      30 minutes

    • D. 

      60 minutes

  • 170. 
    What is the mimimum amount of time that a phlebotomist should hold pressure on an arterial puncture site:
    • A. 

      No pressure is needed.

    • B. 

      2 minutes

    • C. 

      5 minutes

    • D. 

      10minutes

  • 171. 
    Where is the radial artery located?
    • A. 

      In the center of the bend of the elbow

    • B. 

      Thumb side of the wrist

    • C. 

      Pinkie finger side of the wrist

    • D. 

      Inner portion of the thigh

  • 172. 
    Where is the tourniquet placed for arterial blood gas collection?
    • A. 

      2 inches above the puncture site

    • B. 

      2 inches below the puncture site

    • C. 

      Just above the elbow

    • D. 

      No tourniquet is used

  • 173. 
    Which anticoagulant is used for arterial blood gas collections?
    • A. 

      Citrate

    • B. 

      EDTA

    • C. 

      Heparin

    • D. 

      Oxalate

  • 174. 
    List the anatomy of the heart in the order of blood flow:
  • 175. 
    What is the medical term for fainting?
    • A. 

      Emesis

    • B. 

      Hematoma

    • C. 

      Lymphostasis

    • D. 

      Syncope

  • 176. 
    Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
    • A. 

      Veins

    • B. 

      Bronchioles

    • C. 

      Capillaries

    • D. 

      Arteries

  • 177. 
    What is the pericardium?
    • A. 

      Outer layer of the heart

    • B. 

      Muscle layer of the heart

    • C. 

      Sac that surrounds the heart

    • D. 

      Inner layer of the heart

  • 178. 
    Which instrument is used to measure BP?
    • A. 

      Pressometer

    • B. 

      Spectrophotometer

    • C. 

      Sphygmomanometer

    • D. 

      Thermometer

  • 179. 
    What causes the sounds that are normally heard when listening to the heart through a stethoscope?
    • A. 

      Contraction of the heart muscle

    • B. 

      Closing of the heart valves

    • C. 

      Blood flowing through blood vessels

    • D. 

      The heart does not make any noise

  • 180. 
    What is the common name for myocardial infarction?
    • A. 

      Angina

    • B. 

      Stoke

    • C. 

      Myocarditis

    • D. 

      Heart Attack

  • 181. 
    What is the medical term for a reduced blood supply to heart tissue?
    • A. 

      Angina

    • B. 

      Ischemia

    • C. 

      Infarction

    • D. 

      Hypoxia

  • 182. 
    Blood returning to the heart from the lungs enters which chamber?
    • A. 

      Right Atrium

    • B. 

      Left atrium

    • C. 

      Right Ventricle

    • D. 

      Left ventricle

  • 183. 
    Blood returning to the heart from the body enters which chamber?
    • A. 

      Right atrium

    • B. 

      Left atrium

    • C. 

      Right ventricle

    • D. 

      Left ventricle

  • 184. 
    which are the smallest, microscopic blood vessels?
    • A. 

      Arteries

    • B. 

      Bronchioles

    • C. 

      Capillaries

    • D. 

      Veins