Phlebotomy Test Prep

100 Questions

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Phlebotomy Test Prep

This Prep test is directed to those taking their phlebotomy exam. If you can pass this, you "should" pass the exam. Good Luck. AG


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The abbreviation EDTA is:
    • A. 

      Ethylenedopominetetraacidic acitate

    • B. 

      Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

    • C. 

      Evacuated Drug Test Authority request slip

    • D. 

      For a Pink top tube ONLY

  • 2. 
    What additive is in a Glass Red top tube?
    • A. 

      Na Heparin

    • B. 

      Na Citrate 3.2%

    • C. 

      K Oxalate Sodium Fluoride

    • D. 

      May or may not have a silicone coating

  • 3. 
    Plasma makes up what percent (average) of total blood volume?
    • A. 

      45%

    • B. 

      25%

    • C. 

      55%

    • D. 

      75%

  • 4. 
    Wearing gloves from patient to patient will protect you, saves time and eliminates the need to constantly wash your hands.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    Bands (Stab Cells) are?
    • A. 

      Streptococci in a chain producing a stabbing pain to the patient.

    • B. 

      Sickle-cell RBC's.

    • C. 

      Immature neutrophils.

    • D. 

      All Granulocytes banded together.

  • 6. 
    It is important to correctly perform the order of draw because?
    • A. 

      The patient always comes first, and it is designed to be more comfortable to the patient.

    • B. 

      More blood is required if the order of draw is not followed.

    • C. 

      The last tube drawn always makes the patient stop bleeding.

    • D. 

      The accuracy of tests may be effected if the correct order of draw is not followed.

  • 7. 
    What is another name for a Platelet?
    • A. 

      Hemocyte

    • B. 

      Erythrocyte

    • C. 

      Thrombocyte

    • D. 

      Plateocyte

  • 8. 
    Inappropriate sites for venipuncture are:
    • A. 

      Arm on side of mastectomy.

    • B. 

      Vein under scarred tissue.

    • C. 

      Sites above an IV cannula or arm with blood transfusion.

    • D. 

      Hematoma or Edema.

    • E. 

      Arms with Fistulas or Grafts.

    • F. 

      All of the above.

  • 9. 
    Hand sanitizer can be used to eliminate the need for hand washing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    The correct description of Veins and venous blood is:
    • A. 

      Veins are thick walled, have flow chambers, carry oxygenated blood to the heart with the exception of the pulmonary artery with has de-oxygenated blood.

    • B. 

      Veins are darker than arteries and give off a pigment which makes them blue.

    • C. 

      Veins are thin walled, have valves, carry de-oxygenated blood to the heart with the exception of the pulmonary vein with has oxygenated blood.

    • D. 

      Veins carry RBC's and arteries carry WBC's.

    • E. 

      None of these answers are correct.

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      CBC, CA-125 then PTT (Lavender, Gold, Light Blue)

    • B. 

      PTT, CA-125, then CBC (Light blue, Gold, Lavender)

    • C. 

      CA-125, CBC then the PTT (Gold, Lavender then the Light blue sodium Citrate tube)

    • D. 

      Red top throw away tube, Gold, Light blue then the lavender.

  • 12. 
    Improper patient identification and the incorrect tests performed are very common mistakes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    Leukocytes are?
    • A. 

      Like Erythrocytes, only white in color.

    • B. 

      Produce the oxygen needed for hemostasis.

    • C. 

      Named after Dr. Leuko who discovered them back in 1492.

    • D. 

      Granular or Agranular and some can be called phagocytes.

  • 14. 
    What is the MOST important step before moving on to the next patient as far as infection control is concerned?
  • 15. 
    A Butterfly set is also called a:
    • A. 

      Mosquito set.

    • B. 

      Extension tube device.

    • C. 

      Winged Infusion Set.

    • D. 

      Geriatric access device.

  • 16. 
    What color tube contains Na heparin and is used for serum lead determination?
    • A. 

      Pink

    • B. 

      Navy Blue

    • C. 

      White with black Zebra stripes

    • D. 

      Brown

  • 17. 
    What should be placed in a plastic "Sharps" disposal device?
    • A. 

      Bloody 2x2's and Band-Aids.

    • B. 

      Used needles and tube holders.

    • C. 

      Bloody gloves.

    • D. 

      All the above.

  • 18. 
    A tourniquet should not remain on the patient for longer than:
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      3 to 5 minutes, and only if the test requires enhanced hemoconcentration.

    • C. 

      4 minutes without an ice pack, 7 minutes with an ice pack.

    • D. 

      6 minutes, then cell death occurs after that.

  • 19. 
    What is Hemoconcentration?
    • A. 

      A procedure to enhance a blood test with more blood elements by leaving the tourniquet on for over 3 minutes.

    • B. 

      When a patient hyperventilates due to the pain caused by a tourniquet and needle.

    • C. 

      An increase in the number of RBCs resulting from either a decrease in plasma volume or increased production of RBCs.

    • D. 

      When veins begin to produce antibodies due to the tourniquet placement.

  • 20. 
    What is the most common blood test and what color tube is used?
    • A. 

      Plasma series / Yellow

    • B. 

      Hematology / Lavender.

    • C. 

      Serology / Green and Light green.

    • D. 

      Blood Culture / Gold tube.

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      If a pediatric hand vein is too small.

    • B. 

      When a geriatric patient with frail veins has good jugular vein distention.

    • C. 

      If the Registered Nurse orders it to be done and assists you.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above.

  • 22. 
    What are the three main veins used for routine venipuncture?
    • A. 

      The Antecubital, the Cephalgia, and the median basilica.

    • B. 

      The Cephalic, The Basilica and the Median cubital.

    • C. 

      The brachial, the ulnar and radial.

    • D. 

      The lateral, medial, and anterior Tunica.

  • 23. 
    What is the best insertion angle for inserting the needle for venipuncture.
    • A. 

      7 to 10 degrees

    • B. 

      35 to 49 degrees

    • C. 

      15 to 30 degrees.

    • D. 

      Not lower than 30 degrees and no more than 50 degrees.

  • 24. 
    You have made two attempts to obtain a sample without success. What should you do?
    • A. 

      Have someone else do it.

    • B. 

      Use a distended jugular vein.

    • C. 

      Use a 10.0 gauge lancet and obtain your samples. Stay 5 minutes until the bleeding stops.

    • D. 

      Keep probing until you obtain what you need.

  • 25. 
    What is Syncope?
    • A. 

      A gradual loss of consciousness due to insufficient blood supply in the veins.

    • B. 

      A loss of consciousness due to insufficient blood sugar.

    • C. 

      A loss of consciousness that may be due to simple emotional stress or a life threatening neuro-cardiogenic etiology.

    • D. 

      A sudden but temporary loss of consciousness due to insufficient blood supply to the brain.

    • E. 

      Both A and B

    • F. 

      Both C and D

  • 26. 
    What is the best vein to attempt on a Obese patient?
    • A. 

      Cephalic

    • B. 

      Basilica

    • C. 

      Antecubital

    • D. 

      Brachial Fossa or Jugular

  • 27. 
    What is the most common occurring lab-acquired infection?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis A

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      Meningitis

    • D. 

      AIDS

  • 28. 
    Under which circumstance should you place a patient into the recovery position?
    • A. 

      When the patient stops breathing and has no pulse.

    • B. 

      When the patient states they are going to vomit.

    • C. 

      When the patient faints, injuries their spine, then stops breathing.

    • D. 

      If the patient is breathing and has no spinal injury.

  • 29. 
    Chemicals used in the work place should be found listed in the chemical's:
    • A. 

      ATF

    • B. 

      MSDS

    • C. 

      PDR

    • D. 

      HIPAA

  • 30. 
    In order to properly identify a patient, and testing, a phlebotomist must?
    • A. 

      State the patients name off the lab request, ask when the patient last received a test, and confirm the room number.

    • B. 

      Read the patients name and date of birth off the chart, ask the patient if they agree, ask when the patient last received a test, and confirm the room number.

    • C. 

      Ask the patient to state their name, ask their date of birth, ask what is wrong with them or ask the patients CNA.

    • D. 

      Ask the patient to state their name, ask their date of birth, check the chart/arm-band and request form.

  • 31. 
    Which of the following is an appropriate site for capillary blood collection?
    • A. 

      Ear lobe (Lobule)

    • B. 

      Upper arm (Deltoid)

    • C. 

      Heal (Lateral and Medial)

    • D. 

      Anterior palm (Base of first digit)

    • E. 

      Both A and C

    • F. 

      All of the above

  • 32. 
    Dysuria means:
    • A. 

      Micturition

    • B. 

      Decreased output of urine

    • C. 

      Painful or difficult urination

    • D. 

      Inability to retain urine

    • E. 

      Increased output of urine

  • 33. 
     A Light blue stopper indicates that a collection tube:
    • A. 

      Is sterile for serum tests

    • B. 

      Is to be used only for capillary punctures

    • C. 

      Contains sodium citrate

    • D. 

      Contains EDTA

  • 34. 
    The color for an evacuation tube that does not contain an additive is:
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Gray

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Yellow

    • E. 

      Red and black

  • 35. 
    A creatine kinase test is done to help diagnose which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Infection or leukemia

    • B. 

      Kidney disorder

    • C. 

      Cancer

    • D. 

      Muscular dystrophies and heart disease

    • E. 

      Spinal fluid and CNS infection

  • 36. 
    What position should the patient's arm be when drawing blood in phlebotomy?
    • A. 

      Bent at the elbow

    • B. 

      Level with the heart

    • C. 

      Hanging down

    • D. 

      Slightly elevated to prevent fainting

    • E. 

      Slightly downward

  • 37. 
    Urine that is too acidic could indicate?
    • A. 

      Incontinence

    • B. 

      Gout

    • C. 

      Renal failure

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      UTI

  • 38. 
    Albumin found in urine may indicate?
    • A. 

      Heart failure

    • B. 

      Renal disease

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Liver cirrhosis

    • E. 

      Systemic lupus

    • F. 

      All of the above

  • 39. 
    What does QNS stand for?
    • A. 

      Quality Not Stated

    • B. 

      Quinine Normal Saturation

    • C. 

      Quantity Not Sufficient

    • D. 

      Question Not Stated

  • 40. 
    Urticaria may indicate?
    • A. 

      Upper Respiratory infection

    • B. 

      An allergic reaction

    • C. 

      Spontaneous skin infection

    • D. 

      Hyperthermia

  • 41. 
    Angioedema is?
    • A. 

      A vascular reaction involving the deep dermis or subcutaneous tissue with localized edema.

    • B. 

      Is the inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation inside the vein at the site of the inflammation.

    • C. 

      Is something that blocks the blood flow in a blood vessel such as a gas bubble, a blood clot, or a fat globule.

    • D. 

      The material, consisting of blood and cellular debris from the uterus, discharged during menstruation.

  • 42. 
    What can cause a acute allergic reaction to your patient? 
    • A. 

      Latex gloves

    • B. 

      Medication

    • C. 

      Shellfish

    • D. 

      Insect venom

    • E. 

      Dyes

    • F. 

      All of the above

    • G. 

      Only C and D

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is the pathology of excessive red blood cell production?
    • A. 

      Erythropoiesis

    • B. 

      Polycythemia

    • C. 

      Polyuria

    • D. 

      RBC mismatch disorder

  • 44. 
    What test is required for a newborn to test for a genetic disorder of metabolism?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B

    • B. 

      HIV/AIDS

    • C. 

      Phenylketonuria

    • D. 

      Blood Glucose level

  • 45. 
    An infection contracted in a hospital or other health care facility is termed?
    • A. 

      Nosocomial infection

    • B. 

      MRSA infection

    • C. 

      Epidemic infection

    • D. 

      (ITI) Insurance tort infection

    • E. 

      White coat syndrome

  • 46. 
    Which of the following suffixes means “inflammation”?
    • A. 

      -trophy

    • B. 

      -iasis

    • C. 

      -desis

    • D. 

      -osis

    • E. 

      -itis

  • 47. 
    Which of the following prefixes and matched meaning is correct?
    • A. 

      Micro / large

    • B. 

      Antero / back

    • C. 

      Peri / around

    • D. 

      Hypo / above

    • E. 

      Endo / over

  • 48. 
    When the combining form cyan / o is used, it means?
    • A. 

      Poisonous to the skin

    • B. 

      The skin is dry and red

    • C. 

      The Central Nervous System is involved

    • D. 

      The object is blue

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 49. 
    The prefix intra- means?
    • A. 

      Within

    • B. 

      Above and beyond

    • C. 

      Below and proximal

    • D. 

      Beside and lateral

    • E. 

      Between, open and keep separated

  • 50. 
    Ren / o and Nephr / o both refer to which of the following?
    • A. 

      The brain

    • B. 

      The spine or peripheral nervous system

    • C. 

      The kidneys

    • D. 

      The urinary bladder

  • 51. 
    The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) regulations
    • A. 

      Are regulated by the FDA state government offices.

    • B. 

      Include federal standards applicable to all U.S. facilities or sites that test human specimens for health assessment or to diagnose, prevent, or treat disease.

    • C. 

      Were written by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) which is a United States federal law enforcement agency under the U.S. Department of Justice, tasked with combating illegal laboratory testing within the United States.

    • D. 

      Set guidelines for the repair and maintenance of laboratory equipment and associated office machines, such as microscopes and label makers.

  • 52. 
    Professional negligence is also called?
    • A. 

      Malpractice

    • B. 

      Malice

    • C. 

      Felony

    • D. 

      Confidentiality violation

    • E. 

      Assault

  • 53. 
    Consent is unnecessary when
    • A. 

      Under no circumstances; it is always necessary, without exception!

    • B. 

      The patient is an emancipated minor

    • C. 

      It is in an emergency situation

    • D. 

      A family member says it is "Okay".

  • 54. 
    The age of majority in most jurisdictions is
    • A. 

      16 and they have dated the opposite sex

    • B. 

      17 and they are employed

    • C. 

      18 but they are still in school

    • D. 

      19 and have a valid drivers license

    • E. 

      21 and can vote in national elections

  • 55. 
    When is it permissible to release information from a patient's records?
    • A. 

      When an attorney requests it

    • B. 

      When the patient's employer requests it

    • C. 

      When the patient's father or mother requests it

    • D. 

      When a court requests it by means of a subpoena

    • E. 

      When the patient signs a release

    • F. 

      All the above

    • G. 

      Only D and E are correct

  • 56. 
    Potentially infectious body fluids include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Vaginal secretions

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Sweat

    • D. 

      Semen

    • E. 

      CSF

  • 57. 
    How long is hepatitis B virus capable of surviving in a dried state on environmental surfaces?
    • A. 

      2 to 3 hours

    • B. 

      1 day

    • C. 

      2 days

    • D. 

      7 to 10 days

    • E. 

      Over a month

  • 58. 
    Clean technique is another term for?
    • A. 

      Sanitization

    • B. 

      Surgical asepsis

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Medical asepsis

  • 59. 
    The vaccine against hepatitis B provides immunity for at least:
    • A. 

      7 years

    • B. 

      5 years

    • C. 

      3 years

    • D. 

      2 year

    • E. 

      1 year and a phlebotomist must have vaccinations yearly

  • 60. 
    Which is the only available method to detect evidence of HIV infection?
    • A. 

      Patient history of sexual gender preferences

    • B. 

      Urinalysis testing and turbidity of the urine (must be a clean catch)

    • C. 

      Signs and symptoms, history of drug use or transfusions and plasma testing (Light blue tube)

    • D. 

      Serological test (A pink EDTA tube)

    • E. 

      Must do a viral culture using a Gold top tube

  • 61. 
    Which of the following body systems is the most commonly involved in AIDS?
    • A. 

      Urinary system and Kidneys

    • B. 

      Stomach and intestines

    • C. 

      Lungs and respiratory system

    • D. 

      Vascular system and veins

    • E. 

      Motor nervous system and vision

  • 62. 
    Anything that poses a risk to the human body or a living organism is called:
    • A. 

      An occupational exposure

    • B. 

      A biohazard

    • C. 

      A bacterial infection

    • D. 

      A pathogen

    • E. 

      An invasive virus

  • 63. 
    The United States Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is an agency that:
    • A. 

      Issues workplace health and safety regulations.

    • B. 

      Sets requirements for the use of personal protective equipment

    • C. 

      Sends Compliance Safety and Health Officers to work sites to enforce its standards on regulated entities

    • D. 

      is also responsible for enforcing whistleblower provisions of 21 statutes.

    • E. 

      All of the above

    • F. 

      None of the above

  • 64. 
    Treating all human blood as if it were infectious is known as?
    • A. 

      Asepsis

    • B. 

      Phlebotomy precautions

    • C. 

      Isolation precautions

    • D. 

      Universal Precautions

    • E. 

      Pandemic precautions

  • 65. 
    Hand washing is necessary at which of the following times?
    • A. 

      Before using gloves

    • B. 

      After performing a procedure

    • C. 

      After handling equipment

    • D. 

      Before you go home

    • E. 

      After the use of gloves

    • F. 

      All of the above

  • 66. 
    What does PPE stand for?
    • A. 

      Pregnancy Probability Evaluation test (Red top tube)

    • B. 

      Personal‎ Protection Equipment

    • C. 

      Personnel Practice Evaluation (Monthly phlebotomist evaluation)

    • D. 

      Phlebotomist Practical Education (Continuing education points)

    • E. 

      This is a trick question, it means "Pittsburg Penguins Equipment"

  • 67. 
    The correct way to dispose of a contaminated needle is:
    • A. 

      Recap it and immediately drop it into the nearest bio-hazardous waste container

    • B. 

      Dispose of it in the nearest trash can, then place the contents in a red bag at the end of the day.

    • C. 

      Place it in a sharps box container

    • D. 

      Place it in a metal Kidney tray for later sterilization

  • 68. 
    Which of the following is not an example of personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      A face shield

    • B. 

      A surgical coat or lab coat over scrubs

    • C. 

      Gloves

    • D. 

      A uniform with a turtle neck that prevents body fluids from dripping down to your chest

    • E. 

      A mask and shoe covers

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is a possible means of HIV transmission?
    • A. 

      Saliva or tears comes into contact with your equipment

    • B. 

      You come into contact with sweat on intact skin

    • C. 

      Blood and a needle stick

    • D. 

      Hair and dandruff

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 70. 
    Which of the following is a possible treatment of syncope?
    • A. 

      Have the patient lower his or her head between the legs

    • B. 

      Laying the patient flat on the patient's back with the feet slightly elevated

    • C. 

      Loosening tight clothing and applying a cold cloth to the patient's forehead

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 71. 
    This word element establishes the basic meaning of a medical term:
    • A. 

      Main root

    • B. 

      Combining form

    • C. 

      Prefix

    • D. 

      Suffix

    • E. 

      Word root

  • 72. 
    Which of the following tube additives is preferred for a blood culture specimen?
    • A. 

      Potassium oxalate and fluoride

    • B. 

      Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

    • C. 

      Sodium or potassium heparin

    • D. 

      K2 EDTA

  • 73. 
    A BT using a standardized template device may be performed on the:
    • A. 

      Vortex vein of the lower arm

    • B. 

      Ventral surface of the hand

    • C. 

      Ventral surface of the anterior thigh

    • D. 

      Volar surface of the arm

  • 74. 
    Polycythemia vera (pol-e-sigh-THEE-me-uh VEER-uh) is?
    • A. 

      A condition characterized by an elevated number of white cells in the blood.

    • B. 

      An abnormally increased number of platelets in the blood.

    • C. 

      When excess RBC's are produced as a result of an abnormality of the bone marrow.

    • D. 

      An abnormally decreased number of platelets in the blood due to cancer.

  • 75. 
    A stool specimen is needed for this test?
    • A. 

      Fecal Lipid Determination

    • B. 

      Rapid Strep Test

    • C. 

      Guaiac

    • D. 

      Oderostic test

  • 76. 
    Glycosylated hemoglobin is performed to monitor the effectiveness of therapy for which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Acidosis

    • B. 

      Diabetes

    • C. 

      Renal disease

    • D. 

      Chronic inflammation of the bone marrow

  • 77. 
    A frequent error made when collecting a blood culture is improper cleansing of the site.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    Which of the following procedures is required for a BC using a Chloroprep kit?
    • A. 

      Cleaning the bottle tops with isopropyl alcohol.

    • B. 

      Shaving the puncture site, using concentric circles with isopropyl alcohol swaps for 2 minutes.

    • C. 

      Warming all bottle (plus back-up spares) to room temperature.

    • D. 

      Inverting the bottles 6 to 8 times.

  • 79. 
    Which of the following tests does not require special chain-of-custody documentation when collected?
    • A. 

      BAC

    • B. 

      Drug screen

    • C. 

      Paternity testing

    • D. 

      TDM

  • 80. 
    When collecting a Blood Alcohol test for forensic purposes, the venipuncture site can be cleaned with:
    • A. 

      Benzalkonium chloride

    • B. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • C. 

      Methyl alcohol

    • D. 

      Tincture of iodine

  • 81. 
    Blood levels of this analyte begin to rise within 4 hours of an MI. 
    • A. 

      TnT

    • B. 

      ALT

    • C. 

      LDL

    • D. 

      BNP

  • 82. 
    Postprandial refers to:
    • A. 

      After eating a meal

    • B. 

      After fasting overnight

    • C. 

      Just before eating a meal

    • D. 

      After taking a medication

  • 83. 
    Which of the following may produce a prolonged Bleeding Time?
    • A. 

      ASA

    • B. 

      Acetylsalicylic acid

    • C. 

      Aspirin

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 84. 
    O2 saturation measures the:
    • A. 

      Oxygen pressure in the veins

    • B. 

      Amount of oxygen dissolved onto WBC's and in blood serum

    • C. 

      Percent of oxygen bound to hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Whole blood alkalinity

  • 85. 
    (*Note: This is a Capillary collection question) If using capillary puncture to collect all the following "MICROTUBES" from a patient, which one would be collected first?
    • A. 

      Gray top

    • B. 

      Green top

    • C. 

      Lavender top

    • D. 

      Red top

  • 86. 
    It is important to control the depth of a lancet insertion during a heel puncture to avoid:
    • A. 

      Bone injury

    • B. 

      Puncturing a artery

    • C. 

      Bacterial contamination

    • D. 

      Plasma concentration

  • 87. 
    DO NOT use providone-iodine to clean skin puncture sites because it interferes with:
    • A. 

      Potassium results

    • B. 

      Phosphorus results

    • C. 

      Uric acid results

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 88. 
    Which describes the best method of collecting a capillary specimen?
    • A. 

      Squeeze the finger hard to obtain constant blood flow

    • B. 

      Puncture the skin in the center of the whorls on the finger tips

    • C. 

      Touch the scoop to the blood drop avoiding contact with the skin

    • D. 

      Wipe the site of all alcohol with a 2x2 prior to collection

  • 89. 
    An infant bilirubin specimen is collected in an Amber micro tube to:
    • A. 

      Protect it from Bacteria and viruses

    • B. 

      Protect it from light

    • C. 

      Protect it from EM interference due to electronic hospital equipment exposure

    • D. 

      Identify it as a capillary bilirubin specimen

  • 90. 
    Skin pain fibers increase in abundance:
    • A. 

      Below 2.4 mm in depth

    • B. 

      Beyond 5.9 mm in depth

    • C. 

      Above the epidermis layer

    • D. 

      Between 10 and 15 mm in depth

  • 91. 
    The abbreviation for computer memory that can be lost if not saved is:
    • A. 

      RAM

    • B. 

      ROM

    • C. 

      REM

    • D. 

      RIM

  • 92. 
    What is the next thing to happen after a specimen is delivered to a lab that has a computerized information system?
    • A. 

      A computer interface alerts the appropriate instrument

    • B. 

      The patients lab charges are generated and mailed to their residence

    • C. 

      The bar code is scanned to verify the collection

    • D. 

      The quantity and quality of the specimen are typed into the system by the Pathologist in charge

  • 93. 
    Which of the following would most likely be rejected for testing?
    • A. 

      UA specimen that was not placed in a sterile container

    • B. 

      A STAT CBC specimen that is in a slightly under-filled tube

    • C. 

      A hemolyzed specimen for a potassium test

    • D. 

      Bilirubin specimen in a amber tube

  • 94. 
    A specimen for this test should NOT be chilled:
    • A. 

      Potassium

    • B. 

      Lactic acid

    • C. 

      Ammonia

    • D. 

      Homocysteine

  • 95. 
    Normal body temperature is?
    • A. 

      98 degrees C

    • B. 

      37 degrees C

    • C. 

      37 degrees F

    • D. 

      88.6 degrees F

  • 96. 
    Using standard precautions, what is the best cleaning solution to disinfect a blood spill?
    • A. 

      A 1:10 dilution of bleach

    • B. 

      70% Isopropyl alcohol solution

    • C. 

      Antibacterial soap and distilled water solution

    • D. 

      Providone-Iodine swap sticks

  • 97. 
    Needles are color-coded according to:
    • A. 

      Length

    • B. 

      Bevel angle

    • C. 

      Gauge

    • D. 

      Newborn, child, adult and geriatric sizes

  • 98. 
    You ask permission to draw a blood specimen. Which of the following answers implies you do NOT have permission to do so?
    • A. 

      "Which arm do you want?"

    • B. 

      Well Okay, but I'd rather not.

    • C. 

      The patient thrusts his right arm out at you and says: "THIS IS THE LAST TIME YOU VAMPIRES!"

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 99. 
    • A. 

      Collect the SST, invert, then the Light blue

    • B. 

      Draw a clear tube, fill and invert the light blue, then fill and invert the SST

    • C. 

      Always draw the light blue first, then the throw away tube, then the SST

    • D. 

      Use a EDTA tube first as a throw-away so the area has an anticoagulant on it, then the light blue, then the SST

  • 100. 
    A rapid heart rate is called?
    • A. 

      Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Arrhythmia

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      Tachycardia

    • E. 

      Rapidiocardialgia