Pharmacology Quiz 6

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Final exam chemo: BPPH, erectile dysfunction, chemotherapy, psychiatric drugs, osteoarthritis, RA, gout, dermatological disorders, pain, oral contraceptives


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a goal of BPH therapy?
    • A. 

      Minimize or eradicate lower urinary tract symptoms

    • B. 

      Reverse prostate growth

    • C. 

      Minimize adverse effects

    • D. 

      Prevent complications

  • 2. 
    In which UAU severity range is pharmacologic therapy for BPH indicated?
    • A. 

    • B. 

      8-19

    • C. 

      20-30

    • D. 

      >30

  • 3. 
    Which of the following drugs works by selectively relaxing smooth muscle in the prostatic capsule, bladder neck and urethra?
    • A. 

      Prazosin

    • B. 

      Doxazosin

    • C. 

      Silodosin

    • D. 

      Alfuzosin

  • 4. 
    What is the effect of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers on the PSA levels?
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Decrease

    • C. 

      It stays the same

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is a side effect of alpha 1 adrenergic blockers?
    • A. 

      Flatulence

    • B. 

      Gynecomastia

    • C. 

      Hot flashes

    • D. 

      Retrograde ejaculation

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is contraindication with alpha 1 adrenergic blockers?
    • A. 

      concurrent use of sildenafil

    • B. 

      Contact with a woman of childbearing age

    • C. 

      Concurrent use of nitrates

    • D. 

      Predisposition to priapism

  • 7. 
    Which of the following drugs should not be used when a previous allergic reaction to sulfa has been severe?
    • A. 

      Silodosin

    • B. 

      Tamsulosin

    • C. 

      Oxazosin

    • D. 

      Terazosin

  • 8. 
    Which is a drawback of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors for BPH?
    • A. 

      They do not halt disease progression

    • B. 

      They do not decrease PSA

    • C. 

      They have cardiovascular adverse effects

    • D. 

      Peak onset is 3-6 months

  • 9. 
    What is the MOA of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors in treatment of BPH?
    • A. 

      Interference with testosterone's stimulation of prostate gland enlargement

    • B. 

      Relaxation of prostatic smooth muscle

    • C. 

      Prevention of GnRH release

    • D. 

      Inhibition of androgen binding to receptors

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is not a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Finasteride

    • B. 

      Dutasteride

    • C. 

      Flutamide

    • D. 

      Turosteride

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is an adverse effect of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?
    • A. 

      Erectile dysfunction

    • B. 

      Hot flashes

    • C. 

      First-dose syncope

    • D. 

      Retrograde ejaculation

  • 12. 
    Which is false?
    • A. 

      Women of childbearing age should handle 5-alpha reductase inhibitors with gloves.

    • B. 

      Flutamide prevents release of GnRH

    • C. 

      Phytotherapy is not recommended for BPH due to inconclusive data

    • D. 

      TUNA is a treatment option for BPH

  • 13. 
    Which drug class does not directly cause sexual dysfunction?
    • A. 

      Anticholinergics

    • B. 

      SSRIs

    • C. 

      Dopamine agonists

    • D. 

      Diuretics

  • 14. 
    Which of the following may have eye side effects due to inhibition of PDE 6?
    • A. 

      Sildenafil

    • B. 

      Vardenafil

    • C. 

      Tadalafil

  • 15. 
    Which is false?
    • A. 

      30-40% of patients do not respond to phosphodiesterase inhibitors (PDEIs)

    • B. 

      Fatty meals decrease absorption of sildenafil and vardenafil

    • C. 

      If no response with the first dose, try a different drug

    • D. 

      Nitrates interact with PDEIs

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is a contraindication for PDEI therapy?
    • A. 

      MI or stroke within 6 weeks

    • B. 

      Obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

    • C. 

      CHF class II

    • D. 

      Mild valvular disease

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is injected into the corpus cavernosum?
    • A. 

      Tadalafil

    • B. 

      Aloprostadil

    • C. 

      Vardenafil

    • D. 

      Sildenafil

  • 18. 
    Which is a side effect of MUSE but not caverject?
    • A. 

      Penile pain

    • B. 

      Burning or itching complaints from partner

    • C. 

      Priapism

    • D. 

      Hematoma

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is used for prevention and treatment of glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis in men and women?
    • A. 

      Calcitonin salmon

    • B. 

      Ibandronate

    • C. 

      Zoledronic acid

    • D. 

      Risedronate

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is injected intravenously by a healthcare professional every three months?
    • A. 

      Alendronate

    • B. 

      Ibandronate

    • C. 

      Risedronate

    • D. 

      Teriparatide

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is false regarding oral bisphosphonates?
    • A. 

      They should be taken with a full glass of water

    • B. 

      Other medications should not be taken for 30 minutes after administration

    • C. 

      Patients should lie down for 30 minutes following administration

    • D. 

      Patients should not drink other beverages or eat food within 30 minutes of administration

  • 22. 
    Which of the following carries a black-box warning for osteosarcoma?
    • A. 

      Calcitonin (salmon)

    • B. 

      Raloxifene

    • C. 

      Teriparatide

    • D. 

      Risedronate

  • 23. 
    Chemotherapy has little or no effect in which of the following?
    • A. 

      Burkitt's lymphoma

    • B. 

      Osteosarcoma

    • C. 

      Advanced breast cancer

    • D. 

      Kaposi's sarcoma

    • E. 

      Hepatocellular carcinoma

  • 24. 
    What is the MOA of 5-fluorouracil?
    • A. 

      Prolongs the inhibition of thymidylate synthase

    • B. 

      Competitively inhibits DNA polymerase

    • C. 

      Incorporates itself into DNA, inhibiting polymerase activity

    • D. 

      Inhibits thymidylate synthase, preventing synthesis of thymidine

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is a severe side effect from 5 FU?
    • A. 

      Mucositis

    • B. 

      ARDS

    • C. 

      Hemorrhagic cystitis

    • D. 

      Thrombocytopenia

  • 26. 
    Intrathecal cytarabine is used for treatment of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Pancreatic cancer

    • B. 

      Breast cancer

    • C. 

      Acute myelogenous leukemia

    • D. 

      Liver metastases

  • 27. 
    Which of the following is associated with ARDS and pulmonary edema, especially with concurrent radiation?
    • A. 

      Methotrexate

    • B. 

      Gemcitabine

    • C. 

      Pemetrexed

    • D. 

      Capecitabine

  • 28. 
    Which of the following should be given with leucovorin rescue?
    • A. 

      5 fluorouracil

    • B. 

      Ifosfamide

    • C. 

      Methotrexate

    • D. 

      Mesna

  • 29. 
    Which of the following, used for lung and cervical cancer, is associated with nephrotoxicity?
    • A. 

      Carboplatin

    • B. 

      Cisplatin

    • C. 

      Oxaliplatin

    • D. 

      Irinotecan

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is a "spindle poison," or microtubule targeting drug?
    • A. 

      Vincristine

    • B. 

      Doxorubicin

    • C. 

      Carboplatin

    • D. 

      Ifosfamide

  • 31. 
    Which drug used for colon and rectal cancer can cause thermal dyesthesia?
    • A. 

      Paclitaxel

    • B. 

      Vinblastine

    • C. 

      Cisplatin

    • D. 

      Oxaliplatin

  • 32. 
    Which can not be given with radiation?
    • A. 

      Idarubicin

    • B. 

      Irinotecan

    • C. 

      Docetaxel

    • D. 

      Vinrelbine

  • 33. 
    Which drugs work by inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis and arrest the cell cycle in the G2 phase?
    • A. 

      Taxanes

    • B. 

      DNA topoisomerase inhibitors

    • C. 

      Platinum compounds

    • D. 

      Alkylating agents

  • 34. 
    What is the first line treatment for osteoarthritis?
    • A. 

      Acetaminophen

    • B. 

      Ibuprofen

    • C. 

      Intraarticular steroids

    • D. 

      DMARDs

  • 35. 
    Which is not a drug interaction of aspirin?
    • A. 

      Warfarin

    • B. 

      NSAIDs

    • C. 

      Folic acid

    • D. 

      Prednisone

  • 36. 
    Which of the following NSAIDs should be avoided in the elderly?
    • A. 

      Ibuprofen

    • B. 

      Nabumetone

    • C. 

      Naproxen

    • D. 

      Acetylsalicylic acid

  • 37. 
    The most commonly used DMARD for rheumatoid arthritis is dosed:
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Every three months

  • 38. 
    Which of the following should be given with folic acid?
    • A. 

      Azathioprine

    • B. 

      Cyclophosphamide

    • C. 

      Etanercept

    • D. 

      Methotrexate

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is an immunomodulatory agent that inhibits pyrimidine synthesis?
    • A. 

      Cyclosporine

    • B. 

      Methotrexate

    • C. 

      Leflunomide

    • D. 

      Cyclophosphamide

  • 40. 
    Which of the following is a circulating TNF receptor that binds to TNF before it attaches to cell surface receptors?
    • A. 

      Etanercept

    • B. 

      Leflunomide

    • C. 

      Infliximab

    • D. 

      Cyclophosphamide

  • 41. 
    Assessment for active infection prior to beginning treatment is essential in which of the following drugs?
    • A. 

      Leflunomide

    • B. 

      Adalimumab

    • C. 

      Cyclosporin

    • D. 

      Gold

  • 42. 
    Which of the following is a drug interaction with leflunomide?
    • A. 

      Warfarin

    • B. 

      Oral contraceptives

    • C. 

      Bile acid sequestrants

    • D. 

      Corticosteroids

  • 43. 
    Contraindications of using colchicine for an acute gout include which of the following?
    • A. 

      Neutropenia

    • B. 

      Hepatic impairment

    • C. 

      CrCl < 10

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 44. 
    Adverse effects of treatment of chronic gout include which of the following?
    • A. 

      Tissue necrosis

    • B. 

      Leukopenia

    • C. 

      Myoneuropathy

    • D. 

      Systemic fungal infection

  • 45. 
    How is hydromorphone different from morphine?
    • A. 

      Side effects are related to dosing, not metabolites

    • B. 

      Less sedation

    • C. 

      Weaker analgesia

    • D. 

      Shorter duration of action

  • 46. 
    Which can be used in morphine-allergic patients?
    • A. 

      Hydromorphone

    • B. 

      Oxycodone

    • C. 

      Meperidine

    • D. 

      Codeine

  • 47. 
    Which should not be used in acute pain or in opioid-naive patients?
    • A. 

      Methadone

    • B. 

      Morphine

    • C. 

      Codeine

    • D. 

      Fentanyl

  • 48. 
    :Which is a quality of methadone that makes it appropriate for opioid abusers?
    • A. 

      Higher potency than morphine

    • B. 

      It is a prodrug

    • C. 

      Fat deposits can be depots for the drug

    • D. 

      Biphasic elimination

  • 49. 
       Which is not usually used as adjunctive treatment for neuropathic pain?
    • A. 

      Amitriptyline

    • B. 

      Gabapentin

    • C. 

      Carbamazepine

    • D. 

      Phenytoin

  • 50. 
    What is the MOA of first-generation antipsychotics?
    • A. 

      Serotonin blockade

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine blockade

    • C. 

      Dopamine blockade

    • D. 

      GABA blockade

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is not a 2nd generation antipsychotic?
    • A. 

      Aripiprazole

    • B. 

      Risperidone

    • C. 

      Quetiapine

    • D. 

      Chlorpromazine

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is a serious side effect of first-generation antipsychotics?
    • A. 

      QT prolongation

    • B. 

      Orthostatic hypotension

    • C. 

      Agranulocytosis

  • 53. 
    Which of the following may cause QT prolongation?
    • A. 

      Ziprasidone

    • B. 

      Clozapine

    • C. 

      Halloperidol

    • D. 

      Trifluoperazine

  • 54. 
    Which is not a general side effect of antipsychotics?
    • A. 

      Weight gain

    • B. 

      Sedation

    • C. 

      Changes in lipids

    • D. 

      Agranulocytosis

  • 55. 
    Which of the following is an indication that depression may be overmedicated?
    • A. 

      Dilated pupils

    • B. 

      Weight gain

    • C. 

      Headache

    • D. 

      Bruxism

  • 56. 
    Which of the following is not affected by tricyclic antidepressents?
    • A. 

      Serotonin

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine

    • C. 

      GABA

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

  • 57. 
    Which is a contraindication of tricyclic antidepressant use?
    • A. 

      MAOI

    • B. 

      Buproprion

    • C. 

      SSRIs

    • D. 

      Phenobarbital

  • 58. 
    Which neurotransmitter is acted on by atypical antidepressants?
    • A. 

      GABA

    • B. 

      Dopamine

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

  • 59. 
    Tyramine containing foods may interact with which of the following?
    • A. 

      Buproprion

    • B. 

      St. John's wort

    • C. 

      Tranylcypromine

    • D. 

      Fluoxetine

  • 60. 
    St. John's wort does not interact with which of the following?
    • A. 

      Benzodiazepines

    • B. 

      Warfarin

    • C. 

      Cyclosporine

    • D. 

      Norethindrone

  • 61. 
    Which drug may cause mania in a patient with bipolar disorder?
    • A. 

      Valproic acid

    • B. 

      Corticosteroids

    • C. 

      Hormonal contraceptives

    • D. 

      Olanzapine

  • 62. 
    Which bipolar disorder agent may interfere with thyroid function tests?
    • A. 

      Lithium

    • B. 

      Valproic acid

    • C. 

      Olanzapine

    • D. 

      Risperidone

  • 63. 
    Which of the following plasma levels of lithium might correspond to manifestations of persistent GI upset, hand tremors, confusion, muscle irritability and sedation?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      2.3

    • C. 

      1.8

    • D. 

      1.3

  • 64. 
    What is first line treatment for bipolar disorder?
    • A. 

      Lithium

    • B. 

      Carbamazepine

    • C. 

      Antipsychotics

    • D. 

      Benzodiazepines

  • 65. 
    Which is not a property of anti-anxiety therapy?
    • A. 

      Anxiolytic

    • B. 

      Hypnotic

    • C. 

      Anticonvulsant

    • D. 

      Anti-amnesic

  • 66. 
    Which of the following is not safe to use in a patient with hepatic dysfunction?
    • A. 

      Diazepam

    • B. 

      Oxazepam

    • C. 

      Lorazepam

    • D. 

      Alprazolam

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is used for opioid withdrawal, panic disorder, and PTSD?
    • A. 

      Propranolol

    • B. 

      Hydroxyzine

    • C. 

      Buspirone

    • D. 

      Clonidine

  • 68. 
    Which drug therapy for insomnia has an indication for use up to 6 months?
    • A. 

      Zalepion

    • B. 

      Eszopiclone

    • C. 

      Estazolam

    • D. 

      Zalepion

  • 69. 
    Which drug does not interact with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4?
    • A. 

      Triazolam

    • B. 

      Eszopiclone

    • C. 

      Zaleplon

    • D. 

      Temazipam

  • 70. 
    Which of the following preparations is best for thick, dry, or fissured lesions?
    • A. 

      Gels

    • B. 

      Powders

    • C. 

      Wet dressings

    • D. 

      Ointments

  • 71. 
    How much cream should cover 100 square centimeters?
    • A. 

      15 mg

    • B. 

      500 mg

    • C. 

      1 g

    • D. 

      5 g

    • E. 

      15 g

  • 72. 
    What is the MOA of topical tretinoin?
    • A. 

      Inhibit P acnes, lipases, chemotaxis, follicular inflammation

    • B. 

      Antiinflammatory, antimitotic

    • C. 

      Antiinflammatory; decreases sebum production, follicular obstruction and number of skin bacteria

    • D. 

      Increases epidermal cell turnover

  • 73. 
    Milk, dairy products and antacids decrease the absorption of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Corticosteroids

    • B. 

      Minocycline

    • C. 

      Isotretinoin

    • D. 

      Tretinoin

  • 74. 
    Combination of isotretinoin with tetracycline can lead to which of the following:
    • A. 

      Depression, psychosis and suicidal ideation

    • B. 

      Teratogenicity

    • C. 

      Pseudomotor cerebri

    • D. 

      Inhibition of oral contraceptives

  • 75. 
    If a patient complains of spotting early in the cycle or amenorrhea on hormonal contraceptives, which would be the appropriate response?
    • A. 

      Decrease estrogen dose

    • B. 

      Increase estrogen dose

    • C. 

      Decrease progestin dose

    • D. 

      Increase progestin dose

  • 76. 
    Which is not an absolute contraindication to OCPs?
    • A. 

      History of DVT

    • B. 

      History of or current breast cancer

    • C. 

      Smoking

    • D. 

      Active liver disease

  • 77. 
    Which of the following does not have placebo pills?
    • A. 

      Multiphasic pills

    • B. 

      Continuous cycle pills

    • C. 

      Monophasic pills

    • D. 

      Progestin only pills

  • 78. 
    Which side effect is not normal in the first three months of oral contraceptive use?
    • A. 

      Breast tenderness

    • B. 

      Headaches

    • C. 

      Nausea

    • D. 

      Mild spotting

  • 79. 
    What is the appropriate action if a patient misses two pills?
    • A. 

      Take one missed pill immediately and resume schedule

    • B. 

      Take two pills daily for two days and resume schedule

    • C. 

      Take daily pill until Sunday and start a new pack.

    • D. 

      Use a backup method of birth control for one week

  • 80. 
    Which is true of Depot Provera injection?
    • A. 

      It is injectable estrogen that lasts for 13 weeks

    • B. 

      Patients can expect withdrawal bleeding

    • C. 

      It is associated with a bone density defect

    • D. 

      It has a drug interaction with calcium

  • 81. 
    Which is true of ParaGard?
    • A. 

      It lasts for up to 12 years

    • B. 

      It gradually releases progestin

    • C. 

      Since it is progestin only, there is no withdrawal bleeding

    • D. 

      It is an intrauterine device