Pharmacology 129

122 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which term best describes the study of drugs and their action on the body?
    • A. 

      Therapeutics

    • B. 

      Disease management

    • C. 

      Pharmacology

    • D. 

      Pharmacotherapy

  • 2. 
    The most common source of drugs today is?
    • A. 

      Animals

    • B. 

      Plants

    • C. 

      Chemical synthesis

    • D. 

      Genetic bioengineering

  • 3. 
    The agency that regulates drug testing and approves new drugs is the?
    • A. 

      Center for drug evaluation and research (CDER)

    • B. 

      Centers for disease control and prevention (CDC)

    • C. 

      Food and drug administration (FDA)

    • D. 

      National institutes of health (NIH)

  • 4. 
    What organization is offically responsible for establishing public standards that approved drugs must continue to meet?
    • A. 

      Food and drug administration (FDA)

    • B. 

      United states pharmacopeia (USP)

    • C. 

      American hospital formulary service (AHFS)

    • D. 

      Physicians' desk reference (PDR)

  • 5. 
    The name given to a drug that is considered the nonproprietary name and not owned by any particular pharmaceutical company is the?
    • A. 

      Brand name

    • B. 

      Chemical name

    • C. 

      Generic name

    • D. 

      Trade name

  • 6. 
    When two drugs administered together result in an effect greater than the sum of each given seperately the interaction is?
    • A. 

      Antagonism

    • B. 

      Synergism

    • C. 

      Additive

    • D. 

      Potentiation

  • 7. 
    A physician would like a patient to receive acetaminophen via the enteral route. Your choice of administration may include: I. oral II. nasogastric III. rectal
    • A. 

      I, II, and III

    • B. 

      I

    • C. 

      I and III

    • D. 

      I and II

  • 8. 
    Administration of 80 mg propranolol given orally (PO) produces the same response as 1 mg intravenously (IV). The difference in dosage is explained by
    • A. 

      The first-pass effect

    • B. 

      Bioavailability

    • C. 

      Metabolism

    • D. 

      Protein binding

  • 9. 
    The most common and convenient route of drug administration is?
    • A. 

      Transdermal

    • B. 

      Oral

    • C. 

      Inhalation

    • D. 

      Sublingual

  • 10. 
    After drugs are metabolized, they can be eliminated from the body through the:
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Feces and urine

    • C. 

      Lungs

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 11. 
    The potency of a drug is best described as:
    • A. 

      The route of the drug

    • B. 

      The degree in which the drug can be cleared from the body

    • C. 

      The amount of drug required to produce the response desired

    • D. 

      The affinity of the drug for a particular receptor site

  • 12. 
    When a drug binds to a receptor site, all except which of the following can occur?
    • A. 

      An ion channel can be opened or closed

    • B. 

      Therapeutic response produced is directly proportional to the number of sites occupied

    • C. 

      Biochemical messengers that initiate chemical reactions can be activated

    • D. 

      A normal cellular function can be turned on and off

  • 13. 
    A drug with an intrinsic activity of 0:
    • A. 

      Is an agonist

    • B. 

      Would activate the receptor

    • C. 

      Is an antagonist

    • D. 

      Would cause a greater response

  • 14. 
    A cell that becomes less responsive to a drug after exposure over time is a condition called:
    • A. 

      Desensitization

    • B. 

      Dependence

    • C. 

      Tolerance

    • D. 

      Low therapeutic index

  • 15. 
    You note that a physician has made a new entry on a patient's chart. The entry reads "500 mg acetaminophen PO QID." What does this order mean?
    • A. 

      500 mg acetaminophen postop, then every 4 hours

    • B. 

      500 mg acetaminophen preop, then daily

    • C. 

      500 mg acetaminophen per order, six times daily

    • D. 

      500 mg acetaminophen by mouth, four times daily

  • 16. 
    If a drug order is written for 0.25 mg/kg of body weight, what dosage would be administered to a patient weighing 88 lb?
    • A. 

      44 mg

    • B. 

      40mg

    • C. 

      10mg

    • D. 

      22mg

  • 17. 
    A dosage of 4 mg of morphine sulfate is ordered for a patient. How many milliliters will be administered from a vial containing 10mg/ml?
    • A. 

      1ml

    • B. 

      0.4ml

    • C. 

      0.1ml

    • D. 

      4ml

  • 18. 
    An adult femle patient weighs 125 lb. In order to determine a mechanical tidal volume, you must convert her weight to kilograms. What is her weight in kilograms?
    • A. 

      63kg

    • B. 

      28kg

    • C. 

      57kg

    • D. 

      276kg

  • 19. 
    A medication bag contains 0.03 liters. This is equal to how many milliliters?
    • A. 

      300

    • B. 

      3000

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      30

  • 20. 
    Virazole is supplied in a powder form that must be mixed with normal saline or sterile water prior to nebulization. This type of solution represents a:
    • A. 

      Liquid solute

    • B. 

      Solid/solvent

    • C. 

      Volume/volume

    • D. 

      Weight/volume

  • 21. 
    How much solute is in 3 ml of a 1:100 weight/volume solution?
    • A. 

      10mg

    • B. 

      10ml

    • C. 

      20ml

    • D. 

      30mg

  • 22. 
    A rescue dosage of surfactant calls for 3 ml/kg body weight. If a premature infant weighs 1500 g, how many millililiters are needed?
    • A. 

      9.0 ml

    • B. 

      4.5 ml

    • C. 

      0.45 ml

    • D. 

      5.0 ml

  • 23. 
    If a drug contains 6% active ingredient, how many grams of the active ingredient would you need in a 30 ml dose?
    • A. 

      36 g

    • B. 

      18 g

    • C. 

      1.8 g

    • D. 

      3.6 g

  • 24. 
    How much active drug is in 3 ml of a 10% weight/volume solution?
    • A. 

      1 mg

    • B. 

      0.3 mg

    • C. 

      0.3 g

    • D. 

      1 g

  • 25. 
    Promazine come in 550 mg/10ml liquid solution. How many milliliters are needed to give a 200 mg dose?
    • A. 

      0.3 ml

    • B. 

      3 ml

    • C. 

      3.6 ml

    • D. 

      30 ml

  • 26. 
    Terbutaline sulfate is available as 1 mg/1ml in an ampule. How many milliliters are needed to administer a 0.75 dose?
    • A. 

      0.30 ml

    • B. 

      1.5 ml

    • C. 

      0.75 ml

    • D. 

      0.15 ml

  • 27. 
    You receive an order for 16 gtt of Mucomyst. How many milliliters of drug would you be administering to the patient?
    • A. 

      0.15 ml

    • B. 

      1 ml

    • C. 

      1.5 ml

    • D. 

      5 ml

  • 28. 
    You are called to evaluate a patient who is receiving bronchodilator therapy with albuterol via the inhalation route. The patient tells you that she experiences tremors everytime she takes her aerosol treatement. The physician asks you to recommend another bronchodilator. Which of the following would you suggest?
    • A. 

      Metaproterenol

    • B. 

      Levabuterol

    • C. 

      Salmeterol

    • D. 

      Racemic epinephrine

  • 29. 
    Ipratropium bromide results in bronchodilation by inhibiting increases in cellular cyclic GMP.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    The terms bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction refer to the same mechanism for decrease in the diameter of the airway.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 31. 
    Alpha-adrenergic drugs are used primarily for their bronchodilatory effect.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    At the synapse where the neuron meets the muscle,sympathetic fibers release acetylcholine.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    Beta 1 receptors stimulate the heart, while beta 2 receptors stimulate the lungs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    You are called to the emergency room to treat an 18 year old female who has been admitted in an acute asthma attack. She received two albuterol treatments prior to entering the emergency room. The patient's breath sounds reveal wheezes bilaterally, and she is unable to perform PEFR. The physician asks you to recommend treatment. Which of the following would you suggest?
    • A. 

      Continuous nebulization of albuterol

    • B. 

      Subcutaneous injection of epinephrine

    • C. 

      Sprivia DPI

    • D. 

      Serevent MDI

  • 35. 
    Which of the following drugs would be bes used for maintenance of bronchospasm and would not be used during an acute attack? I. Serevent II. Theophylline III. Spiriva
    • A. 

      I and III

    • B. 

      II and III

    • C. 

      I, II, and III

    • D. 

      I and II

  • 36. 
    A physician asks you to evaluate the effectiveness of a patient's bronchodilator therapy. The test that would best quantify posttreatment improvement in airway obstruction is:
    • A. 

      Arterial blood gas

    • B. 

      Peak expiratory flow rate

    • C. 

      Chest x-ray

    • D. 

      Pulse oximetry

  • 37. 
    Racemic epinephrine would be indicated in all the following situations except:
    • A. 

      Laryngeal edema

    • B. 

      Post-extubation edema

    • C. 

      Acute bronchospasm

    • D. 

      Croup

  • 38. 
    Alpha receptor stimulation produces which of the following effects?
    • A. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • B. 

      Increased heart rate

    • C. 

      Pupil constriction

    • D. 

      Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

  • 39. 
    Toxicity can result from theophyllne due to all the following conditions except:
    • A. 

      Patient having liver disease

    • B. 

      Patient having congestive heart failure

    • C. 

      Interaction with other medications

    • D. 

      Therapeutic level of 10 mcg/ml

  • 40. 
    When administering a spontaneous aerosol treatment with an SVN, a mouthpiece is recommended for better deposition than with a mask.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    A DPI contains liquid aerosol particles that are released when the device is activated.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    Xopenex is a sympathomimetic beta agonist that is classified as a:
    • A. 

      Catecholamine

    • B. 

      Saligenin

    • C. 

      Resorcinol

    • D. 

      Xanthine

  • 43. 
    Which of the following bronchodilators is intended for long-term maintenance of asthma that does not have a rapid onset?
    • A. 

      Salmeterol

    • B. 

      Racemic epinephrine

    • C. 

      Albuterol

    • D. 

      Terbutaline

  • 44. 
    Mechanism of bronchoconstriction include all the following except:
    • A. 

      Airway edema

    • B. 

      Bronchospasm

    • C. 

      Embolism formation

    • D. 

      Increased secretions

  • 45. 
    Aerosol particles are measured in
  • 46. 
    Patients using DPIs must be able to generate inspiratory flow rates at least
  • 47. 
    Which of the following is a type of sympathetic nervous system receptor found in the lungs that produces bronchodilation when stimulated?
    • A. 

      Beta1

    • B. 

      Alpha2

    • C. 

      Alpha1

    • D. 

      Beta2

  • 48. 
    By what route are xanthines usually administered to patients with COPD?
    • A. 

      By direct endotracheal instillation

    • B. 

      By aerosol inhalation

    • C. 

      Orally

    • D. 

      Transcutaneously

  • 49. 
    Parasympatholytic bronchodilators can be described as: I. drugs that stimulate the parasypathetic system II. anticholingeric drugs III. drugs that block acetylcholine 
    • A. 

      I and II

    • B. 

      I, II and III

    • C. 

      II and III

    • D. 

      I only

  • 50. 
    Sympathomemetic bronchodilators can be described as: I. drugs that stimulate intracellular production of cyclic AMP II. anticholinergic drugs III. drugs that stimulate beta2 receptors 
    • A. 

      I and III

    • B. 

      I and II

    • C. 

      I, II, and III

    • D. 

      II and III

  • 51. 
    All except which of the following are advantages of using a spacer or a holding chamber?
    • A. 

      It aids in coordinating activating the device and taking a breath

    • B. 

      It increases the flow rate of the aerosol particles as they move through the spacer

    • C. 

      It allows the patient to direct the flow of aerosol into and through the oral cavity

    • D. 

      It allows time to vaporize the aerosol particle to the point of 1 to 5 microns

  • 52. 
    DPIs deliver aersolized medication to the lungs by:
    • A. 

      Using an external gas source

    • B. 

      Mixing the drug with a propellant

    • C. 

      Using an internal power source

    • D. 

      Requiring the patient to generate sufficient inspiratory flow rates

  • 53. 
    If a spacer is not available for use with an MDI, how should you instruct the patient to use his inhaler?
    • A. 

      Hold the MDI 3 to 4 centimetes away from your open mouth before depressing the canister

    • B. 

      Place the inhaler between your teeth and bite down before depressing the canister

    • C. 

      The inhaler should never be used without a spacer or holding device

    • D. 

      Place the inhaler mouthpiece inside your mouth as far as possible before depressing the canister

  • 54. 
    You are called to instruct a patient about a proper procedure for using an MDI. You would instruct the patient to activate the medication in the inhaler:
    • A. 

      Just before inspiration

    • B. 

      At the end of exhalation

    • C. 

      After inhaling as deeply as possible

    • D. 

      Just as inspiration has begun

  • 55. 
    You are called to the ICU to give a stat bronchodilator treatment to a comatose patient. Which of the following devices would be most appropriate for this patient?
    • A. 

      An SVN with a mask

    • B. 

      An MDI with a holding chamber

    • C. 

      A DPI

    • D. 

      A BAN with a mouthpiece

  • 56. 
    While treating a 3 year old patient at a hospital clinic, you are asked to select an aerosol device for bronchodilator therapy at home. The most appropriate device for this patient is: 
    • A. 

      An MDI

    • B. 

      A dry powder inhaler

    • C. 

      An MDI with a spacer

    • D. 

      A bulb nebulizer

  • 57. 
    Patients who are prescribed inhaled corticosteroids should be instructed to do which of the following to prevent an opportunistic oral infection?
    • A. 

      Decrease the dosage if signs of infection occur

    • B. 

      Use prophylactic antifungal medication

    • C. 

      Rinse the mouth and throat with mouthwash or water after inhalation of the corticosteroid

    • D. 

      Have routine throat cultures to detect an oral infection

  • 58. 
    The majority of an aerosolized drug does not deposit in the lungs, even under optimal conditions.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    SVNs are the most efficient type of nebulizer for delivering aerosolized medication to the lungs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 60. 
    The inhalation route of drug administration delivers a precise dose of medication to the lungs with each aerosol treatment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    Efferent neurons convey impulses from the brain along motor pathways to smooth muscle and glands.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    Nicotinic receptors are found in both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    Acetylcholine binds with muscarinic receptors in the parasympathetic nervous system.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Adrenergic receptors are found primarily in smooth muscle of blood vessels, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle of the airways.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    If the optimal breathing pattern is followed with an inspiratory breath hold, the result is;
    • A. 

      Laminar flow of the carrier gas

    • B. 

      Deposition of very small, stable particles onto the lung tissue

    • C. 

      Maximum penetration of aerosol particles

    • D. 

      Minimal inertial impaction of aerosol particles

  • 66. 
    Receptors that bind with norepinephrine are referred to as: I. adrenergic II. alpha III. beta IV. muscarinic
    • A. 

      I and II

    • B. 

      I and IV

    • C. 

      I, II, and III

    • D. 

      II, III and IV

  • 67. 
    The primary action of sympathomimetics is to:
    • A. 

      Stimulate norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Block norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Block acetylcholine

    • D. 

      Stimulate acetylcholine

  • 68. 
    The name of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter is:
    • A. 

      Cholinesterase

    • B. 

      Adrenalin

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

  • 69. 
    Beta1 stimulation mainly affects the:
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Airways

    • C. 

      Blood vessels

    • D. 

      Skeleton and muscles

  • 70. 
    Beta2 stimulation results in:
    • A. 

      Vasodilation

    • B. 

      Bronchospasm

    • C. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • D. 

      Bronchodilation

  • 71. 
    Drugs that antagonize or block the parasympathetic response are referred to as:
    • A. 

      Antiadrenergics

    • B. 

      Parasympatholytics

    • C. 

      Cholinergics

    • D. 

      Parasympathomimetics

  • 72. 
    The best deposition into the lower airways is achieved with aerosol particles in which size range?
    • A. 

      >10 microns

    • B. 

    • C. 

      5 to 10 microns

    • D. 

      1 to 5 microns

  • 73. 
    The ANS regulates all the  following body functions except:
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle movement

    • B. 

      Blood vessel constriction

    • C. 

      Digestion

    • D. 

      Cardiac muscle control

  • 74. 
    Bronchodilation is achieved by using which of the following classifications of drugs? I. parasympatholytic II. sympatholytics III. adrenergic agonists
    • A. 

      II and III

    • B. 

      I, II, and III

    • C. 

      I and III

    • D. 

      I and II

  • 75. 
    The peripheral nervous system is comprised of all the following except:
    • A. 

      Sympathetic and parasympathetic branches

    • B. 

      Brain and spinal cord

    • C. 

      The somatic and autonomic nervous system

    • D. 

      Afferent and efferent nerves

  • 76. 
    The somatic nervous system is responsible for;
    • A. 

      Involuntary muscle control

    • B. 

      Digestive process

    • C. 

      Skeletal muscle movement

    • D. 

      Cardiac muscle control

  • 77. 
    The system responsible for a rise in heart rate and blood pressure when your instructor announces a suprise quiz is:
    • A. 

      Somatic

    • B. 

      Central

    • C. 

      Parasympathetic

    • D. 

      Sympathetic

  • 78. 
    Norepinephrine is found at the terminal end of which of the following nerve fibers?
    • A. 

      Preganglionic junction of the sympathetic

    • B. 

      Postganglionic junction of the sympathetic

    • C. 

      Postganglionic junction of the parasympathetic

    • D. 

      Preganglionic junction of the parasympathetic

  • 79. 
    A physician has just written an order for atropine to be administered to a patient you are caring for. This parasympatholytic drug would cause all the following except:
    • A. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • B. 

      Dry secretions

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      Bronchodilation

  • 80. 
    Receptors that bind with acetylcholine at the postgaglion can be referred to as: I. cholinergic II. adrenergic III. muscarinic IV. nicotinic
    • A. 

      I and II

    • B. 

      I and III

    • C. 

      I, III and IV

    • D. 

      I, II and III

  • 81. 
    The most cost effective and readily available means of maintaining mucokinetics is with which of the following agents?
    • A. 

      Sodium bicarbonate

    • B. 

      Water

    • C. 

      Normal saline

    • D. 

      Mucomyst

  • 82. 
    Bypassing the upper airway by placing an endotracheal tube into the lungs can lead to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Infection

    • B. 

      Accumulation of mucus in the lungs

    • C. 

      Impaired ciliary action

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 83. 
    Of the following which is responsible for producing most of the mucus found in the airways?
    • A. 

      Bronchial glands

    • B. 

      Clara cells

    • C. 

      Goblet cells

    • D. 

      Serous cells

  • 84. 
    Repeated, prolonged exposure to irritants cause all except which of the following changes to occur in the airways?
    • A. 

      Increased number of bronchial glands

    • B. 

      Decreased mucus production

    • C. 

      Decreased ciliary action

    • D. 

      Increased size of bronchial glands

  • 85. 
    You are called to the emergency room to administer a bland aerosol treatment to a patient for sputum induction. Which of the following agents would you select for its effect in producing irritation and cough?
    • A. 

      Normal saline

    • B. 

      Sterile water

    • C. 

      Hypertonic saline

    • D. 

      Hypotonic saline

  • 86. 
    The pharmacologic approach to secretion management includes all the following except:
    • A. 

      Altering the consistency of the gel layer

    • B. 

      Increasing the number of bronchial glands

    • C. 

      Improving ciliary action

    • D. 

      Increasing the depth of the sol layer

  • 87. 
    Antitussives are indicated for which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Accumulation of thick secretions leading to shortness of breath

    • B. 

      Dry, hacking, nonproductive cough

    • C. 

      Bronchospasm accompanied with frequent cough

    • D. 

      Fuliminant pulmonary edema

  • 88. 
    The alveolar stuctures responsible for the manufacture of surfactant are:
    • A. 

      Clara cells

    • B. 

      Alveolar ducts

    • C. 

      Type II pneumocytes

    • D. 

      Type I pneumocytes

  • 89. 
    Lack of surfactant in premature infants less than 34 weeks' gestation is a result of:
    • A. 

      Immature type II pneumocytes

    • B. 

      Perinatal asphyxia

    • C. 

      Damaged type I pneumocytes

    • D. 

      Aspiration

  • 90. 
    Synthetic surfactants can be described as which of the following?  I. exogenous II. containing proteins SP-B and SP-C III. free of infection and foreign proteins
    • A. 

      I and II

    • B. 

      II and III

    • C. 

      I, II, and III

    • D. 

      I and III

  • 91. 
    Hazards that can occur with surfactant replacement therapy after administration include hyperoxemia and decreased PaCO2. These changes can be explained as occuring because of:
    • A. 

      Increases in ventilating pressures

    • B. 

      Increases in tidal volume due to improvement in lung compliance

    • C. 

      Increases in heart rate

    • D. 

      Increases in respiratory rate

  • 92. 
    The role of goblet cells and clara cells is to produce about 100 ml of mucus each day.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    Mucomyst can cause bronchospasm in patients with hyperactive airway disease and should therefore be given in combination with a short-acting bronchodilator.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    Expectorants work by increasing the amount of fluid in the respiratory tract and by increasing vagal-gastric reflex stimulation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    Surfactant is required to increase the surface tensi.on in the alveoli and make inflation easier with less pressure
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    Immunoglobulins are produced by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Antibodies

    • B. 

      Antigens

    • C. 

      T lymphocytes

    • D. 

      B lymphocytes

  • 97. 
    The immunoglobulin that is responsible for allergic rhinitis and allergic asthma is:
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgE

    • C. 

      IgM

    • D. 

      IgG

  • 98. 
    After an antigen-antibody reaction occurs, all except which of the following events contribute to the early-phase inflammatory response?
    • A. 

      Mast cell membrane rupturing

    • B. 

      Release of chemical mediators to the site

    • C. 

      Antibodies attacking antigens

    • D. 

      Arachidonic acid metabolism

  • 99. 
    If exogenous corticosteroid drugs are used, all except which of the following can occur?
    • A. 

      HPA suppression

    • B. 

      Hypothalamic stimulation, causing CRF to be released

    • C. 

      Adrenal gland atrophy

    • D. 

      Dependence on pharmacologic corticosteroids

  • 100. 
    Tapered does of exogenous pharmacologic corticosteroids drugs are used to do which of the following?
    • A. 

      Allow time for the body to regain internal reguluation of endogenous corticosteroids

    • B. 

      Reduce the release of glucose

    • C. 

      Reduce stimulation of the hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Increase adrenal suppression

  • 101. 
    The most common side effect of inhaled steroids is:
    • A. 

      Hypocalcemia

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Candidiasis

    • D. 

      Hypoglycemia

  • 102. 
    Patients receiving inhaled corticosteroids should be instructed to do which of the following to reduce common side effects?
    • A. 

      Take prophylactic antibiotics to treat immunosuppression

    • B. 

      Take supplemental calcium to reduce the risk of osteoporosis

    • C. 

      Rinse the mouth with water or mouthwash after using the inhaled steroid

    • D. 

      Reduce the amount of sugar intake to reduce the risk of hyperglycemia

  • 103. 
    The Advair Diskus combines which of the following medications? I. solumedrol II. serevent III. flovent IV. flonase
    • A. 

      II and IV

    • B. 

      II and III

    • C. 

      I and IV

    • D. 

      I and III

  • 104. 
    The mechanism of action of cromolyn sodium is;
    • A. 

      Inhibition of arachidonic acid metabolism

    • B. 

      Suppression of HPA

    • C. 

      Inhibition of calcium influx into the mast cell, which prevents the release of chemical mediators

    • D. 

      Stimulation of lipoxygenase pathways

  • 105. 
    Which of the following is given as an oral medication?
    • A. 

      Flovent

    • B. 

      Singulair

    • C. 

      Serevent

    • D. 

      Azmacort

  • 106. 
    The antihistamine effect of Allegra is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms?
    • A. 

      Blocking the action of histamine at histamine 1 receptors

    • B. 

      Stabilizing the mast cell membrane and preventing release of histamine

    • C. 

      Inhibiting cytokine release from nasal epithelial cells

    • D. 

      Inhibiting the effect of histamine by blocking lipoxygenase pathways

  • 107. 
    You are asked to recommend treatment for a 16 year old who is seen in a hospital clinic for seasonal allergies and rhinitis. She explains to you that she suffers from scratchy throat, runny nose, cough, and sneezing but denies SOB and wheezing. What combination of drugs would best treat her allergy symptoms? I. Advair Diskus II. Flonase III. Allegra
    • A. 

      I and III

    • B. 

      II and III

    • C. 

      I and II

    • D. 

      I, II and III

  • 108. 
    Inflammation that occurs in the airways is usually in response to the release of IgG.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 109. 
    Allergic asthma is also referred to as extrinsic asthma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 110. 
    Over time, daily use of inhaled corticosteroids reverse airway remodeling
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 111. 
    Patients on long term systemic steroid use may develop Cushing's syndrome and osteoporosis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 112. 
    Cromolyn sodium can be used to relieve acute bronchospasm
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 113. 
    The late-phase response in the inflammatory process is not responsive to bronchodilator therapy
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 114. 
    All prostaglandins produce bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 115. 
    Leukotriene modifiers can be used as an alternative to low-dose inhaled steroids for long term control of asthma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 116. 
    Intranasal mast cell stabilizers and intranasal corticosteroids are used to treat allergic rhinitis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 117. 
    Mast cells containing histamine are located in nasal passages but are not found in the airways.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 118. 
    Asthma that results from infection, cold air, exercise, or stress is referred to as
  • 119. 
    Inhaled corticosteroids are used primarily for the_________ response to allergic asthma
  • 120. 
    Stimulation of dopamine receptors causes what to occur?
  • 121. 
    Anit biotic agents are used to treat which of the following organisms?
    • A. 

      Parasites

    • B. 

      Bacteria

    • C. 

      Fungi

    • D. 

      Viruses

  • 122. 
    Fever can be present in which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Inflammatory process

    • B. 

      Viral infection

    • C. 

      Bacterial infection

    • D. 

      All the above