Pharamacology

125 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Medicines and drugs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     A client entering the medicine clinic has been diagnosed with an overactive bladder. Which medicine will the nurse be expected to order?
    • A. 

      Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

    • B. 

      Oxybutynin (Ditropan)

    • C. 

      Bethanechol (Urecholine)

    • D. 

      Tolterodine tartrate (Detrol)

  • 2. 
    Identify the functions of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS):Afferent Nervous System
    • A. 

      Transmits signals to the brain and other body parts

    • B. 

      Transmits signals to the spinal cord and brain

    • C. 

      Carry impulses from CNS to other parts of body

    • D. 

      Carry impulses from the CNS to the brain

  • 3. 
    Identify the functions of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS):Efferent Nervous System
    • A. 

      Carry impulses from CNS to other parts of body

    • B. 

      Transmit signals to the spinal cord and brain

    • C. 

      Carry impulses from the CNS to the spine

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 4. 
    A ___________________ are segments that makes up each nerve of the central and peripheral nervous system
    • A. 

      Neurons

    • B. 

      Synapse

    • C. 

      Neurotransmitter

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 5. 
    A _______________________ are junctions between one neuron and the next.
    • A. 

      Neurons

    • B. 

      Neurotransmitter

    • C. 

      Synapse

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 6. 
    A ______________________________ is a chemical substance that causes  transmission of nerve signals or impulses
    • A. 

      Neurotransmitters

    • B. 

      Synapse

    • C. 

      Neurons

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 7. 
    What is a disease that is affected by neurotransmitter regulation?
    • A. 

      SIDS

    • B. 

      Parkinson's

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      COPD

  • 8. 
    Select all that apply.Common Neurotransmitters that affects the CNS
    • A. 

      Acetycholine

    • B. 

      Noreprinephrine

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Dopamine

    • E. 

      Adrenaline

  • 9. 
    Name the two major neurotransmitter that is included in the Autonomic Nervous system:Select all that applies.
    • A. 

      Adrenergic

    • B. 

      Acetycholine

    • C. 

      Noepinephrine

    • D. 

      Epinenphrine

  • 10. 
    Into what two systems is the autonomic nervous system subdivided? (Select all that applies)
    • A. 

      Sympathetic

    • B. 

      Parasympathetic

    • C. 

      CNS

    • D. 

      PNS

  • 11. 
    Name the characteristics for the SNS? Select all that applies
    • A. 

      Emotional Stress

    • B. 

      Happy

    • C. 

      Depress

    • D. 

      Physical stress

  • 12. 
    True or False:Acetylcholine is found in both the central and peripheral nervous systems.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    Identify the fibers that makes up the Noreprineprine neurotransmitters?
    • A. 

      Adrenergic fibers

    • B. 

      Noreprinephrine fibers

    • C. 

      Cholinergic fibers

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 14. 
    Which medications act the same as the sympathetic system?
    • A. 

      Adrenergic Drugs

    • B. 

      Noreprinerphrine Drugs

    • C. 

      Epinephrine Drugs

    • D. 

      Anticholinergic Drugs

  • 15. 
    Which medications act the same as the parasympathetic system?
    • A. 

      Adrenergic Blocking Agent

    • B. 

      Cholinergic Drugs

    • C. 

      Epinephrine Drugs

    • D. 

      Adrenergic Drugs

  • 16. 
    What inhibits the sympathetic system?
    • A. 

      Adrenergic blocking agents

    • B. 

      Alpha drugs

    • C. 

      Cholinergic Drugs

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 17. 
    Name the receptors that are subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system. (Selet all that applies)
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Dopaminergic

    • C. 

      Beta

    • D. 

      Anticholinergic

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    ______________________________ causes effects on the body similar to those produced by acetylcholine
    • A. 

      Adrenergic Blocking agent

    • B. 

      Cholinergic Drugs

    • C. 

      Adrenergic Drugs

    • D. 

      Anticholinergic Drugs

  • 19. 
    __________________________ causes effects similar  to those produced by the adrenergic neurotransmitters.
    • A. 

      Adrenergic Blocking agent

    • B. 

      Anti- Cholinergic Drugs

    • C. 

      Cholinergic Drugs

    • D. 

      Adrenergic Drugs

  • 20. 
    What inhibits the parasympathetic system?
    • A. 

      Beta Blockers

    • B. 

      Anticholinergic agents

    • C. 

      Adrenergic agents

    • D. 

      Anticholinergic Drugs

  • 21. 
    ______________________________ block or inhibits cholinergic activities.
    • A. 

      Anticholinergic Agents

    • B. 

      Beta Blockers

    • C. 

      Adrenergic blocking agents

    • D. 

      Cholinergic drugs

  • 22. 
    _____________________ inhibits the adrenergic system
    • A. 

      Anticholinergic agents

    • B. 

      Adrenergic drugs

    • C. 

      Cholinergic drugs

    • D. 

      Adrenergic blocking agents

  • 23. 
    Broad classes of drugs:____________________  Occurs Naturally in the body and can be synthetically manufactures:NorepinephrineEpinephrineDopamine  
    • A. 

      Noncatecholamones

    • B. 

      Catecholamines

    • C. 

      Non of the above

  • 24. 
    ________________ acts in a similar way as ________________ but are more selective for certain types of receptors.
    • A. 

      Noncatecholamines ; Catecholamines

    • B. 

      Catecholamines ; Noncatecholamines

  • 25. 
    Select all that applies:Expected side effects of Adrenergic Drugs Includes:
    • A. 

      Skin Flushing

    • B. 

      Dizziness

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      Hypertension

    • E. 

      Palpitation

  • 26. 
    Select all that applies:Side effects of adrenergic drugs that should be reported includes:
    • A. 

      Hypertension

    • B. 

      Nausea

    • C. 

      Arrythmias

    • D. 

      Severe hypotension

    • E. 

      Chest pain

  • 27. 
    Adrenergic Agents: Name the action for Albuterol
    • A. 

      Cholinergic Blocking agent

    • B. 

      Cardiac stimulant

    • C. 

      Bronchodialator

    • D. 

      Vasoconstrictor

  • 28. 
    Adrenergic Agent:Name the action of Dopamine
    • A. 

      Vasoconstrictor (To increase BP)

    • B. 

      Vasoconstrictor (To decrease BP)

    • C. 

      Cardiac stimulant

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 29. 
    Adrenergic Agent:Name the action of Epinephrine.
    • A. 

      Bronchodialtor

    • B. 

      Cardiac Stimulant

    • C. 

      Vasochonstrictor

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 30. 
    Identify the purpose of Apha blockers.  Example of drug:Tamsulosin (Flomax)
    • A. 

      Used for UTI

    • B. 

      Used to aid in urine retension

    • C. 

      Used to relax smooth muscle of bladder and prostate

    • D. 

      None os the above

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Antichoinergic Agents

    • B. 

      Alpha and Beta Adrenergic Agents

    • C. 

      Norepinephrine

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 32. 
    What blocking agent will be used to treat the following disorders:hypertension, angina, myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, migraine, BPH, Raynaud’s disorder, glaucoma)
    • A. 

      Beta Adrenergic Blockers

    • B. 

      Alpha Adrenergic Blockers

    • C. 

      Anticholinergic

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 33. 
    (miosis [constriction], increased neuromuscular transmission, dilated blood vessels, decreased heart rate, constriction of bronchioles, increased bladder tone), these are responses for _________
    • A. 

      Cholinergic Agents

    • B. 

      Alpha Beta Blockers

    • C. 

      Anticholinergic Agents

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 34. 
    _________________ used to treat urinary retention because it relaxes the muscle sphincters , and contracts the bladder.  Name what agent gropu or class is this drug classified...
    • A. 

      Flomax ; Cholinergic

    • B. 

      Urecholine ; Apha Beta Blockers

    • C. 

      Urecholine ; Cholinergic

    • D. 

      Flomax ; Anticholinergic

  • 35. 
    Select all that applies...Side effects of cholinergic agents includes:
    • A. 

      Nausea

    • B. 

      Vomitting

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Cramping

  • 36. 
    This drug is  •Known as cholinergic blocking agents or parasympatholytic agents •Actions §Block action of acetylcholine in the parasympathetic nervous system •Uses §Effective in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, GI and ophthalmic disorders, bradycardia, and genitourinary disorders
    • A. 

      Anticholinergic Drugs

    • B. 

      Cholinergic Drugs

    • C. 

      Adrenergic Drugs

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 37. 
    What symptoms of Parkinson’s disease does this type of drug help to control? Anticholinergic drugs.Select all that applies
    • A. 

      Decreasing saliva

    • B. 

      Tremors

    • C. 

      Spacity

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 38. 
    What is the rationale for giving an anticholinergic before placing a tube down the throat?
    • A. 

      Decrease secretion and block vagal stimulation

    • B. 

      Increase secretion

    • C. 

      Stimulate Vagal secretion

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 39. 
    What is ththe purpose of Atropine Drugs
    • A. 

      Used to control overactive bladder

    • B. 

      Used before surgery to dry secretion

    • C. 

      Used as a beta blocker

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 40. 
    ___________________ side effects includes:  •Side effects to expect §Blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, dryness of the mucosa of the mouth, nose, and throat •Side effects to report §Confusion, depression, nightmares, hallucinations
    • A. 

      Adrenergic

    • B. 

      Cholinergic

    • C. 

      Anticholinergic

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 41. 
    Define Pharmakokinetics.
    • A. 

      How the bod relates to the drugs

    • B. 

      What the body does to the drugs

    • C. 

      What the body does to the drugs

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 42. 
    Define Pharmacodynamics
    • A. 

      What the body does to the drugs

    • B. 

      What the drugs does to the body

    • C. 

      How the drugs relates to the body

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 43. 
    _____________ includes: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion
    • A. 

      Anatomical barriers

    • B. 

      Pharmacodynamics

    • C. 

      Pharmacokinectics

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 44. 
    True or False:The correct process of Pharmacokinectics (how the drug moves through the body) involvesa) Absorptionb) Metabolizec) Distributio d)Excretion
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    What is the fastest absortion route for medication absorption?
    • A. 

      Tablets

    • B. 

      Intravenous

    • C. 

      Liquid Medicine

    • D. 

      Topical

  • 46. 
    Enzyme Systems of what body organ is the primary site for metabolism?
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Muscles

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Spleen

  • 47. 
    These are any structural components of a cell to which a drug is bind.
    • A. 

      Adrenergics

    • B. 

      Receptors

    • C. 

      Nerves

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Adverse Drug Events

    • B. 

      Adver Drug Experts

    • C. 

      Advance Drug Excretion

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Teratogens

    • B. 

      Idiosyncaratic Reactions

    • C. 

      Allergic Reactions

    • D. 

      Carcinogenicity

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      Positive expectations about treatment and care can positively affect the outcome

    • B. 

      Not believing it will work – major role in psychogenic illness, esp stress related problems – by worry

    • C. 

      Believing it will work

    • D. 

      Compliance – nursing action – explain the importance of taking the drug

  • 51. 
    A _________________ occurs when two drugs with similar actions are taken for a double effect.
    • A. 

      Synergistic Effect

    • B. 

      Cumulative Effect

    • C. 

      Additive Effect

    • D. 

      Antagonistic Effect

  • 52. 
    A ____________ occurs when the first drug inhibits the metabolism or excretion of the second drug, causing increased activity of the second drug
    • A. 

      Agonistic Interference

    • B. 

      Interference

    • C. 

      Incompatibility

    • D. 

      Antagonist Interferance

  • 53. 
     A Patient takes 50 mg of a drug that has a half-life of 12 hours.  What percentage of the dose remains in the body 36 hours after the drug is administered?
    • A. 

      50 mg

    • B. 

      25 mg

    • C. 

      12.5 mg

    • D. 

      6.25 mg

  • 54. 
    The portion of a drug that is pharmacologically active is known as the:
    • A. 

      Protein bound drug

    • B. 

      Unbound drug

    • C. 

      Drug tolerance level

    • D. 

      Incompatibility

  • 55. 
      The process of how a drug response may vary according to inherited differences in drug metabolism is known as:
    • A. 

      Pharmacogenetics

    • B. 

      Polymorphisms

    • C. 

      Pharmacodynamics

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      When discontinuing drugs therapy, taper the dosage when appropriate

    • B. 

      Start at one third to one half the normal dosage and gradually increase

    • C. 

      Old Medications should be kept for future references

    • D. 

      May have difficulty with swallowing – can the med be crushed or broken

    • E. 

      Inquire about ability to pay

  • 58. 
     Enzyme systems are primarily found in the ________;  therefore laboratory values to assess functioning of this organ may be a required premedication assessment.
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Lungs

    • D. 

      Blood

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 60. 
    True or False:When administering neibulizers have the patient exhale through pursed lips
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    True or False:When administering Nose Drops or Nasal Sprays  Patient should remain in position for 4 to 5 minutes after the medication is administered.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    Name the most common cause for a UTI
    • A. 

      Klebsiella pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Gram-negative aerobic bacilli from the gastrointestinal tract

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      E. Coli

  • 63. 
    What is the brand name for fosfomycin? 
    • A. 

      Monurol

    • B. 

      Furadantin, Macrodantin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 64. 
    True or False:  •Anticholinergic agents are the primary drugs used to treat overactive bladder syndrome.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    What is the brand name for neostigmine?
    • A. 

      Tolterodine

    • B. 

      Phenazopyridine hydrochloride

    • C. 

      Prostigmin

    • D. 

      Oxybutynin chloride

  • 66. 
    What should a woman using miconazole for a yeast infection be told about tolterodine?  Pertaining to a UTI
    • A. 

      They are both great for acne

    • B. 

      Both Tolterodine and miconazole are compatible

    • C. 

      Tolterodine will be ineffective with miconazole

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 67. 
    True or False:Foul-smelling urine is indicative of an infection.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    Why is the acidity of urine important? 
    • A. 

      Increase acidity increases the incidence of inefective organism growth

    • B. 

      Decreased acidity inhibits all possible UTIs

    • C. 

      Increased acidity decreases the incidence of infective organism growth.

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 69. 
    Which side effects will disappear in a few days after when a patient develops a UIT? (Select all that applies)
    • A. 

      Nausea

    • B. 

      Vomitting

    • C. 

      Cramping

    • D. 

      Diarrhea

    • E. 

      Problems with vision

  • 70. 
    When should you check for a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency?
    • A. 

      Before initiating quinolone therapy

    • B. 

      After initiating quinolone therapy

    • C. 

      Intermittently between quinolone therapy

    • D. 

      30 mins before initiating quinolone therapy

  • 71. 
    As the nurse prepares to administer Neostigmime (Prostigmin) to a patient, it is noted that the patient has bradycardia. What initial nursing action does the nurse take?
    • A. 

      Administer furosemide (Lasix)

    • B. 

      Administer atropine

    • C. 

      Force Fluids

    • D. 

      Withhold the medication

  • 72. 
    A patient has been prescribed phenazopyradine hydrochloride (Pyridium) for treatment of bladder spasms.  The nurse questions the order after discovering that which procedure has been ordered for the patient?
    • A. 

      Barium enema

    • B. 

      Colonoscopy

    • C. 

      Coloremetric urine test

    • D. 

      Ultrasound of the kidney

  • 73. 
    The nurse is caring for a patient recieving methenamine mandelate (Mandelamine) for UTI Prophylaxis. Which finding does the nurse report to the prescriber?
    • A. 

      Vomiting

    • B. 

      Dysuria

    • C. 

      Urine PH of 5.4

    • D. 

      Urine specific gravity of 1.016

  • 74. 
    A patient is diagnose with uncomplicated acute cystitis has a history of noonadherance to drug therapy. Which drug dose the nurse anticipates will be used to treat the patient?
    • A. 

      Methenamine Mandelate (Mandelamine)

    • B. 

      Bethanechol Chloride (Bethanechol)

    • C. 

      Norfloxacin

    • D. 

      Fosfomycin (Monurol)

  • 75. 
    A patient treated at the clinic was diagnose with Overactive Bladder.  Whiat prescription would be given to her to treat the diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Lasix

    • B. 

      Detrol

    • C. 

      Antihistamine

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 76. 
    Which drug requires the plan of patient care to include in assessment for signs of peripheral neuropathy?
    • A. 

      Bethanechol Chloride (Bethanechol)

    • B. 

      Tolterodine (Detrol)

    • C. 

      Nalidixic Acid (NegGram)

    • D. 

      Nitrofurantoin (Furdantin)

  • 77. 
    A patient  is taking Nitrofurantoin (Furdantin). What nonharmful adverse effect does the nurse instruct the patient to be aware of?
    • A. 

      Discoloration of the skin and sclera to yellow brown

    • B. 

      Increased Appetite

    • C. 

      Diarrhea

    • D. 

      Rust brown discoloration of the urine

  • 78. 
    A patient is prescribed tolterodine (Detrol) for an overactive bladder control. The nurse questions the order after finding that the patient have which of these conditions?
    • A. 

      Narrow - angle glaucoma

    • B. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • C. 

      Mitral valve prolapse

    • D. 

      Asthma

  • 79. 
    A patient being treated for recurrent UTIs, asked the nurse how the physician decides wich antimicroial drug to prescribe.  In answering the patients question, what does the nurse identify as the primary determining factor?
    • A. 

      Gram stain

    • B. 

      Urine culture

    • C. 

      Drug adverse effects

    • D. 

      Patients sympthoms

  • 80. 
    As the nurse prepares to administer neostigmine (Prostigmin) to a patient, it is noted that the patient has bradycardia. What initial action does the nurse takes?
    • A. 

      Administer furosemide (Lasix)

    • B. 

      Administer Atropine

    • C. 

      Force fluids

    • D. 

      Withhold the medication

  • 81. 
    Which common adverse effect does the nurse instruct a patient to be aware of while taking phenaopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium)?
    • A. 

      Increased appetite

    • B. 

      Insomnia

    • C. 

      Reddish orange urine discoloration

    • D. 

      Tremors

  • 82. 
    Which medication is given to stimulate urination?
    • A. 

      Tolterodine (Detrol)

    • B. 

      Bethanechol Chloride

    • C. 

      Nalidixic Acid (NegGram)

    • D. 

      Methenamine Mandelate (Mandelamine)

  • 83. 
    Which condition is dopamine commonly used to treat?
    • A. 

      Asthma

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Shock

    • D. 

      Stroke

  • 84. 
    For a patient recieving adrenergicagents, the nurse assesses the concurrent use of which medications that may inhibit therapeutic activity? (Select all that applies)
    • A. 

      Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

    • B. 

      Propranolol (Inderal)

    • C. 

      Bretylium tosylate (Bretylate)

    • D. 

      Omeprazole (Prilosec)

    • E. 

      Aspirin

  • 85. 
    Patients with which condition are potentially more sensitive to the effects of adrenergic agents? (Select all that applies)
    • A. 

      Impaired hepatic function

    • B. 

      Lung disease

    • C. 

      Thyroid disease

    • D. 

      Heart disease

    • E. 

      Hypotension

  • 86. 
    What will a medication that stimulates the beta 2 receptors cause?
    • A. 

      Bronchoconstriction

    • B. 

      Relaxation of the uterus

    • C. 

      Vasoconstriction of the peripheral blood vesicles

    • D. 

      Increase in heart rate

  • 87. 
    A patient takining labetalol (Normodyne) has also been prescribed procainamide (Procanbid). What sympthoms does the nurse monitor in this patient?
    • A. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • B. 

      Tachycardia

    • C. 

      Seizures due to decreased sodium and potassium levels

    • D. 

      Bradycardia

  • 88. 
    For what patient does the nurse expect an anticholinergic agent to be ordered? (Select all that applies)
    • A. 

      Patient with tachycardia

    • B. 

      Patient with nocturnam enuresis

    • C. 

      Patient with Parkinson's

    • D. 

      Patient who needs and endotracheal tube

    • E. 

      Patient with hypertension

  • 89. 
    A patient is taking anticholinergic agents. For which common adverse effects monitor for this patient? (Select all that applies)
    • A. 

      Blurred Vision

    • B. 

      Diarrhea

    • C. 

      Urinary retention

    • D. 

      Dryness of mouth

    • E. 

      Chills

  • 90. 
    What nursing assessment is done before starting a patient on a beta adrenergic agent?
    • A. 

      Complete Blood count and sedementation rate

    • B. 

      Liver enzymes

    • C. 

      Blood pressure and heart rate

    • D. 

      Blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels

  • 91. 
    What does the nurse teach a patient that is taking a beta adrenergic blocking agent?
    • A. 

      The drug may be stopped whenpatient begins to have better BP readings

    • B. 

      The medication must be taken with meals

    • C. 

      If the medication is abruptly stopped, it may cause an exacerbation of anginal pectoris

    • D. 

      The drug may be taken with cimetidine with no adverse effect

  • 92. 
    Which beta stimulant is used for bronchodialation to stop premature labor?
    • A. 

      Metaproterenol (Alupent)

    • B. 

      Albuterol (Proventil)

    • C. 

      Phenylephrine (neo-Synephrine)

    • D. 

      Turbutaline (Brethine)

  • 93. 
    A patient is taking Albuterol (Provetil)  has also started taking an OTC cold medication. What symptom does the nurse monitor in this patient?
    • A. 

      Increased occurence of bronchospasms

    • B. 

      Tachycardia

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      Increase fluid retention

  • 94. 
    ______________________ inflammation of the nasal mucous membranes.
    • A. 

      Rhinnorrhea

    • B. 

      Rhinitis

    • C. 

      Dyspnea

    • D. 

      Uticaria

  • 95. 
    ___________ watery eyes
    • A. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • B. 

      Uticaria

    • C. 

      Allergic rhinitis

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 96. 
    Common symptoms for __________________ includes:  •Signs and symptoms üSneezing üNasal congestion üNasal discharge •Common causes üCommon cold (viral infection) üBacterial infection üDrug induced congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa) üAllergies üChronic sinusitis üDeviated septum
    • A. 

      Uticaria

    • B. 

      Allergic rhinitis

    • C. 

      Rhinitis

    • D. 

      Conjunctiva

  • 97. 
    True of False:Decongestants are not used for the common cold.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 98. 
    Some common signs and symptoms of Allergic rhinitis includes: (Select all that applies)
    • A. 

      Rhinorrhea

    • B. 

      Cough

    • C. 

      Sore throat

    • D. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • E. 

      Itchy eyes abd ears

  • 99. 
    True ot false: •The first step is to identify the allergens and try to avoid them when treating allergic rhinitis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      Rhinitis medicamentosa

    • B. 

      Rhinitis antibodies (Meds no longer works)

    • C. 

      Overdose

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 101. 
    Anti-histamines are also know as:
    • A. 

      Bet 2 receptors

    • B. 

      Allenergic receptors

    • C. 

      H1 receptors

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 102. 
    Some medications for antihistamines includes:
    • A. 

      Tylenol

    • B. 

      Penicillin

    • C. 

      Zyrtec

    • D. 

      Detrol

  • 103. 
    A patient taking antihistamines meds may experience which of the following?
    • A. 

      Dry eyes

    • B. 

      Drowsiness

    • C. 

      Diarrhea

    • D. 

      Blurred vision

  • 104. 
    _______________  •Alpha adrenergic stimulants that cause vasoconstriction to the nasal mucosa which decreases nasal congestion
    • A. 

      Antihistamines

    • B. 

      Antitissuive

    • C. 

      Decongestants

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 105. 
    As part of a nursing assessment a patient should pay close attention to  for signof ______________ when taking decongestants.
    • A. 

      HTN

    • B. 

      Bradycardia

    • C. 

      Migraines

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 106. 
    Some common decongestants includes:
    • A. 

      Aspirin

    • B. 

      Tylenol

    • C. 

      Sudafed

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 107. 
    What are antiinflammatory agents:
    • A. 

      Used to treat rhinitis

    • B. 

      Used intranasally to treat symptoms from mild to moderate allergic rhinitis

    • C. 

      Used to treat hypertension

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 108. 
    Select all that applies:Some common use of Intranasal corticosteroids includes:
    • A. 

      Highly effective in reducing inflammation when used intranasally

    • B. 

      Steroids have numerous effects

    • C. 

      May take 2 weeks for the full effect of the medication to become evident

    • D. 

      If there is no improvement in 3 weeks the treatment is continued

  • 109. 
    Select all that applies.  Some Intranasal corticosteroids includes:
    • A. 

      Aspirin

    • B. 

      Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)

    • C. 

      Fluticasone (Flonase)

    • D. 

      Albuterol (Testonodine)

  • 110. 
    • A. 

      Obstructive and Restrictive

    • B. 

      Upper and Lower Respitory disease

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 111. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 112. 
    Early sign of Chronic bronchitis includes:
    • A. 

      Cough

    • B. 

      Sore throat

    • C. 

      Common cold

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 113. 
    • A. 

      Weight loss

    • B. 

      Barrel chested

    • C. 

      Hypopnea

    • D. 

      Cough

  • 114. 
    • A. 

      Antitussives

    • B. 

      Broncodialators

    • C. 

      Diuretics

    • D. 

      Nebulizers

  • 115. 
    ________________ caused  •Directly loosens thick viscous bronchial secretionsBreaks down chemical bonds in the mucous
    • A. 

      Nebulizers

    • B. 

      Mucolytics

    • C. 

      Decongestants

    • D. 

      Antitussive

  • 116. 
    • A. 

      Nebulizers

    • B. 

      Decongestants

    • C. 

      Bronchodialtors

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 117. 
    • A. 

      Corticosteroids

    • B. 

      Antileukotriene agents

    • C. 

      Immunomodulator agents

    • D. 

      Histamines

  • 118. 
    An antitussive agent acts to:
    • A. 

      Dissolve mucus

    • B. 

      Suppress cough reflex response in the brain

    • C. 

      Stimulate increased bronchial gland secretions

    • D. 

      Reduce the release of leukotrienes

  • 119. 
      •Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is classified as a(n):
    • A. 

      Antitussive

    • B. 

      Expectorant

    • C. 

      Mucolytic

    • D. 

      Beta-adrenergic bronchodilator

  • 120. 
    Following the inhalation of steroid medications, the patient should do which of the following?
    • A. 

      Hold the breath for 30 seconds

    • B. 

      Rinse the mouth and swallow

    • C. 

      Rinse the mouth and spit out water

    • D. 

      Nothing is required

  • 121. 
    Patients using intranasal corticosteroids should be counseled about which of the following?
    • A. 

      Therapeutic effects are not immediate

    • B. 

      Dosages must continue to be increased over time

    • C. 

      Avoiding the operation of equipment

    • D. 

      Regular use is not necessary with this medication

  • 122. 
    Blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and dryness of the oral mucosa are anticholinergic effects produced by:
    • A. 

      Steroids

    • B. 

      Decongestants

    • C. 

      Diuretics

    • D. 

      Antihistamines

  • 123. 
    Which of the following classes of medication is more beneficial if given before exposure to allergens?
    • A. 

      Decongestants

    • B. 

      Antihistamines

    • C. 

      Steroids

    • D. 

      Beta-adrenergic agents

  • 124. 
    What clinical use, action and Adrenergic receptor is albuterol?
    • A. 

      Beta 1; Vasopressor; Anaphylaxis

    • B. 

      Alpha, Beta; Bronchodialtor; Hypotension

    • C. 

      Beta 1; vasocconstrictor; shock and hypertension

    • D. 

      Beta 2; Bronchodialtor; Asthma and Emphysema

  • 125. 
    Dopamine is categorized by Adrenergic Receptors, Action and Clinicla Use.
    • A. 

      Alpha, beta-1, dopaminergic; Vasopressors; Shock, hypotension

    • B. 

      Beta -1; Cardiac Stimulant, Intropic Agent

    • C. 

      Beta 2; Bronchodialtor; Nasaldecongestant

    • D. 

      None of the above