Pediatric Quiz 1

68 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

A&P, prematurity, pharmacology


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Post-conceptual, post-gestational, and post-menstrual age all describe gestational age at birth and then they addition of the infants' chronological age.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    _____ is a more sensitive index of well-being versus length or head circumference.
    • A. 

      Weight

    • B. 

      Chest circumference

    • C. 

      Blood pressure

    • D. 

      Having ten fingers and ten toes

  • 3. 
    Full-term infants' weight _____ at 6 months and _____ by 1 year.
    • A. 

      Doubles, triples

    • B. 

      Triples, quadruples

    • C. 

      Stays the same, decreases

    • D. 

      Doesn't matter, still doesn't matter

  • 4. 
    Surfactant is produced by type I pneumocytes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    The neonates first breath must generate a negative pressure of between 40-80 cmH2O causing a drastic increase in pulmonary blood flow.  The decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance and increase in SVR causes a physiologic closure of the foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    Term infants have a low content of Type II muscle fibers in the diaphragm.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Infants terminate expiration before reaching their true FRC causing an intrinsic PEEP And higher FRC.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    Apnea of prematurity are pauses in respiration lasting greater than ___ seconds associated with desaturation, bradycardia, and loss of muscle tone.
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      3

  • 9. 
    Umbilical vein catheters should be inserted until the tip is at the junction of the IVC and right atrium.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    This mechanism delivers the most oxygen rich blood to the cerebral circulation of the fetus by diverting blood through the foramen ovale into the left atrium.
    • A. 

      Preferential streaming

    • B. 

      Robinhood effect

    • C. 

      Coronary steal

    • D. 

      Maaaaaagiiiiic

  • 11. 
    Physiologic anemia of infancy occurs at:
    • A. 

      2-3 months

    • B. 

      4 weeks

    • C. 

      4-6 months

    • D. 

      8-10 months

  • 12. 
    The following conditions will cause persistent pulmonary hypertension/persistent fetal circulation:
    • A. 

      Hypoxia

    • B. 

      Acidosis

    • C. 

      Hypothermia

    • D. 

      Hyperthemia

  • 13. 
    The neonatal cardiac ventricles are more compliant than an adults.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Changes in _________ will have the biggest effect on neonatal cardiac output.
    • A. 

      Heart rate

    • B. 

      Stroke volume

    • C. 

      Blood pressure

    • D. 

      Oxygenation

  • 15. 
    The ______________ nervous system dominates in the infant.
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Sympathetic

  • 16. 
    Glomerular filtration rate is _______ of adult values at birth.
    • A. 

      15-30%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      75%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 17. 
    Neonates are obligate sodium losers - they will continue to excrete sodium even in the presence of a severe deficit.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    Preterm and small for gestational age infants have ____ stores of glycogen.
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 19. 
    Physiologic jaundice is normal during the first few days of life but is considered abnormal if it persists beyond 10 days of life.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Unconjugated bilirubin is ______.  It easily diffuses across the BBB, potentially causing irreversible brain damage called kernicterus or bilirubin encephalopathy.
    • A. 

      Lipophilic

    • B. 

      Lipophobic

    • C. 

      Hydrophilic

    • D. 

      Hydrophobic

  • 21. 
    Neonatal lower esophageal pressure
    • A. 

      Decreased

    • B. 

      Increased

    • C. 

      Unchanged from adults

  • 22. 
    Clinical manifestations of bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
    • A. 

      Airway hyperactivity - bronchospasm prone

    • B. 

      Tachypnea, dyspnea

    • C. 

      O2 dependence

    • D. 

      Tracheobronchomalacia

    • E. 

      Blindness

  • 23. 
    Nitrous oxide is safe to use for patients with bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    Central apnea: Stimulation of laryngeal receptors in the ADULT results in coughing. Stimulation of these same receptors in the PREMATURE INFANT results in ______.  This reflex apnea can be induced by __________ and __________.
    • A. 

      Apnea

    • B. 

      Aggressive suctioning

    • C. 

      Gastroesophageal reflux

    • D. 

      Dancing

  • 25. 
    Former premies <___ weeks post-conceptual age are at the greatest risk of postanesthesia apnea.
  • 26. 
    Select which are metabolic causes of apnea
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Hypoglycemia

    • C. 

      Hypocalcemia

    • D. 

      Acidosis

    • E. 

      Hypoxemia

    • F. 

      Hyperthermia

  • 27. 
    The EBV of a micropremie is ___ mL/kg.
  • 28. 
    Which volatile agent is the most appropriate for premature patients?
    • A. 

      Isoflurane

    • B. 

      Sevo

    • C. 

      Des

    • D. 

      Halothane

  • 29. 
    There is a linear correlation between cerebral blood flow and blood pressure in premature infants, resulting in increased CBF w/increased BP resulting in potential intraventricular hemorrhages.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    Infants' retinas mature until ___ weeks post-conceptual age.  Retinopathy of prematurity is associated with supplemental O2 administration.  Goal saturations should be 92-96% in infants <___ weeks PCA.
    • A. 

      44

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      38

    • D. 

      24

  • 31. 
    The rate of PO drug absorption is ______ in infants.
    • A. 

      Prolonged

    • B. 

      Faster

    • C. 

      The same

  • 32. 
    Total plasma protein levels are increased in infants.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    Local anesthetics can easily produce seizures in neonates due to an immature BBB that allows lipophilic drugs to diffuse easily.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    Cytochrome P-450 enzyme activity are ______ at birth.
    • A. 

      Reduced

    • B. 

      Not present

    • C. 

      Increased

  • 35. 
    Healthy preterm & full-term have relatively normal renal drug clearance by _ weeks of life
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1.5

  • 36. 
    Inhalational agents equilibrate more ______ in neonates due to their increased alveolar ventilation, increased cardiac output, and decreased amounts of adipose & muscle tissue.
    • A. 

      Rapidly

    • B. 

      Slowly

  • 37. 
    Incidence of bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest during induction is ______ in infants than in adults
    • A. 

      Greater

    • B. 

      Less

    • C. 

      The same

  • 38. 
    Excessive depths of anesthesia are more easily achieved with spontaneous ventilation versus controlled ventilation in an infant.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    An increased incidence of emergence delirium in children has been associated with:
    • A. 

      Desflurane

    • B. 

      Iso

    • C. 

      Sevo

    • D. 

      N2O

  • 40. 
    It is not important to preoxygenate/denitrogenate pediatric patients.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    Which form of induction is safest?
    • A. 

      Intravenous

    • B. 

      Inhalation

  • 42. 
    The most common adverse reaction to ketamine is PONV.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 43. 
    Neonates have ________ sensitivity to NMBD's.
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 44. 
    Succinylcholine has a black box label warning for children <12 years old due to the potential for bradycardia.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    Amide local anesthetics are weak bases that bind to a-1-acid glycoprotein.  AAG levels are decrease in infants resulting in and increased free fraction of LA's.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    Fentanyl is associated with more post-operative apnea than morphine in patients < 6 months old.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    There is an increased risk for bleeding for ___ hours after ketorolac administration.
  • 48. 
    Studies have found the highest degree of neuro damage when the following agents are used:
    • A. 

      Volatile agents

    • B. 

      Ketamine

    • C. 

      Midazolam

    • D. 

      Nitrous oxide

    • E. 

      Propofol

    • F. 

      Opioids