Patient Assessment Final

85 Questions | Total Attempts: 84

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Final Assessment Quizzes & Trivia

Practice questions for patient assessment final.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which is not a function of the renal system?
    • A. 

      Regulate Ion Concentrations in the plasma.

    • B. 

      Break down drugs through CYP mediated metabolism.

    • C. 

      Stabilize the pH of the blood.

    • D. 

      Synthesize calcitriol.

  • 2. 
    If a patient presents with flank pain in the region of their kidneys, what question could you ask to possibly determine whether it is a kidney stone versus a UTI?
    • A. 

      Is the pain dull or sharp?

    • B. 

      Is the pain worse after a meal?

    • C. 

      Is the pain relieved by lying down?

    • D. 

      Is the pain relieved by taking ibuprofen?

  • 3. 
    Which of the following urine outputs would be categorized as oliguria?
    • A. 

      30 mL/day

    • B. 

      140 mL/day

    • C. 

      1300 mL/day

    • D. 

      2700 mL/day

  • 4. 
    Which of the following, when found in the urine, would be characteristic of a patient with uncontrolled diabetes.
    • A. 

      High protein levels

    • B. 

      High glucose levels

    • C. 

      High nitrite levels

    • D. 

      High red blood cells

  • 5. 
    When serum creatinine rises, glomerular filtration rate
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Decreases

    • C. 

      Stays the same

    • D. 

      Takes a vacation

  • 6. 
    Glomerular filtration rate is easy to directly measure.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    The acronym MDRD in the MDRD equation stands for.
    • A. 

      Modification of Diet in Renal Disease

    • B. 

      Modification of Drugs in Renal Disease

    • C. 

      Method of Dosing in Renal Disease

    • D. 

      Method of Drugs in Renal Disease

    • E. 

      Method of Death in Renal Disease

  • 8. 
    When should you multiply eGFR by (BSA/1.73)?
    • A. 

      When the patient is female.

    • B. 

      When the patient has mild to moderate renal disease.

    • C. 

      When the patient has severe renal disease.

    • D. 

      When the patient is African American.

    • E. 

      When the patient is very large or small.

  • 9. 
    The FDA classification of normal renal function is eGFR or eCrCl of...
    • A. 

      Less than 30 mL/min

    • B. 

      Less than 60 mL/min

    • C. 

      More than 60 mL/min

    • D. 

      More than 90 mL/min

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is characteristic of acute renal disease.
    • A. 

      Gradual decline in function

    • B. 

      Damage can be reversible

    • C. 

      Marked by hyperphosphatemia

    • D. 

      Marked by hypermagnesemia

  • 11. 
    Which is not one of the three phases of acute renal disease?
    • A. 

      Oliguric Phase

    • B. 

      Polyuric Phase

    • C. 

      Diuretic Phase

    • D. 

      Recovery Phase

  • 12. 
    Which is not a drug class that may cause acute renal failure?
    • A. 

      ACE inhibitors

    • B. 

      Angiotensin-II Receptor Blockers

    • C. 

      NSAIDs

    • D. 

      Calcium Channel Blockers

  • 13. 
    Which is not a common cause of acute renal failure?
    • A. 

      Calculi

    • B. 

      Renal artery stenosis

    • C. 

      Excessive caffeine intake

    • D. 

      Congestive Heart Failure

  • 14. 
    Which is not a sign or symptom of chronic renal failure?
    • A. 

      Edema

    • B. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • C. 

      Flank Pain

    • D. 

      Excitability

  • 15. 
    Which stage of kidney disease is characterized by a GFR of 15-29 mL/min/1.73m^2?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    • E. 

      5

  • 16. 
    What is not a disease associated with Chronic Kidney Disease?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis

    • B. 

      Diabetes

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • E. 

      Polycystic kidney disease

    • F. 

      Interstitial nephritis

  • 17. 
    A UTI that spreads to the upper urinary tract and reaches the kidney is called...
    • A. 

      Cystitis

    • B. 

      Pyelonephritis

    • C. 

      Bacteritis

    • D. 

      Nephritis

  • 18. 
    The organism most commonly associated with urinary tract infections is...
    • A. 

      Escherichia coli

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • C. 

      Klebsiella pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Proteus mirabilis

    • E. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • 19. 
    The most common mineral accumulation that leads to renal stones is...
    • A. 

      Uric acid

    • B. 

      Struvite

    • C. 

      Calcium salts

    • D. 

      Sodium salts

  • 20. 
    Urinary incontinence that occurs when patient coughs, laughs, or sneezes is called ___________ incontinence.
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Urge

    • C. 

      Overflow

    • D. 

      Functional

  • 21. 
    Which is not a risk factor for breast cancer?
    • A. 

      Female

    • B. 

      Early Menarche

    • C. 

      Long Term Hormone Therapy

    • D. 

      African American

  • 22. 
    How often does the American Cancer Society recommends that women should perform a breast self-exam?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      Daily

    • C. 

      Weekly

    • D. 

      Monthly

    • E. 

      Yearly

  • 23. 
    Martha Mu, a new mother, asks you about some changes in her breast.  She says that she has felt a lump in one breast.  She states that it is extremely painful, and the area around the lump is reddened.  She also states that she started running a fever at the same time she noticed the lump.  This is the first time she has experienced this. What does Martha likely have?
    • A. 

      Breast Cancer

    • B. 

      Mastitis

    • C. 

      Fibrocystic Changes of the Breast

    • D. 

      Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

  • 24. 
    Vulvovaginal Candidias is usually caused by a
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Virus

    • C. 

      Fungus

    • D. 

      Tapeworm

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is a risk factor for vaginal candidiasis?
    • A. 

      Folic Acid Deficiency

    • B. 

      Oral Contraceptives

    • C. 

      NSAIDs

    • D. 

      Male Sex

  • 26. 
    What would you recommend for an oral treatment of vaginal candidiasis that will likely have very high patient compliance?
    • A. 

      Clotrimazole

    • B. 

      Miconazole

    • C. 

      Ketoconazole

    • D. 

      Fluconazole

  • 27. 
    A women going through menopause comes to your pharmacy complaining of a burning pain during urination, painful intercourse, and bleeding after intercourse.  What does she most likely have?
    • A. 

      Bacterial Vaginosis

    • B. 

      Atrophic Vaginitis

    • C. 

      Vaginal Candidiasis

    • D. 

      Trichomoniasis

  • 28. 
    Dysmenorrhea that is the result of an underlying pelvic pathology such as endometriosis is termed...
    • A. 

      Primary Dysmenorrhea

    • B. 

      Secondary Dysmenorrhea

    • C. 

      Tertiary Dysmenorrhea

    • D. 

      Quaternary Dysmenorrhea

  • 29. 
    Primary Dysmenorrhea begins at what time during a women's cycle?
    • A. 

      Onset of menses

    • B. 

      2-3 days before ovulation

    • C. 

      2-3 days after ovulation

    • D. 

      2-3 days before the onset of menses

  • 30. 
    What does the acronym PMDD stand for?
    • A. 

      Premenstrual Deadly Disease

    • B. 

      Premenstrual Dysphoric Diagnosis

    • C. 

      Premenstrual Dysphoric Disease

    • D. 

      Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder

  • 31. 
    A patient presents at the clinic with PMDD with severe depressive symptoms.  The MD asks you for a recommendation.  What treatment would you recommend as a first line therapy?
    • A. 

      Ibuprofen

    • B. 

      Fluoxetine

    • C. 

      Tamsulosin

    • D. 

      Fluconazole

  • 32. 
    When should a routine papanicolaou smear be done?
    • A. 

      Yearly after birth

    • B. 

      Yearly after menarche

    • C. 

      Yearly after age 18 or when a women becomes sexually active

    • D. 

      Yearly after menopause

  • 33. 
    Which of the following is a medical emergency and requires immediate surgery?
    • A. 

      Testicular Cancer

    • B. 

      Testicular Torsion

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Varicocele

  • 34. 
    What is the medical term for abnormal hypertrophy of the male breast tissue?
    • A. 

      Breast Cancer

    • B. 

      Gynecomastia

    • C. 

      Androgenomastia

    • D. 

      Man Boobs

  • 35. 
    Which drug is not associated with gynecomastia?
    • A. 

      Digoxin

    • B. 

      Spironolactone

    • C. 

      Cimetidine

    • D. 

      Ampicillin

  • 36. 
    "False gynecomastia" occurs in older men when a natural reduction in chest muscle is replaced by adipose issue.  What is the medical term for this?
    • A. 

      Lipomastia

    • B. 

      Rhabdomastia

    • C. 

      Myomastia

    • D. 

      Hydromastia

  • 37. 
    In men, breast tenderness is common with which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Gynecomastia

    • B. 

      Lipomastia

    • C. 

      Breast Cancer

    • D. 

      Overcooking the chicken

  • 38. 
    In what age group is testicular cancer the most common male cancer?
    • A. 

      Children

    • B. 

      Young Men

    • C. 

      Old Men

  • 39. 
    Which is not a risk factor for testicular cancer?
    • A. 

      Cryptoorchidism

    • B. 

      Gynecomastia

    • C. 

      Mumps orchitis

    • D. 

      Hydrocele

    • E. 

      Inguinal hernia

  • 40. 
    In what age group does hydrocele usually resolve on its own?
    • A. 

      Newborns

    • B. 

      Children

    • C. 

      Young Adults

    • D. 

      Elderly

  • 41. 
    A patient presents with palpable vessels in his scrotum, but says he does not feel any pain with it.  He describes it like feeling a "bag of worms".  What does he likely have?
    • A. 

      Testicular Cancer

    • B. 

      Testicular Torsion

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Variocele

  • 42. 
    A 24 year old patient comes into you pharmacy saying he felt a lump in one testicle.  He describes a dull pain that is like a feeling of fullness in the testicle.  He hasn't felt any pain or noticed any other changes in his other testicle.  You refer him to his doctor to screen for.....
    • A. 

      Testicular Cancer

    • B. 

      Testicular Torsion

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Variocele

  • 43. 
    A 59 year old construction worker complains of pain in his groin area.  He says the pain is worse when he has to lift on the job.  What is it likely that he has?
    • A. 

      Testicular Torsion

    • B. 

      Testicular Cancer

    • C. 

      Hernia

    • D. 

      Tinea Cruris

  • 44. 
    A 29 year old, 400 pound man enters your pharmacy looking for a cream to treat a rash that has developed "down there."  You ask him to describe the rash and he says it is red, scaly, and itchy.  You ask if he has any open sores and he says no.  What does he likely have?
    • A. 

      Tinea Cruris

    • B. 

      Hernia

    • C. 

      Herpes

    • D. 

      Syphylis

  • 45. 
    In addition to keeping the area clean and dry, you recommend a topical treatment to treat his jock itch.  What treatment would you recommend and how often should it be applied?
    • A. 

      Benzoyl Peroxide Cream: Once Daily

    • B. 

      Benzoyl Peroxide Cream: Twice Daily

    • C. 

      Clotrimazole Cream: Once Daily

    • D. 

      Clotrimazole Cream: Twice Daily

  • 46. 
    By age 80, most men are affected by BPH.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    What drug would not be a treatment for BPH?
    • A. 

      Terazosin

    • B. 

      Tamsulosin

    • C. 

      Finasteride

    • D. 

      Sildenafil

  • 48. 
    What drug is formulated as a intracavernosal self-injection or urethral suppository and used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
    • A. 

      Sildenafil

    • B. 

      Tadalafil

    • C. 

      Testosterone

    • D. 

      Alprostadil

  • 49. 
    "If you experience an erection lasting more than 4 hours, seek immediate medical treatment."  The condition described can be caused by Viagra and is called......
    • A. 

      Erectile Dysfunction

    • B. 

      Priapism

    • C. 

      Anorgasmy

    • D. 

      Raynaud's Phenomenon

  • 50. 
    The medical term for itching is...
    • A. 

      Dermatitis

    • B. 

      Pruritus

    • C. 

      Eczema

    • D. 

      Itchitis

  • 51. 
    Poor skin turgor can be a sign of.......
    • A. 

      Dehydration

    • B. 

      Dilutional Hyponatremia

    • C. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • D. 

      Normal, healthy skin

  • 52. 
    If an area looks inflamed, you should put on gloves before proceeding to palpate the area.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    Benign brown spots that appear on the skin as a result of hyperplasia of melanocytes are called....
    • A. 

      Eczema

    • B. 

      Acne

    • C. 

      Freckles

    • D. 

      Lentigines

  • 54. 
    When should a rash be referred to a physician?
    • A. 

      When it is a fungal infection between the toes

    • B. 

      When it involves most of the face

    • C. 

      When it is caused by poison ivy

    • D. 

      When you don't want to look at it

  • 55. 
    In the United States, in what time of year is eczema and xerosis usually worse?
    • A. 

      Winter

    • B. 

      Spring

    • C. 

      Summer

    • D. 

      Fall

  • 56. 
    Which of these patients would be a good candidate for self-treatment of actopic dermatitis?
    • A. 

      A 1 year old with no other symptoms

    • B. 

      A 67 year old with no other symptoms

    • C. 

      A 24 year old with very intense pruritis

    • D. 

      A 32 year old whose skin appears to be infected

  • 57. 
    Which type of contact dermatitis is most likely to present within a few hours of contact?
    • A. 

      Irritant contact dermatitis

    • B. 

      Allergic contact dermatitis

    • C. 

      Purulent contact dermatitis

    • D. 

      Test-Induced dermatitis

  • 58. 
    Diaper Rash generally takes several weeks to develop but resolves very quickly.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    Which is not a scaly dermatoses condition?
    • A. 

      Acne

    • B. 

      Seborrhea

    • C. 

      Dandruff

    • D. 

      Psoriasis

  • 60. 
    The biggest risk factor for developing measles is...
    • A. 

      Family History

    • B. 

      Other skin conditions like eczema

    • C. 

      Not being vaccinated

    • D. 

      High number of sexual partners

  • 61. 
    A reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that often occurs in the elderly is called...
    • A. 

      Chickenpox

    • B. 

      Shingles

    • C. 

      Smallpox

    • D. 

      Measles

  • 62. 
    What bacteria is the most common cause of impetigo?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • C. 

      Propionibacterium acnes

    • D. 

      Escherichia coli

  • 63. 
    In what population is skin candidiasis infection most common?
    • A. 

      Severely Underweight

    • B. 

      Normal, Healthy Adults

    • C. 

      Morbidly Obese

  • 64. 
    Which parasitic infection cannot be treated OTC?
    • A. 

      Lice

    • B. 

      Scabies

    • C. 

      Ringworm

  • 65. 
    Which is not part of the ABCDE objective signs of melanoma?
    • A. 

      Asymmetry

    • B. 

      Border is irregular

    • C. 

      Circular shape

    • D. 

      Diameter is greater than 6mm

    • E. 

      Enlargement of a mole over time

  • 66. 
    Toxic Epidermal Necrosis which is a highly severe reaction that can be caused by NSAIDs, sulfa antibiotics, allopurinol, phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, or anticonvulsants is also known as...
    • A. 

      Dewey-Rheims Syndrome

    • B. 

      McGraw-Hill Syndrome

    • C. 

      Michaelis-Menten Syndrome

    • D. 

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

    • E. 

      Smith-Baker Syndrome

  • 67. 
    A reaction characterized by erythema, edema, vesicles, and/or pruritus, that has a distinct line where sun exposure occurred is characteristic of a photoallergy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    Onychomycosis/Tinea Unguium is typically treated OTC.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 69. 
    The number for poison control is...
    • A. 

      1-800-123-4567

    • B. 

      1-800-222-1222

    • C. 

      1-800-555-5555

    • D. 

      1-800-1POISON (1-800-176-4766)

  • 70. 
    Which is not a risk factor for developing Type II Diabetes Mellitus?
    • A. 

      Physical Inactivity

    • B. 

      Delivering a baby greater than 9 lbs.

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      History of Diabetes Insipidus

  • 71. 
    Which of the following is a sign/symptom of hyperglycemia?
    • A. 

      Rapid Weight Gain

    • B. 

      Slick, moist skin

    • C. 

      Polyuria

    • D. 

      Tachycardia

  • 72. 
    Which is not a sign/symptom of hypoglycemia?
    • A. 

      Bradycardia

    • B. 

      Hunger

    • C. 

      Confusion

    • D. 

      Blurred vision

  • 73. 
    Diabetes Mellitus is diagnosed with a fasting blood glucose level greater than ______ mg/dL on 2 separate occasions.
  • 74. 
    A patient visits the diabetes clinic quarterly.  After his last visit he gets lazy about checking his blood sugars and monitoring his diet.  Four days before his visit he realizes he needs to get his glucose under control and starts checking his blood sugars regularly and monitoring his diet.  He manages to get his blood sugars under control before the appointment.  He then proceeds to fill in his blood sugar log with made up numbers that he thinks will make him look compliant over the last 3 months.  What test can the clinic do that will show his management of his diabetes has been less than stellar?
    • A. 

      Fasting glucose level

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin A1c

    • C. 

      Random glucose

    • D. 

      Urine glucose

  • 75. 
    Diabetic ketoacidosis is a major complication with Type I diabetes mellitus.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    Decreased levels of TSH indicate that the thyroid is
    • A. 

      Overactive

    • B. 

      Underactive

  • 77. 
    Hashimoto's disease is the most common case of hyperthyroidism.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    Exophthalmos is an objective sign of hyperthyroidism.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    What is the blood pressure goal of a patient with diabetes and HTN?
    • A. 

      Less than 140/90

    • B. 

      Less than 120/80

    • C. 

      Less than 130/80

    • D. 

      Less than 160/100

  • 80. 
    The biggest factor to consider when helping a diabetic patient choose a meter is....
    • A. 

      Amount of blood needed for each test

    • B. 

      Size of display screen

    • C. 

      Ability to download test results to a computer

    • D. 

      Insurance coverage

  • 81. 
    If the actual blood glucose is 150 mg/dL, a glucose meter could read anywhere from 120 mg/dL to 180 mg/dL and still meet current ISO criteria for reliability.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 82. 
    I found this quiz helpful to my study.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False